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[ GCSE ] biology > B6: Inheritance, variation and evolution > Flashcards

B6: Inheritance, variation and evolution Flashcards

1
Q

give three features of sexual reproduction

A
  • the production of gametes by meiosis
  • a gamete from each parent fuses to form a zygote
  • gamete have different genetic information so zygote is unique
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2
Q

what are gametes?

A
  • sex cells ( sperm cell and egg cells in animals ; pollen and egg cells in flowering plants )
  • haploid ( half the number of chromosomes)
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3
Q

give three features of meiosis

A
  • form of cell division involved in the formation of gametes in reproductive organs
  • chromosome number is halved
  • involves 2 divisions
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4
Q

what must occur prior to meiosis?

A

interphase:
- copies of genetic information are made during this process

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5
Q

why is meiosis important for sexual reproduction?

A
  • it increases genetic variation
  • it ensures that the zygote formed at fertilisation is diploid
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6
Q

Describe fertilisation and its resulting outcome

A
  • gametes join together to form a zygote
  • the new cell then divides by mitosis
  • as the embryo develops, cells differentiate
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7
Q

give three advantages of sexual reproduction

A
  • genetic variation in offspring,
  • species can adapt to new environments due to variation, which gives them a survival advantage
  • Humans can speed up natural selection through selective breeding, which can increase food production
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8
Q

Describe the disadvantages of sexual reproduction (2)

A
  • two parents are required. this makes reproduction difficult in endangered populations or in species which exhibit solitary lifestyles
  • more time and energy is required so fewer offspring are produced
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9
Q

give 2 features of asexual reproduction?

A
  • involves mitosis only
  • produces genetically identical daughter cells
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10
Q

describe the advantages of asexual reproduction (3)

A
  • only one parent is required
  • more time and energy efficient as do not need a mate
  • lots of offspring can be produced in a short period of time, when conditions are favourable ( enabling the rapid colonisation of an area and reducing competition from other species)
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11
Q

give a disadvantage of asexual reproduction

A
  • no genetic variation ( except from spontaneous mutations)
  • reducing the probability of a species being able to adapt to environmental change
  • species may only be suited to one habitat
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12
Q

Describe the circumstances in which malarial parasites reproduce sexually and asexually

A
  • sexual reproduction in the mosquito ( the gut)
  • asexual reproduction in the human host ( liver and red blood cells)
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13
Q

Describe the circumstances in which fungi reproduce sexually and asexually

A
  • asexual reproduction by spores
  • sexual reproduction to give variation
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14
Q

Describe the circumstances in which plants reproduce sexually and asexually

A
  • sexual reproduction to produce seeds
  • asexual reproduction by runners (e.g strawberry plants) or bulb division ( e.g daffodils)
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15
Q

Describe the structure of
DNA

A
  • A polymer made up of repeating units called nucleotides.
  • The polymer is made up of 2
    strands that is twisted into a double helix
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16
Q

Define genome

A
  • the entire genetic material of an organism
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17
Q

give three reasons why understanding the human genome important?

A
  • searching for genes linked to different types of disease
  • understanding and treating inherited disorders
  • tracing human migration patterns from the past
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18
Q

what is a chromosome?

A
  • a long coiled molecule of DNA that carries genetic information in the form of genes
  • DNA + protein
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19
Q

how many chromosomes do human body cells have?

A

46 chromosomes ( 23 pairs)

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20
Q

How many chromosomes do human gametes have?

A

23 chromosomes

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21
Q

Define gene

A
  • A small section of DNA that codes for a particular sequence of amino acids (that undergo polymerisation) to make a specific protein
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22
Q

what are the monomers of DNA

A

nucleotides

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23
Q

what are DNA nucleotides made up of

A
  • common sugar
  • phosphate group
  • one of four bases : A,T,C , G
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24
Q

state the full names of the four bases in nucleotides

A
  • Adenine
  • Thymine
  • Cytosine
  • Guanine
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25
Q

Describe how nucleotides interact to form a molecule of DNA.

A
  • Sugar and phosphate molecules join to form a sugar-phosphate backbone in each DNA strand.
  • Base connected to each sugar.
  • Complementary base pairs (A pairs with T, C pairs with G) joined by weakhydrogenbonds.
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26
Q

Explain how a gene codes for a protein (3)

A
  • A sequence of three bases in a gene forms a triplet.
  • Each triplet codes for an amino acid.
  • The order of amino acids determines the structure and function of protein formed
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27
Q

Why is the ‘folding’ of amino acids important in proteins such as enzymes?

A
  • the folding of amino acids determines the shape of the active site
  • which must be highly specific to to the shape of its substrate
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28
Q

define protein synthesis

A

the formation of a protein from a gene

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29
Q

what are the two stages of protein synthesis

A
  1. transcription
  2. translation
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30
Q

what does transcription involve?

A

the formation of mRNA from a DNA template

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31
Q

explain the process of transcription

A
  • DNA double helix unwinds
  • base sequence of the gene is copied into a complementary template molecule ( mRNA)
  • mRNA moves from the nucleus into the cytoplasm
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32
Q

what does translation involve:

A
  • a ribosome joins amino acids in a specific order dictated by mRNA to form a protein
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33
Q

describe and explain translation

A
  • mRNA attaches to a ribosome
  • amino acids are brought the the ribosome on carrier molecules (tRNA)
  • Ribosome reads the mRNA bases in triplets.
  • A polypeptide chain is formed from the sequence of amino acids which join together to from a protein
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34
Q

what is a mutation?

A
  • A random change in the base sequence of DNA ( DNA Structure)
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35
Q

Describe the effect of a gene mutation in coding DNA
- if changes sequence
- if not

A

If a mutation changes the amino acid sequence:
- protein structure and function may change e.g. an enzyme may no longer fit its substrate binding site or a structural protein may lose its strength).
If a mutation does not change amino acid sequence:
- there is no effect on protein structure or function.

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36
Q

What is non-coding DNA?

A

DNA which does not code for a protein but instead controls gene expression.

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37
Q

Describe the effect of a gene mutation in non-coding DNA

A
  • Gene expression may be altered,
  • affecting protein production and the resulting phenotype.
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38
Q

what are alleles

A

different forms of the same gene

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39
Q

what is a dominant allele?

A
  • a version of a gene where only one copy is needed for it to be expressed
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40
Q

what is a recessive allele?

A
  • a version of a gene where two copes are needed for it to be expressed
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41
Q

define homozygous

A
  • when an organism has two copies of the same allele ( two recessive or two dominant)
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42
Q

define heterozygous

A
  • when an organism has two different versions of the same gene ( one dominant or one recessive)
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43
Q

define genotype

A

the genes present for a trait

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44
Q

define phenotype

A
  • the visible characteristic
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45
Q

what is the problem with single gene crosses?

A
  • most characteristics are controlled by multiple alleles rather than just one
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46
Q

what is an inherited disorder

A
  • a disorder caused by the inheritance of a certain allele
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47
Q

give two examples of inherited disorders:
- is it dominant or recessive
- describe what it is

A
  • Polydactyly - caused by a dominant alleles - having extra fingers or toes
  • Cystic fibrosis caused by a recessive allele - disorder of cell membranes
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48
Q

how are embryos screened for inherited disorders?

A
  • during IVF , one cell is removed ( from an 8-inch embryo) and tested for disorder-causing alleles
  • if the cell doesn’t have any indicator alleles, then the originating embryo is implanted into the uterus
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49
Q

give three ethical issues concerning embryo screening?

A
  • it could lead to beliefs in society that being disabled or having a disorder is associated with inferiority
  • the destruction of embryos with inherited disorders is seen as murder and against the idea of sanctity of life
  • it could be viewed as ‘’ designer babies’’ as it may be for parents convenience rather than the child’s wellbeing
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50
Q

what are the economic issues concerning embryo screening?

A
  • consideration of costs of treatment and medication of the child with the inherited disorder
  • financial support may be needed
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51
Q

give two social issues concerning embryo screening?

A
  • if embryo has an inherited disorder and is discarded off, this can prevent a child and its parents from potential suffering
  • social care for children with inherited disorders may need to be considered
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52
Q

define gene therapy

A
  • the insertion of a normal allele into the cells of a person with an inherited disorder to functionally replace the faulty allele
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53
Q

give two ethical issues concerning gene therapy

A
  • some people believe that it is playing god
  • the introduced genes could enter sex cells and so be passed to future generations
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54
Q

what are sex chromosomes and examples..

A

a pair of chromosomes that determine sex:
- males have an X and a Y chromosmes
- females have two X chromosomes

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55
Q

why does the inheritance of a Y chromosome mean that an embryo develops into a male

A
  • testes development in an embryo is stimulated by a gene present on the Y chromosome
56
Q

what is a sex-linked characteristic?

A
  • a characteristic that is coded for by an allele found on a sex chromosome
57
Q

why are majority of genes found on the X chromosome rather than the Y chromosome

A
  • the X chromosome is bigger than the Y chromosome so more genes are carried on it
58
Q

delete

A

card

59
Q

what is variation?

A
  • differences in the characteristics of individuals in a population
60
Q

what are the two causes of variation within a species?

A
  • genetics
  • environment
  • a mixture of both of the above
61
Q

what is genetic variation?

A
  • variations in the genotypes of organisms of the same species due to the presence of different alleles
  • creates differences in phenotypes
62
Q

give two things which create genetic variation in a species?

A
  • spontaneous mutations
  • sexual reproduction
63
Q

what is a mutation

A
  • a random change to the base sequence in DNA which result in genetic variants
  • they occur continuously
64
Q

state the three types of gene mutation

A
  • insertion
  • deletion
  • substitution
65
Q

what is the consequence of a new phenotype caused by a mutation being suited to an environmental change?

A
  • there will be a rapid change in the species
66
Q

define evolution

A
  • a gradual change in the inherited traits within a population over time
  • occurs due to natural selection which may result in the formation of a new species
67
Q

Describe Darwin’s theory of
evolution by natural selection

A
  • There is a range of natural variation within a species due to mutation
  • due to this, some organisms will be better suited to that environment
  • These individuals are more likely to
    survive and breed
  • The favourable alleles will be passed onto their offspring
  • This process is repeated over many
    generations
68
Q

how do two populations become different species?

A
  • when their phenotypes become different to the extent that they can no longer interbreed to produce fertile offspring
69
Q

what is selective breeding?

A
  • the process by which humans artificially select organisms with desirable characteristics
  • and breed them to produce offspring with similar phenotypes
70
Q

outline the four main steps involved in selective breeding.

A
  1. identify a desired characteristics e.g disease resistance
  2. select parent organisms that show the desired traits and breed them together
  3. select offspring with the desired traits and breed them together
  4. Process repeated until all offspring have the desired traits
71
Q

give 4 examples of characteristics selected for in selective breeding

A
  • disease resistance in crops
  • higher milk or meat production in animals
  • gentle nature in domestic dogs
  • large flowers
72
Q

give the main advantage of selective breeding and 4 examples

A

creates organisms with desirable features
- crops produce a higher yield of grain
- cows produce a greater supply of milk
- plants produce larger fruit
- domesticated animals

73
Q

other than in agriculture, where else is selective breeding useful?

A
  • in medical research
  • in sports e.g horse racing
74
Q

outline the four disadvantages of selective breeding

A
  • reduction in the gene pool
  • inbreeding results in genetic disorders
  • development of other physical problems e.g respiratory problems in bulldogs
  • potential to unknowingly select harmful recessive alleles
75
Q

what is genetic engineering?

A
  • the modification of the genome of an organism by the insertion of a desired gene from another organism
  • enables the formation of an organism with beneficial characteristics
76
Q

give two examples of uses for genetically modified plants

A
  • disease resistance
  • produce larger fruits
77
Q

what is a use for genetically modified bacteria cells ?

A
  • to produce human insulin to treat diabetes
78
Q

Describe the 3 benefits of genetic engineering

A
  • increased crop yields for growing population e.g. herbicide
  • useful in medicine eg insulin producing bacteria
  • GM crops produce scarce resources eg GM golden rice
79
Q

Describe the 4 risks of genetic engineering

A
  • long term effects of consumption of GM crops unknown
  • negative environmental impacts e.g reduction in biodiversity , impact on food chain
  • late onset health problems in GM animals
  • GM seeds are expensive. LEDCs may be unable to afford them
80
Q

what is the name for the crops that have had their genes modified?

A
  • GM crops - genetically modified crops
81
Q

what is Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt)?

A
  • insect larvae are harmful to crops
  • Bt is a bacterium which secretes a toxin that kills insect larvae
82
Q

How is genetic engineering used to protect crops against insects?

A
  • the gene for toxin production in Bt can be isolated and inserted into the DNA of crops
  • Bt crops now secrete the toxin which kills any insect larvae that feed on it
83
Q

give three benefits of Bt crops (3)

A
  • increased crop yields ( fewer crops damaged )
  • lessens the need for artificial insecticides
  • Bt toxin is specific to certain insect larvae so is not harmful to other organisms that ingest it
84
Q

give three risks of Bt crops

A
  • long term effects of consumption of Bt crops unknown
  • insect larvae may become resistant to the Bt toxin
  • killing insect larvae reduces biodiversity
85
Q

Describe the process of genetic engineering

A
  • use restriction enzymes to isolate the required gene
  • This gene is inserted into a DNA vector, usually a bacterial plasmid or virus.
  • the vector is used to insert the gene into the required cells
    • genes is then transferred to the cells of animals at an early stage so they can develop the desired characteristic
86
Q

what is a vector ( in genetic engineering)

A
  • a structure that delivers the desired gene into the recipient cell e.g. plasmids. viruses
87
Q

State four benefits of genetic engineering.

A
  • Improved growth rates
  • Increased yield
  • Increased food quality
  • enzymes as medicine
88
Q

give two ways plants can be cloned? (2)

A
  • taking plant cuttings
  • tissue culture
89
Q

define tissue culture

A

using small groups of cells from part of a plant to grow identical new plants

90
Q

Describe how plants are grown using tissue culture

A
  1. Select a plant that shows desired characteristics
  2. Cut multiple small sample pieces from meristem tissue
  3. Grow in a petri dish containing growth medium
  4. Transfer to compost for further growth
91
Q

what must be ensured when preparing tissue cultures?

A
  • ensure aseptic conditions to prevent contamination by microorganisms
92
Q

what does the growth medium contain?

A
  • nutrients and growth hormones
93
Q

give the 4 advantages of growing plants by tissue culture (4)

A
  • fast and simple process
  • enables the growth of many plant clones with the same desirable characteristics
  • useful in the preservation of rare and endangered plant species
94
Q

give three disadvantages of growing plants by using tissue cultures

A
  • reduction in the gene pool
  • plant clones often have a low survival rate
  • could unknowingly increase the presence of harmful recessive alleles
95
Q

Describe the plant cutting
method to clone plants

A
  1. a branch is cut off from parent plant
  2. the lower leaves of the branch are removed and the stem is planted
  3. rooting powder is used to encourage growth
  4. a polythene bag is used to cover the new plant to keep it warm and moist
  5. new roots and a new plant is formed after a few weeks
96
Q

What are 2 methods to
clone animals?

A
  • embryo transplant and adult cell cloning
97
Q

describe the embryo transplant to clone animals

A
  • Sperm is taken and is used to artificially fertilise an egg cell
  • Embryo forms
  • The embryo is split apart into single cells before they become specialised.
  • The single cells divide by mitosis to form genetically identical embryos
  • Identical embryos are then placed into host mothers
  • Genetically identical offspring form
98
Q

Describe the adult cell
cloning method to clone animals

A
  • A nucleus is removed from an unfertilised egg cell
  • The nucleus from an adult body cell is inserted into the empty egg cell
  • An electric shock stimulates the egg cell to form an embryo (which contains the same genetic information as the adult cell)
  • when the embryo is a ball of cells , it is inserted into the uterus of a surrogate mother
99
Q

why was Darwin’s theory of evolution not accepted initally?

A
  • His theory challenged the idea that
    God made all the animals and plants on
    Earth
  • There was insufficient evidence at the
    time the theory was published
  • The mechanism of inheritance and
    variation was not known until 50 years
    after the book was published
100
Q

What was Lamarck’s theory
of evolution

A

● He thought that if a characteristic was
used a lot by an organism, the
characteristic will develop over its
lifetime and pass this on to their
offspring

101
Q

define speciation

A

The formation of a new and distinct species
over the course of evolution by natural
selection

102
Q

define ‘ species’

A
  • a group of organisms with similar characteristics which are able to interbreed to produce fertile offspring
103
Q

outline the process of speciation through geographic isolation (6)

A
  • There is a geographical barrier
    between the population of the same
    species
  • There will be genetic variation within
    each population
  • The environments will be different on either side of the barrier
  • Natural selection occurs – those suited to their environments will survive and
    breed
  • The favourable genes are passed onto their offspring
  • This happens over many generations
    resulting in different species which are unable to interbreed to produce fertile offspring
104
Q

why is genetic variation important in speciation?

A
  • genetic variation produces phenotypic variation , some of which are better suited to the environment and are selected for
105
Q

How did Mendel study inheritance?

A
  • through carry breeding experiments on plants and analysing the ratio of characteristics in offspring
106
Q

Suggest 3 reasons why Mendel’s work on genetics was not initially fully accepted

A
  • Scientists at the time did not know
    about genes or chromosomes
  • His work was published in an obscure
    journal
  • His work was not understood by other
    scientists
107
Q

state two kinds of evidence used to show evolution

A
  • fossils
  • antibiotic resistance in bacteria
108
Q

give three ways fossils are formed

A
  • parts of organisms that have not decayed due to conditions needed for decay being absent
  • bones that have been replaced by minerals as they decayed
  • traces of organisms are preserved , covered in sediment and becoming rock
109
Q

why are there few traces of early life-forms left behind?

A
  • they are mostly soft-bodied
110
Q

what are fossils?

A

Remains of organisms from millions of years
ago that are found preserved (in rocks, ice etc.)

111
Q

Describe the five steps of fossilisation by
mineralisation.

A
  1. Organism dies and falls to the ground
  2. Flesh decays, leaving the skeleton behind
  3. Bones are covered in sand/soil
  4. Bones become mineralised and turns into rock (fossil);
  5. Rock with fossil emerges due to geological
    movement (e.g. earthquake) and erosion occurs to reveal fossil
112
Q

how do fossils act as evidence for evolution?

A
  • scientists can identify the ages of the fossils and use the to show how organisms change over time
113
Q

what do branches in evolutionary trees indicate ?

A
  • where speciation has occurred
114
Q

define extinction

A
  • where there are no individuals of a species still alive
115
Q

state 5 factors that may lead to extinctions

A
  • new disease
  • predation
  • competition
  • changes to the environment
  • catastrophic events
116
Q

What are the three different types of
fossils that can be formed?

A
  • Mineralised skeleton
  • un-decayed due to trapped in ice or amber
  • Preserved traces of organisms (eg. footprints, leaves)
117
Q

Give 4 reasons why the fossil record is
incomplete.

A
  1. Many earliest life forms are soft-bodied
  2. Most organisms did not become fossilised
  3. Most early fossils were destroyed by geological activity
  4. Many fossils are not yet found
118
Q

What causes mass extinction? Suggest two
examples of this cause.

A

Single catastrophic event that also affects
climate over a long period (eg. asteroid
collision, volcanic eruption)

119
Q

. Suggest a chain of events initiated by an
asteroid collision that could lead to the
extinction of dinosaurs.

A
  • Asteroid impact causes huge fires and
    earthquakes and volcanic eruptions
  • dust/ash cloud covers atmosphere leads to less sunlight
  • this reaches the Earth surface so temp drop
    massively + plants die
  • leads to a loss of food source led to other animals’ extinction
120
Q

what enables bacteria to evolve quickly?

A
  • the fast rate of their reproduction
121
Q

outline the process of antibiotic resistance bacteria evolving

A
  • mutations occur in bacteria producing genetic variation
  • certain strains are resistant to antibiotics and are not killed when the antibiotic is applied
  • resistant strains survive and reproduce
  • over time, the population of the resistant strains increase
122
Q

why are resistant strains of bacteria dangerous

A
  • people have no immunity to them and there is no effective treatment
123
Q

state an example of a resistant strain of bacteria

A

MRSA

124
Q

what can be done to reduce reduce the rate of development of antibiotic resistant bacteria?

A
  • refrain from inappropriately prescribing antibiotics e.g. viral diseases
  • patients should complete the prescribed course of antibiotics
  • restrict agricultural uses of antibiotics
125
Q

Why is it difficult to develop new
antibiotics to combat the appearance of
new antibiotic-resistant strains of bacteria?

A

The development of new antibiotics is
expensive and slow (won’t be able to keep up

126
Q

give the 7 classes of organisms as determined by Carl Linnaeus ?

A
  • kingdom
  • phylum
  • class
  • order
  • family
  • genus
  • species
127
Q

what features are living creatures traditionally classified by?

A
  • by their structure and characteristics
128
Q

what is the binomial system of naming organisms?

A
  • genus name followed by species name
129
Q

give two reasons why new classification models proposed ?

A
  • developments in microscopy allowed better examination of internal structures
  • improvement in understanding in biochemical processes
130
Q

state the three domains/

A
  • archaea
  • eukarya
  • prokarya
131
Q

which organisms belong in the domain Archea?

A
  • bacteria usually living in extreme environments
132
Q

which organisms belong in the domain bacteria?

A

bacteria

133
Q

which 4 kingdoms belong in domain Eukarya?

A
  • plants
  • animals
  • fungi
  • protists
134
Q

how are evolutionary trees created?

A
  • by examining the DNA of different species and analysing how similar the sequences are
135
Q

What aspects of knowledge would be
considered when suggesting evolutionary
relationships?

A

Similarities and differences in physical
structures, genetics and biochemistry

136
Q

what language does the binomial naming system use?

A
  • latin
137
Q

Why do we use the binomial naming
system?

A
  • Every organisms’ names would vary in different languages, but Latin is considered to be the old common language in which everyone can use/understand

[ GCSE ] biology (10 decks)

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