B4 Flashcards

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1
Q

Describe about the anthrax

A

Causative agents : Bacillus anthracis

  • Mainly affect animals
  • Humans acquire the infection through contact with an infected animal or by inhaling spores.

-Importance : potential biological weapon , agent of bioterrorism

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2
Q

Explain the transmission of human anthrax

A
  • Cutaneous mode : by spores entering through abraded skin ; seen in people with occupational exposure to animals ( most common mode )
  • Inhalation of spores
  • Ingestion of carcasses of animal dying of anthrax containing spores .
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3
Q

Explain the virulence factors of human anthrax

A

1) Anthrax toxin - consisting of 3 fragment. They produce local edema & generalised shock
- Edema factor : It is active fragment ; acts as adenylyl cyclase & increase host cell cAMP ( cyclic adenosine monophosphate. ) It is responsible for edema and other manifestation seen in anthrax.
- Protective factor : It is binding fragment that binds to the host cell receptors and facilitate the entry of other fragment into the host cell.
- Lethal factor : It causes death ; acts cleaving host cell MAPK ( mitogen- activated protein kinase )

2) Anthrax capsule
- plasmid ( pX02)coded
- inhibits complement mediated phagocytosis

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4
Q

Outline the clinical types of anthrax with manifestation.

A

Clinical types : Cutaneous anthrax , pulmonary anthrax , intestinal anthrax

Cutaneous anthrax ( Hide porter’s disease )

  • Cutaneous exposure to spores
  • Malignant pustule ( lesions begins as a papule that evolves into a painless vesicle followed by the development of coal- black , necrotic eschar surrounded by non pitting indurated edema.

Pulmonary anthrax
-Wool sorter’s disease
- Inhalation of spores
- Hemorrhagic pneumonia :
Bacilli spread by lymphatics or blood leading to
- Bacteremia , Hemorrhagic mediastinitis , Hemorrhagic meningitis.

Intestinal anthrax

  • Rare
  • Ingestion of spores contaminated with meat of animals
  • highly fatal , manifests as bloody diarrhea
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5
Q

Describe the laboratory diagnosis of human anthrax

A

Specimen : Pus , sputum , blood , CSF

  • Direct demonstration :
    a) Gram staining : Gram positive , large rectangular bacilli
    b) McFadyean’s reaction : Shows amorphous purple capsule surrounding blue bacilli ( polychrome methylene blue stain )
    c) Direct IF : Detects capsular antigens
    d) Ascoli’s thermal precipitate test
  • Culture
    a) Nutrient agar : Medusa head appearance colonies
    b) Blood agar : Dry wrinkled , nonhaemolytic colonies
    c) Gelatin stab agar : Inverted fir tree appearance growth.
  • Culture smear : Gram positive rods with bamboo stick appearance
  • Antibodies detection by ELISA
  • Molecular diagnosis : PCR using BA pX01/02 primers
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6
Q

Explain about Brucellosis and state some of examples of Brucellosis

A
  • Brucella is an obligate aerobic , small Gram-negative coccobacillus , responsible for highly contagious febrile illness

Brucella Melitensis ( Most pathogenic ) , B. abortus , B. suits , B.canis

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7
Q

Explain the features of Leptospirosis

A
  • Spirochetes
  • Gram negative bacteria : cell wall differs from other gram negative bacilli by presence of endoflagella **
  • Antigenically complex : comprises of 2 species ( L.interrogates & L. biflexa )
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8
Q

Explain the Pathogenesis of leptospirosis

A

First phase ( septicemic phase ) : After entering through the mucosa ( oral / conjunctiva ) or abraded skin , Leptospira interrogates spill over to the bloodstream and then disseminate hematogenously to various organ ( brain , liver , lung )
: Vascular damage : Spirochetes can be found in the walls of capillaries, medium & large vessels .
: Penetration and invasion of tissue is due to active motility & release of hyaluronidase

Second phase ( immune phase ) : As antibodies develop , Spirochetes disappear from the blood . Antigen- antibody complexes are deposited in various organs. 
 : Renal colonization : Bacilli become adherent to the proximal renal tubular brush border and are excreted in urine.
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9
Q

State the clinical manifestations of Leptospirosis

A

A) Mild anicteric febrile illness - 90% : biphasic ; a septicemic phase occurs first followed by immune phase , present as flu like illness.

B) Weil’s disease ( Hepto- renal - Hemorrhagic syndrome) 10%

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10
Q

Describe the lab diagnosis of Leptospirosis **

A

Specimens : CSF , Blood & urine

Microscopy :

  • Dark ground or phase contact microscopy or silver impregnating staining
  • Reveals spirally coiled bacilli ( tightly & regularly coiled ) with characteristic hooked ends like umbrella handle

Isolation :

  • Culture condition : 30C for 4-6 weeks
  • Medium : EMJH medium , Korthofs medium or Fletchers medium

Animal inoculation : Sample are inoculated into hamster and young Guinea pigs.

Serology for antibody detection :

  • Genus specific tests : Macroscopic slide agglutination test , latex agglutination test , ELISA
  • Serovar specific test : Gold standard & references test for leptospirosis.
    - Microscopic agglutination test - detects antibodies against specific serovars of L . Interrogans

Molecular methods : PCR

Non specific findings : altered renal & liver function test

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11
Q

The vector of dengue virus is mosquitoes ( ……….. )

A

The vector of dengue virus is mosquitoes ( Aedes aegypti & aedes albopticus )

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12
Q

Describe the transmission of dengue

A

Humans, monkey are reservoirs for the virus —> infect mosquitoes ( A. aegypti , A . albopticus ) during blood feeding —> go on to infect others.

May be transmitted via vertical transmission, blood transfusions.

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13
Q

Describe the Pathogenesis of dengue fever & dengue haemorrhagic fever / dengue shock syndrome

A

1) Human bites by Aedes aegypti / albopticus initiates a dengue infections which leads to production of antibodies specific to that serotypes (1,2,3 or 4 ) & also cytokines to manifestation of clinical symptoms
2) Upon reinfection with a different serotypes , the antibodies bind to the virus but do not neutralise it , instead facilitating its entry into monocytes
3) Dengue virus replicates in the monocytes , causing increased release of cytokines into bloodstream.
4) Leads to vascular damage , increased plasma leakage , hypovolemia & shock ( dengue shock syndrome ) ; may also leads to DIC & severe bleeding ( dengue haemorrhagic fever )

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14
Q

Describe the clinical symptoms of dengue fever

A

1) May be asymptomatic

2) Dengue fever
- Acute febrile illness
- Myalgia , arthragia , bone pain , headache , retro-orbital pain , maculopapular rash

3) Dengue Hemorrhagic fever
- thrombocytopenia
- haemorrhage , especially in GIT ,mucosa , injection sites
- rising hematocrit
- plasma protein leakage to edema , pleural effusion

4) Dengue shock syndrome
- same as DHF but including hypotension , organ failure & death

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15
Q

Describe the pathogenic of Epstein - Barr virus

A
  • transmitted via salivary secretion
  • EBV infects the epithelial cells of oropharynx & also local B-cells esp in tonsil
  • Infected B cells disseminate to organs ( liver , spleen , lymph nodes ) via lymphatics and blood stream where they are attacked by cytotoxic ( CD8 ) T - cells which release cytokines & cause clinical manifestations
  • EBV can undergo latency in lymphoblastic cells & get reactivates during periods of immunocompromisation
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16
Q

Describe the clinical symptoms & complications of EBV

A
  • Usually asymptomatic
- Infectious mononucleosis 
  I) Pharyngotonsilitis 
  II) Fever 
  III) Cervical lymphadenopathy , hepatomegaly , splenomegaly 
  IV) Hairy leukoplakia 

Complications

  • Hodgkin’s , Burkitt’s lymphoma
  • Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
  • Splenic rupture
  • Post- transplant lymphoproliferative disorder ( PTLD)
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17
Q

Describe the lab diagnosis of EBV

A

1) Absolute lymphocytosis
- Presence of atypical lymphocytes in peripheral blood smear
- Atypical lymphocytes are enlarged , have expanded nucleus & vacuolated cytoplasm

2) Production of heterophil antibodies
3) IgM , Ig G VCA antibodies
4) antibodies to EA and EBNA

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18
Q

State the etio- Pathogenesis of the Syphilis

A

Causative agent : Treponema palladium

Pathogenesis : 
Transmission 
- Venereal , blood , congenital , non venereal 
Mode of entry 
- Intact mucus membrane / abraded skin 
- Congenital , blood tranfusions 
- Accidental finger picks 
  • Low infective dose
  • Disseminates to blood stream - adheres to surface proteins of endothelial cells.
  • End arteries : scarring , tissue necrosis , and replacement fibrosis
  • Incubation period : 2-10weeks
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19
Q

Explain the Pathogenesis of syphilis in detail

A

A) Initial contact ( 2-10 weeks ) - Multiplication at infection site ; associated host response
: Primary chancre at the site of infectionB) Primary syphilis (1-3 months ) - Proliferation of treponema’s in regional lymph nodes
: Enlarged inguinal nodes , spontaneous healing

C)Secondary syphilis ( 2-6 weeks j
- Multiplication & production of lesions in LN , liver , joints , muscle , skin & MM
: Flu like illness : myalgia , headache. , fever , mucocutaneous rashes

D) Latent syphilis ( 3-30 years )

  • Treponemes dormant in ? liver / spleen
  • Re-awekening & multiplication

E)Tertiary syphilis - Futher dissemination & invasion , Host response (CMI) , Gummas in skin , bones , testis
: Neurosyphilis : general paralysis of the insane , tabes dorsalis

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20
Q

Explain the clinical manifestation of syphilis

A

Primary Syphilis

  • Chancre ( hard chancre ) : painless , circumscribed , indurated , no tender , relatively avascular ( genital )
  • Glairy exudate
  • LN swollen , discrete , rubbery , non tender
  • Heals by 1-3 months

Secondary Syphilis ( Most infectious stage)

  • 1-3 months after healing
  • Flu- like illness , myalgia , headache , macular / popular rashes ( 2-6 weeks )
  • Moist lesions on genitalia ( condylomata lata)
  • Organ involvement - meningitis , nephritis , hepatitis

Latent Syphilis (quite stage)

  • ?. Dormancy in liver or spleen
  • Several years
  • Early / late Syphilis

Tertiary syphilis

  • Gummatas ( Chronic granulomata ) - internal organs
  • Neurosyphilis m meningeal syphilis , meningovascular - stroke
  • Feneral paralysis of the insane / Tabes dorsalis ( demyelination of posterior columns)
  • Cardio vascular : Aortic aneurysms , heart failure
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21
Q

Explain the structure of Human Papilloma Virus

A
  • Double stranded DNA virus —> epitheliotropic
  • Non-envelop , icosahedral
  • Circular genome
  • Infects squamous epithelial include the mucosal of the upper respiratory & anogenital tracts
  • Genital infection by HPV is associated with genital warts & anogenital cancers in both men & women
  • HPV is the leading cause of cervical cancer
  • asymptomatic
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22
Q

Describe the types of Human papilloma virus

A

DNA genome encodes approximately eight open-reading frames ( ORFs)
ORF is divided 3 functional parts :
- Early (E) region that encodes proteins ( E1-E7) necessary for viral replication

  • Late (L ) region that encodes the structural proteins (L1-L2) required for virion assembly
  • Long control region ( LCR) : Non-coding part , which contain cis element that are necessary for the replication and transcription of viral DNA.
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23
Q

Explain the Pathogenesis of HPV

A
  • Papillomaviruses are highly epitheliotropic
  • productive infections only within straitified epithelial of the skin , the anogenital tract and the oral cavity.

1) Infection by penetrating through micro trauma of epithelium ( direct contact )
2) Basal cells are the target of infection
3) DNA from the virus enters the cells
4) The life cycle is initiated by the infection of basal epithelial cell , at sites of injury
5) HPV genome integrates with cell genome then persists for years -> stimulate the different of basal cells
6) Most infection clear within 1-2 years
7 ) Long term persistence leads pre cancerous lesion

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24
Q

State the transmission of of HPV

A

1) Horizontal transmission
- Sexual activity through contact with infected cervical , vaginal
- Self - inoculation
- Circumcision of male partner

2) Vertical transmission h rare)

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25
Q

Describe the subtypes of HPV

A
  • mixed types can be found in each lesion
  • Persistent infection : most important causal factor for the development of cervical precancerous and cancerous lesion

***HPV types 16 & 18 ( early cancer stages ) : Cervical cancer , CIN 2/3 , adenocarcinoma insitu ( AIS)

B) HPV types 6,11 - Condyloma accuminata ( genital warts ) , vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia

3) HPV 16, 18 , 31, 33 , 35 : squamous intraepithelial neoplasia & squamous cell carcinoma of the vulva , vagina , cervix , penis & anus

26
Q

Explain Clinical Manifestation of HPV

A

A) Genital warts ( Condyloma acuminatum )

  • attributed by HPV 6& 11
  • only about 10% who are infected will transmit the virus
  • Spread by skin to skin contact , usually the sex.
  • Present in clusters or separately in genital
  • 30% will disappear within four months of initial appearance
  • recur within 3 months of strict completion of initial therapy
  • 90% cleared within 2 years

B) Latency & recurrence

  • Recurrence depends on patient general health and immune status
  • Previous HPV vaccinations
  • specific HPV strain

-Latency : Recurrence happens months or even years later .

-

27
Q

List the laboratory test for HPV

A

Test
A) Based cell morphology - Pap smears/ tissue **

B) Detection of HPV proteins - Immunocyto/ histochemistry ; Electron microscopy ; Western blot

C) Detection of HPV genomes :
a) Direct methods : Dot blood
B) Signal amplification : Hybrid capture
C) Target amplification : PCR , Real time PCR**

D) Detection of anti-HPV antibodies :
ELISA - Peptides , VLPs , Fused E6/E7

Genital warts :
-diagnosed visually
- Exophytic lesions form due to enlargement of the dermal papillae
- Histopathology findings :
Hyperplastic squamous epithelium that shows “ koilcytes” = squamous epithelial cells characterised by an acentric, hyperchromatic nucleus displaced by a large perinuclear vacuoles

28
Q

Explain the vaccination of HPV

A

3 prophylactic vaccine :
: Bivalent vaccine with antigens for HPV 16 & 18
: Quadrivalent vaccine with antigens for HPV 16 , 18 , 6 & 11
9 valent vaccine : Covers five additional HPV types that causes another 20 per cent of cervical cancer including HPV types 52 & 58

** HPV vaccine is effective in preventing the virus from infecting cells , it is not capable of treating existing HPV infections or complication caused by HPV

29
Q

Explain the treatment for the HPV virus

A

A) Drugs :
I) Podofilox cream : destroys the wart tissue ( 40-70%)
II) Imiquimod cream : boost the immune system

B) Chemical cautery : Trichloracetic acid is applied on the warts

C) Cryotherapy : freezing the abnormal cells with liquid nitrogens or CO2

D) Electrocautery : Burn off warts using an electric current

E) Conization : Surgical resection to remove the abnormal areas

F) Laser therapy : Uses light to burn away /vaporise abnormal cells

G)Loop electro surgical excision procedure (LEEP) : The abnormal cells with HPV) are removed with an electric current.

30
Q

List the different species of Plasmodium which causes malaria

A

1) P. falciparum
- causes malignant tertian malaria ( severe fever every 3rd day )

2) P.Knowlesi
- causes quotidian or simian malaria ( fever recurs everyday ) , less severe manifestation
- common in SEA

3) P.vivax
- causes benign tertian malaria ( recurs every 3rd day )

4) P. malariae
- cause benign quartan malaria ( fever every 4th day )

5) P.ovale
- causes ovale tertian malaria ( fever every 3rd day )

31
Q

Describe the life cycle of P. falciparum in the definitive ( Anopheles mosquito ) and intermediate hosts ( man , monkey )

A

1) During a blood meal , Anopheles mosquito ( definite host) injects sporozoites ( infective ) into human ( intermediate hosts )
2) Sporozoites infects hepatocytes schizonts
3) Lysis of hepatocytes occurs, releasing merozoites which infect RBCs & produce a characteristic ring shaped trophozoites ( diagnostic )
4) RBCs can lyse, futher producing more merozoites which infects other RBCs
5) Or the trophozoite mature into a gametocyte
6) During anothe blood meals , Anopheles mosquito takes up the gametocytes in which sexual reproduction of the parasite occurs
7) Gametocytes fertilise each other and form a zygote which then eventually forms sporozoites
8) Relapse may occur years after an infection by P.vivas or P . ovale due to latent hypnozoites in the liver.

32
Q

Describe the clinical manifestation of malaria and special complication of Falciparum malaria

A

1) 3 stages
I) Cold stage
- malaise , headache , nausea , intense cold , chills and rigors

II) Hot stage

  • High grade fever of of 39- 41 C w/ headache
  • fever may recur ( paroxysm) every 3rd day ( P.vivax , P falciparum , P . Ovale ) , every 4th day or everyday ( P.knowlesi )

III) Sweating stage

  • fever comes down w/ profuse sweating
  • skin becomes cold & moist
  • pt. feels relieved & is often asleep

2) Anemia & other associated S&S
- due to lysis of RBC

33
Q

Describe the lab diagnosis of malaria

A

1) Peripheral blood smear
- presence of ring-shaped trophozoites
- presence of banana- shaped gametocytes

2) Quantitative buffy coat
- Blood is collected & centrifuged
- Examination of capillary tubes under UV light reveals parasitised RBCs as brilliant green dots

3) Ag detection by rapid diagnostic tests
- Dipsticks / test strip impregnated w/ polyclonal malarial Abs against the targeted antigens
- Ab- Ag complex formation helps to detect malaria
- example of Ag : parasite aldolase , histidine rich protein -2

34
Q

State the treatment for malaria

A

1) Chloroquine : Kills the merozoites
2) Primaquine : kills hypnozoites of P. Vivax and P. Ovale in liver and prevent relapse
3) Mefloquine or combination of Quinine and Fansidar ( sulfadoxine & pyrimethamine ) : chloroquine- resistant strain of P.falciparum

35
Q

Describe the etiopathogenesis of Gonorrhea

A

Transmission

  • N. Gonorrhoea transmitted via sexual contact , parturition — human is the only reservoir
  • site of entry is via the vagina or urethral mucosa of penis , throat or rectum

Pathogenesis

  • N. Gonorrhoea invades non ciliated epithelial cells , which internalise the bacteria & allow them to multiply within intracellular vacuoles , protected.
  • Vacuoles move through the cell & fuse with the basement membrane , discharging their bacterial contents into the sub epithelial CT
  • damage to the host tissue results from inflamma responses elicited by the organism
  • infection is usually localised but may also invade bloodstream & spread to other parts of the body.
36
Q

Describe the clinical manifestation and complications of Gonorrhea

A

I) Asymptomatic or mild symptoms —in 50 % of patients
- pt. can spread infection unknowingly

II) purple green discharge from genitalia , rectum

III) Pharyngitis

IV) Painful , burning urination

V) Ophthalmia neonatorum
- seen in infants w/ infected mothers

Complication
I) Chronic pelvic pain
II) pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) & Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
III) Infertility resulting from damage to Fallopian tube
IV) Endocarditis
V) Septic arthritis
VI) skin lesions - erythromatous papules
VII) epididymitis , urethritis , prostatitis

37
Q

Describe the lab diagnosis of Gonorrhea

A

Specimen : urethral , vaginal discharge , throat swab , rectal discharge , joint aspirates

Microscopy :
-gram negative kidney-shaped diplococci present intracellularly ( in neutrophils )

Culture media

  • modified Thayer-Martin media ( chocolate agar containing antibiotics )
  • chocolate agar

Biochemical test

  • Oxidase positive
  • Catalase positive
  • Maltose fermenter
38
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis is not stained using Gram stain as it ( ……….) — cell wall resembles that of G- bacteria but lacks (………..)

A

Chlamydia trachomatis is not stained using Gram stain as it ( lacks a typical peptidoglycan layer ) — cell wall resembles that of G- bacteria but lacks ( muramic acid)

39
Q

Correlate the serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis w/ the clinical manifestation they cause

A

Chlamydia Trachomatis :
I) A,B, C - Trachoma( serous infection in eye )
II) D-K - Cervicitis , urethritis , proctitis , conjunctivitis , pneumonia( in neonates )

Clinical syndromes and complications caused by C. Trachomatis , serotypes D-K
I) Men : Urethritis , Epididymitis , Procititis , conjunctivitis : Systemic spread , Reiter’s syndrome

II) Women: Urethritis , cervicitis , Bartholinitis : Ectopic pregnancy , infertility

III) Neonates : Conjunctivitis : Interstitial pneumonitis

*** D-K : genital infections & associated respiratory & ocular infections

40
Q

Describe the lifecycle of Chlamydia trachomatis

A

2 stages : elementary body , reticulate body

Elementary body

  • spore like , metabolically inactive
  • adapted for extracellular survival & initiation of infection

Reticulate body

  • larger, metabolically active
  • adapted for intracellular multiplication

EBs enter into cell —> differentiate to RB —> multiply within cel as RBS —> differentiate back to EBs —> EBs released to infects other cells

41
Q

Describe the lab diagnosis of chlamydia

A

1) Cell culture
- cytoplasmic inclusions seen when C trachomatis is cultured w/ McCoy cells pretreated w/ cycloheximide
- cytoplasmic inclusion stain stain with Giemsa or Lugosi’ s iodine & can be visualised with immunofluorescent stain

2) Direct fluorescent antibody test
- elementary bodies are seen as bright yellow green dots under UV microscope

3) Direct Ag detection
- nuclei acid probes & application based tests

** No gram stain for C . trachomatis as it has unusual cell wall

42
Q

(…….) capsule protein is the first antigen to be detected after an infection with HIV , hence it can be used to diagnose early stages of HIV

A

(P24 ) capsule protein is the first antigen to be detected after an infection with HIV , hence it can be used to diagnose early stages of HIV

43
Q

Describe the structural and functional genes of HIV

A

Structural genes

1) “gag” genes
- codes for core and shell of virus
- p55 : p24 , p54 , p9 , p17

2) ‘pol’ genes
-codes for reverse transcriptase enzymes & viral enzymes ( ligament , integrase , protease )
P100 - p31, p51 , p66

3) ‘ env’ gene
- codes for envelope of the virus & surface proteins
- gp160 : go 120 , gp41
- gp120 : mediates attachment of HIV to CD4 cells
- gp41 transmembrane anchoring protein

Functional genes
I) ‘ tat genes : enhance viral protein synthesis
II) REV genes : promotes export of viral RNA from nucleus
III) “NEF” genes : downregulates viral replication
IV) “ LTR” : sequences having promoter , enhancer & integration signals

44
Q

Describe the mechanism of how HIV avoids immune surveillance

A

1) Antigenic variation of gp120
2) Acts as a provirus
3) Presence of endocytic vacuole during infection

45
Q

Describe how the HIV virus get transmitted & gains entry into cell

A

HIV- spread via sexual intercourse , IV drug abuse , infected blood products , vertical transmission

1) Surface glycoprotein gp120 and gp41 andchemokine receptor binds to receptor on CD4 cells ( CXCR4) or macrophages (CCR5)

2) From there ,the virus enters into the host in 2 ways :
I) viral envelope remain fused to cell surface , and only the nucleocapsid enters into cell
II) entire virus and envelope uptaken into an endocytic vacuole

3) Uncoating of the virus occurs
4) ssRNA genome of the virus transcribed by RT enzyme into dsDNA

5) Ligase & integrase enzyme help viral dsDNA to get integrated into host DNA — virus now acting as a
provirus

6) Viral protein synthesis & virion assembly occurs
7) Viral progeny leaves the cell via budding

46
Q

Describe the Pathogenesis of HIV

A
  • HIV attaches to CD4 helper cell via budding of gp120 & causes lysis of the cell
  • CD4 cell count decrease while CD8 cell count increases
  • as CD4 cells are killed ( superantigen mechanism , CD8 cytotoxic activity ) , IL-2 secretion decreases & T- cell activation decreases.
  • decreased IL-2 also leads to decreases IFN-gamma , causing immune suppression of surrounding tissue
  • NK& Tc cell activity decreases
  • ‘tat’ and ‘nef’ gene decrease MHC-1 expression on infected cell — Tc cell mediated neutralised decreases
  • At the same time , non-neutralising antibodies are produced which does not clear off the virus
  • leads to total immune suppression & opportunistic infections
47
Q

Describe the clinical features of HIV

A

1) Group I - Acute HIV syndrome
- 50% develop symptoms after 3-6 weeks
- low grade fever , malaise , headache , lymphadenopathy , rash , arthropathy
- seroconversion illness ( initially Abs in negative but then become positive )

2) Group II - asymptomatic infection
- positive for HIV Abs
- no microbial latency as virus still multiplies, clinically asymptomatic

3) Group III - PGLA ( persistent generalised lymphadenopathy )
- presence of generalised lymphadenopathy which persists >3 months

4) Group IV- AIDS related complex ( ARC), AIDS
- characterised by opportunistic infections ( Candidiasis , Herpes zoster , salmonellosis , hairy cell leukoplakia / EBV , TB , CMV )
- fatigue , unexplained fever , diarrhea , wt loss , lymphadenopathy , splenomegaly

5) Dementia
- direct cytopathogenic damage to CNS

6) Pediatric AIDS

48
Q

Describe the lab diagnosis of anthrax

A

Specimen

  • necrotic tissue , pus , swab from malignant pustule
  • blood
  • CSF ( in Hemorrhagic meningitis )
  • sputum ( pulmonary anthrax )
  • gastric aspirate , feces ( intestinal anthrax )

Microscopy

  • Gram positive rods with bamboo stick appearance ( long chain of Gram positive bacilli with non budging spores )
  • Spores may be demonstrated using Ashby’s method or modified acid - fast staining

Culture

  • on nutrient agar shows Medusa-head colonies
  • on blood agar : dry , wrinkled , non haemolytic colonies
  • Gelatin stab agar shows inverted fir tree appearance
  • PLET medium

Culture

  • on nutrient agar it shows Medusa head colonies
  • on blood agar : dry , wrinkled , non haemolytic colonies
  • Gelatin stab agar shows inverted fir tree appearance
  • PLET medium

McFaydean’s reaction

  • to demonstrate polypeptide capsule which can be stained w/ Gurr’s polychrome methylene blue stain
  • capsule appears as amorphous purple surrounding a gram positive rod.

Direct immunofluorescense

Ascoli’s thermo-precipitate test

ELISA

PCR

49
Q

Describe the lab diagnosis of brucellosis

A

Specimen
- blood , bone marrow , CSF , joint fluid

Microscopy

  • non-encapsulated , small , gram negative coccobacilli
  • hanging drop method : non-motile

Culture
- BacT/ ALERT

Standard agglutination test (SAT)

  • gold standard
  • tube agglutination test that detects for Abs against LPS antigen for Brucella
  • titer of >1:160 in non endemic areas — significant
  • titer of >1:320 in endemic areas — diagnostic
  • SAT positive + 2ME SAT negative -> Acute brucellosis ( IgM)
  • SAT positive + 2ME SAT positive -> chronic brucellosis ( IgG ) — 2ME destroys IgM

MALDI-TOF , VITEK

ELISA

Biochemical test

  • catalase positive
  • oxidase positive - urease positive for B suis and B. Canis

PCR

50
Q

Describe the lab diagnosis of dengue

A

1) Specimen
- serum

2) Serology
- NSI Ag detection using ELISA and ICT — detectable from day 1 of fever & remains positive up to 18 days
- IgM appears after 5 days of fever & disappears within 90 days. IgG is detectable at 14-21 days of illness it slowly increase

3) Rapid diagnostic test
- test IgM or NS1 Ag

4) Cell line culture
- inoculation into mosquito cell line or in mouse

5) RT-PCR

6) Neutralization test
- plaque reduction test
- microneutralization test
- most specific serologic tests

51
Q

Describe lymphogranuloma venerum (LGV)

A

-seen in patients infected w/ L1-L3 serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis

  • presents as ulcerating papules at the sites on inoculation
  • accompanied by fever , myalgia , headache
  • presence of inguinal buboues which enlarge —> abscess formation , chronic granulomatous reaction
52
Q

In the lab diagnosis , NS1 antigen can be detected on the ( ….. ) day of infection and remains positive up to ( …. ) days

IgM starts to be detected in the serum from the ( …….. ) day onwards & disappears within ( …….. ) days

IgG is detectable at ( …….. ) days of illness and then it slowly increase

A

In the lab diagnosis , NS1 antigen can be detected on the ( 1st ) day of infection and remains positive up to (18) days

IgM starts to be detected in the serum from the ( 5th ) day onwards & disappears within ( 90 ) days

IgG is detectable at ( 14-21th ) days of illness and then it slowly increase

53
Q

State the types of bacteria implicated in UTIs

A

1) Gram negative bacteria
- E.coli
- K. pneumonia
- Proteus mirabilis
- P. Aeruginosa

2) Gram positive
- Enterococci
- Staphylococcus saphrophyticus
- Streptococcus spp.

3) N. Gonorrhea
4) Mycoplasma hominis
5) Chlamydia trachomatis
6) Candida

54
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of UTI

A

Lower UTI

  • dysuria
  • increase frequency & urgency
  • bladder fullness / pressure
  • abdominal / suprapubic pain , discomfort
  • pyuria on urianalysis
  • no abnormal vaginal discharge

Upper UTI

  • fever , chills & sweating , nausea , vomiting
  • flank pain ( pain at the area of the kidneys )
  • abdominal discomfort / pain
  • hematuria , bacterium is ,pyuria on urinalysis
  • S&S of hypotension
55
Q

State the conditions in which complicated and non complicated UTIs may arise

A

Uncomplicated UTI

  • in a structurally and neurologically normal urinary tract
  • in a young , healthy , non-pregnant female
  • simple cystitis
  • short duration ( ~1-5 days )

Complicated UTI

  • Infection in a urinary tract with functional or structural abnormalities
  • pregnant woman
  • Male
  • Elderly
  • Hospital acquired ( nosocrimial )
  • Indwelling catheter
  • Neurogenic bladder
  • Recurrent UTI
56
Q

UTI is diagnosed when a species of bacteria produce greater than ( ………. ) in 2 consecutive clean catch samples

In males , minimal level indicating an infection is ( …….. )

In children is 10^4 CFU/mL

A

UTI is diagnosed when a species of bacteria produce greater than ( 10^5 CFU/mL ) in 2 consecutive clean catch samples

In males , minimal level indicating an infection is ( 10^3 CFU/mL )

In children is 10^4 CFU/mL

57
Q

List the common hospital acquired infection ( HAI )

A

1) Central line - associated bloodstream infection ( CLABSI )
2) Catheter - associated urinary tract infections ( CAUTI)
3) Surgical site infections ( SSI )
4) Hospital acquired pneumonia ( HAP )
5) Ventilator-associated pneumonia ( VAP )
6) Clostridium difficult infection ( CDI) —> antibiotics associated diarrhea

Common HAI and its %
A) Pneumonia ( 21.8% )
B) Surgical site infections ( 21.8% )
C) Gastrointestinal infections ( 17.1%)
D) Urinary tract infections or UTIs ( 12.9%)
E) Primary bloodstream infection ( 9.9% )

58
Q

State some predisposing factor of Hospital-acquired infections

A

1) Hospitalized patients
- immunocompromised pt w/ pre-existing disease
- immunosuppressant , steroid , antibiotic use
- elderly

2) Hospital environment
- high m/o load
- greater number of drug- resistant bacteria
- contamination of food , water & air

3) Antibiotics resistance

4) Diagnostic or therapeutic procedure
- central lines , catheterisation , mechanical ventilators
- especially in ICU ( many lines )

5) Blood transfusions

6) Operative factors
- skin antisepsis
- duration of procedure
- surgical technique

59
Q

State the microbes frequently associated with :

I) Central line associated bloodstream infections
(…….. )

II) Cathether-associated UTI
( …….. )

III) Surgical site infections
( ………. )

IV) HAP& VAP
( ………. )

V) Antibiotics-associated diarrhea
( …….)

A

State the microbes frequently associated with :

I) Central line associated bloodstream infections
(Candida Enterobacteriaceae , S. aureus )

II) Cathether-associated UTI
( Enterococcus , S. aureus , P aeruginosa , Proteus spp. , K. Pneumonia , Candida spp.)

III) Surgical site infections
( S . aureus , Coagulase p-negative staphylococcus , Enterococcus , E.coli )

IV) HAP& VAP
( S . Aureus , P. Aeruginosa)

V) Antibiotics-associated diarrhea
( C. Difficile )

60
Q

Describe the MOA of MRSA

A
  • mecA gene encodes for expression of mutant PBP2a ( mutant penicillin-binding protein )
  • B-lactam antibiotics cannot bind to the mutant protein , hence MRSA can continue w/ peptidoglycan cross linking & proliferation
61
Q

Describe how the biofilms are formed and how it confers resistance to antibiotics

A

-Attachment of bacteria ( S. aureus , P.Aeruginosa , E. Fecalis , Sepidermis , S viridans , K. pneumonia ) to surfaces results in extrapolysaccharide ( EPS) production

  • Aggregation of bacteria in the biofilm —> induce starvation —> promote development of O2 and nutrient gradients which slow the penetration of antibiotics into the biofilm
  • Lacks of O2 —> bacteria undergo anaerobic metabolism —> decrease potency of antibiotics
  • Biofilm bacteria can also express stress response genes that protect them from antibiotics , host immune factors and environmental toxins
  • Biofilms inhibits leukocyte action via quorom sensing