B.3.2 Security+ SY0-601 Domain 2: Architecture and Design Flashcards
189 questions (plus some of my own)
1
Q
Which Microsoft tool can be used to review a system’s security configuration against recommended settings?
A
Microsoft Security Compliance Toolkit
2
Q
Which of the following describes a configuration baseline?
A
A list of common security settings that a group or all devices share
3
Q
What should you consider security baselines?
A
Dynamic
4
Q
You would like to get a feel for the amount of bandwidth you are using in your network. What is the first thing you should do?
A
Establish a baseline
5
Q
Which of the following is a technology that tries to detect and stop sensitive data breaches, or data leakage incidents, in an organization?
A
Data loss prevention
6
Q
DLP can be implemented as a software or hardware solution that analyzes traffic in an attempt to detect sensitive data that is being transmitted in violation of an organization’s security policies.
Which of the following DLP implementations analyzes traffic for data containing such things as financial documents, social security numbers, or key words used in proprietary intellectual property?
A
Network DLP
7
Q
What does DLP mean?
A
Data Loss Prevention
8
Q
Travis is sending a highly confidential email to Craig that contains sensitive data. Which of the following should Travis implement to ensure that only Craig is able to read the email?
A
Encryption
9
Q
Which form of cryptography is best suited for bulk encryption because it is so fast?
A
Symmetric key cryptography
10
Q
Which of the following security solutions would prevent a user from reading a file that she did not create?
A
Encrypted File System (EFS)
11
Q
What is an EFS?
A
A Windows file encryption option that encrypts individual files so that only the user who created the file can open it
12
Q
You’ve used BitLocker to implement full volume encryption on a notebook system. The notebook motherboard does not have a TPM chip, so you’ve used an external USB flash drive to store the BitLocker startup key.
You use EFS to encrypt the C:\Secrets folder and its contents.
Which of the following is true in this scenario? (Select two.)
A
If the C:\Secrets\confidential.docx file is copied to an external USB flash drive, the file will be saved in an unencrypted state.
By default, only the user who encrypted the C:\Secrets\confidential.docx file will be able to open it.
13
Q
Which of the following database encryption methods encrypts the entire database and all backups?
A
Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)
14
Q
Which of the following cloud storage access services acts as a gatekeeper, extending an organization’s security policies into the cloud storage infrastructure?
A
A cloud-access security broker
15
Q
What is the on-premises, cloud-based software tool that sits between an organization and a cloud service provider called?
A
Cloud-access security broker
16
Q
Which of the following can provide the most specific protection and monitoring capabilities?
A
Cloud-access security broker
17
Q
You are purchasing a hard disk from an online retailer over the internet. What does your browser use to ensure that others cannot see your credit card number on the internet?
A
Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
18
Q
Which of the following protocols are often added to other protocols to provide secure transmission of data? (Select two.)
A
Transport Layer Security (TLS)
SSL
19
Q
Which of the following protocols can TLS use for key exchange? (Select two.)
A
Diffie-Hellman
Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA)
20
Q
Which protocol does HTTPS use to offer greater security in web transactions?
A
SSL
21
Q
SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) operates at which layer of the OSI model?
A
Session
22
Q
When using SSL authentication, what does the client verify first when checking a server’s identity?
A
The current date and time must fall within the server’s certificate-validity period
23
Q
You want to allow traveling users to connect to your private network through the internet. Users connect from various locations, including airports, hotels, and public access points like coffee shops and libraries. As such, you won’t be able to configure the firewalls that might be controlling access to the internet in these locations.
Which of the following protocols would MOST likely be allowed through the widest number of firewalls?
A
SSL
24
Q
Which method can you use to verify that a bit-level image copy of a hard drive is an exact clone of the original hard drive collected as evidence?
A
Hashing
25
You have been asked to deploy a network solution that includes an alternate location where operational recovery is provided within minutes of a disaster. Which of the following strategies would you choose?
Hot site
26
Which of the following is a recovery site that may have electricity connected, but there are no servers installed and no high-speed data lines present?
Cold site
27
Daily backups are completed at the ABD company location, and only a weekly backup is maintained at another network location. Which of the following disaster recovery strategies is ABD using?
Warm site
28
If your mission-critical services have a maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) or a recovery-time objective (RTO) of 36 hours, what is the optimum form of recovery site?
Warm site
29
A honeypot is used for which purpose?
To delay intruders in order to gather auditing data
30
Which of the following BEST describes a honeyfile?
A single file setup to entice and trap attackers
31
You want to create a collection of computers on your network that appear to have valuable data but actually store fake data that could entice a potential intruder. Once the intruder connects, you want to be able to observe and gather information about the attacker's methods.
Which feature should you implement?
Honeynet
32
Which of the following BEST describes the Platform as a Service (PaaS) cloud computing service model?
PaaS delivers everything a developer needs to build an application on the cloud infrastructure
33
Which of the following cloud computing solutions delivers software applications to a client either over the internet or on a local area network?
SaaS
34
You are the security administrator for your organization. You have implemented a cloud service to provide features such as authentication, anti-malware, intrusion detection, and penetration testing.
Which cloud service have you most likely implemented?
SECaaS
35
A group of small local businesses have joined together to share access to a cloud-based payment system.
Which type of cloud is MOST likely being implemented?
Community
36
What does Public Cloud do?
Provides cloud services to just about anyone
37
What does the Private Cloud do?
Provides cloud services to a single organization
38
What does the Community Cloud do?
Allows cloud services to be shared by several organizations
39
What does the Hybrid Cloud do?
Integrates one cloud service with other cloud services
40
The IT manager has tasked you with installing new physical machines. These computer systems are barebone systems that simply establish a remote connection to the data center to run the user's virtualized desktop.
Which type of deployment model is being used?
Thin client
41
Which of the following is an advantage of software-defined networking (SDN)?
More granular control
42
Which of the following BEST describes the Application SDN layer?
Communicates with the Control layer through the northbound interface
43
Which SDN layer would a load balancer that stops and starts VMs as resource use increases reside on?
Application
44
Software defined networking (SDN) uses a controller to manage devices. The controller is able to inventory hardware components on the network, gather network statistics, make routing decisions based on gathered data, and facilitate communication between devices from different vendors. It can also be used to make widespread configuration changes on just one device.
Which of the following best describes an SDN controller?
The SDN controller is software
45
From which layer does the Application layer receive its requests?
Control Layer
46
Which layer is also known as the Infrastructure layer?
Physical Layer
47
What layer communicated with the Control layer through the northbound interface?
Application Layer
48
What layer provides the Physical layer with configuration and instructions?
Control Layer
49
What type of southbound APIs do individual networking devices use on this layer to communicate with the control plane?
Physical Layer
50
Which of the following does the Application layer use to communicate with the Control layer?
Northbound APIs
51
Which of the following BEST describes the Physical SDN layer?
Also known as the Infrastructure layer
52
Network engineers have the option of using software to configure and control the network rather than relying on individual static configuration files that are located on each network device.
Which of the following is a relatively new technology that allows network and security professionals to use software to manage, control, and make changes to a network?
Software-defined networking (SDN)
53
Which APIs do individual networking devices use to communicate with the control plane from the Physical layer?
Southbound
54
Which of the following is a disadvantage of software defined networking (SDN)?
SDN standards are still being developed
55
What is the system that connects application repositories, systems, and IT environments in a way that allows access and exchange of data over a network by multiple devices and locations called?
Integration
56
Which of the following are disadvantages of server virtualization?
A compromised host system might affect multiple servers
57
Which of the following are advantages of virtualization? (Select two.)
Centralized administration
Easy migration of systems to different hardware
58
Which of the following devices is computer software, firmware, or hardware that creates and runs virtual machines?
Hypervisor
59
What is the limit of virtual machines that can be connected to a virtual network?
Unlimited
60
Which of the following is an exploit in which malware allows the virtual OS to interact directly with the hypervisor?
Escape
61
What is an Escape?
It is an exploit in which malware allows the operating system within a virtual machine to break out and interact directly with the hypervisor.
62
You have a development machine that contains sensitive information relative to your business. You are concerned that spyware and malware might be installed while users browse websites, which could compromise your system or pose a confidentiality risk.
Which of the following actions would BEST protect your system?
Run the browser within a virtual environment
63
Which of the following is an advantage of a virtual browser?
Protects the host operating system from malicious downloads
64
Which of the following devices facilitates communication between different virtual machines by checking data packets before moving them to a destination?
Virtual switch
65
Which type of hypervisor runs as an application on the host machine?
Type 2
66
You are an application developer. You use a hypervisor with multiple virtual machines installed to test your applications on various operating systems' versions and editions.
Currently, all of your virtual machines used for testing are connected to the production network through the hypervisor's network interface. However, you are concerned that the latest application you are working on could adversely impact other network hosts if errors exist in the code.
To prevent issues, you decide to isolate the virtual machines from the production network. However, they still need to be able to communicate directly with each other.
What should you do? (Select two. Both responses are part of the complete solution.)
Create a new virtual switch configured for host-only (internal) networking
Connect the virtual network interfaces in the virtual machines to the virtual switch
67
Which of the following is a network virtualization solution provided by Microsoft?
Hyper-V
68
Which of the following virtual devices provides packet filtering and monitoring?
VFA
69
Which of the following statements about virtual networks is true? (Select two.)
Multiple virtual networks can be associated with a single physical network adapter
A virtual network is dependent on the configuration and physical hardware of the host operating system
70
Which application development model approaches software development as a continuous, changing process with never-ending versions, bug fixes, and enhancements?
Agile
71
Which of the following is the first step in the Waterfall application development model?
Requirements
72
Which of the following is considered a drawback of the Waterfall application development life cycle?
Requirements are determined at the beginning and are carried through to the end product
73
Which of the following are the two main causes of software vulnerabilities? (Select two.)
Design flaws
Coding errors
74
You are performing a security test from the outside on a new application that has been deployed.
Which secure testing method are you MOST likely using?
Dynamic
75
What is a set of software development tools called that can be installed as one unit and provides code frameworks or code snippets to help development go faster?
Software Development Kit (SDK)
76
You manage a group of 20 Windows workstations that are currently configured as a workgroup. You have been thinking about switching to an Active Directory configuration.
Which advantages would there be to switching to Active Directory? (Select two.)
Centralized configuration control
Centralized authentication
77
What is the name of the service included with the Windows Server operating system that manages a centralized database containing user account and security information?
Active Directory
78
What is a "Logical organization of resources"?
Organizational unit (OU)
79
What is a "Collection of network resources"?
Domain
80
What is a "Collection of related domain trees"?
Forest
81
What is a "Network resource in the directory"?
Object
82
What is a "Group of related domains"?
Tree
83
What AD Domain is used to manage individual desktop workstation access?
CORPWS7
84
Which of the following is a message authentication code that allows a user to verify that a file or message is legitimate?
HMAC
85
Marcus White has just been promoted to a manager. To give him access to the files that he needs, you make his user account a member of the Managers group, which has access to a special shared folder.
Later that afternoon, Marcus tells you that he is still unable to access the files reserved for the Managers group. What should you do?
Have Marcus log off and log back in
86
Which of the following terms describes the component that is generated following authentication and is used to gain access to resources following login?
Access token
87
Which kind of access control technology allows more than just the identity of an individual to be transmitted wirelessly to either allow or deny access?
Smart card
88
A smart card can be used to store all but which of the following items?
Biometric template original
89
What is the smart card attack description for Software Attacks?
Exploits vulnerabilities in a card's protocols or encryption methods
90
What is the smart card attack description for Eavesdropping?
Captures transmission data produced by a card as it is used
91
What is the smart card attack description for Fault generation?
Deliberately induces malfunctions in a card
92
What is the smart card attack description for Microprobing?
Accesses the chip's surface directly to observe, manipulate, and interfere with a circuit
93
Lori Redford, who has been a member of the Project Management group, was recently promoted to manager of the team. She has been added as a member of the Managers group.
Several days after being promoted, Lori needs to have performance reviews with the team she manages. However, she cannot access the performance management system. As a member of the Managers group, she should have the Allow permission to access this system.
What is MOST likely preventing her from accessing this system?
She is still a member of the Project Management group, which has been denied permission to this system. Deny permissions always override Allow permissions
94
Which of the following terms is used to describe an event in which a person who should be allowed access is denied access to a system?
False negative
95
Which of the following defines the crossover error rate for evaluating biometric systems?
The point where the number of false positives matches the number of false negatives in a biometric system
96
Which of the following are disadvantages of biometrics? (Select two.)
They have the potential to produce numerous false negatives
When used alone, they are no more secure than a strong password
97
What is the MOST important aspect of a biometric device?
Accuracy
98
Which of the following is a password that relates to things that people know, such as a mother's maiden name or a pet's name?
Cognitive
99
What is a cognitive password?
They relate to things that people know, such as a mother's maiden name or a pet's name
100
What type of password is maryhadalittlelamb?
Passphrase
101
Which of the following is the most common form of authentication?
Password
102
Which of the following are examples of Something You Have authentication controls? (Select two.)
Photo ID
Smart card
103
Which of the following is the strongest form of multi-factor authentication?
A password, a biometric scan, and a token device
104
What is a PIN?
Something You Know
105
What is a Smart card?
Something You Have
106
What is a Password?
Something You Know
107
What is a Retina Scan?
Something You Are
108
What is a Fingerprint scan?
Something You Are
109
What is a Hardware token?
Something You Have
110
What is a Passphrase?
Something You Know
111
What is Voice recognition?
Something You Are
112
What is Wi-Fi triangulation?
Somewhere You Are
113
What is Typing behaviors?
Something You Do
114
Which of the following is the term for the process of validating a subject's identity?
Authentication
115
A remote access user needs to gain access to resources on the server. Which of the following processes are performed by the remote access server to control access to resources?
Authentication and authorization
116
Which of the following are methods for providing centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting for remote access? (Select two.)
TACACS+
RADIUS
117
Which of the following defines all the prerequisites a device must meet in order to access a network?
Authentication
118
Which of the following applies the appropriate policies in order to provide a device with the access it's defined to receive?
Authorization
119
What is the process of controlling access to resources such as computers, files, or printers called?
Authorization
120
What is mutual authentication?
A process by which each party in an online communication verifies the identity of the other party
121
Which of the following drive configurations is fault tolerant?
RAID 5
122
Which of the following disk configurations might sustain losing two disks? (Select two.)
RAID 1+0
RAID 0+1
123
You have a computer with three hard disks. A RAID 0 volume uses space on Disk 1 and Disk 2. A RAID 1 volume uses space on Disk 2 and Disk 3.
Disk 2 fails. Which of the following is true?
Data on the RAID 1 volume is accessible; data on the RAID 0 volume is not
124
You have been asked to implement a RAID 5 solution for your network. What is the minimum number of hard disks that can be used to configure RAID 5?
3
125
What option is an advantage RAID 5 has over RAID 1?
RAID 5 improves performance over RAID 1
126
Which device is used to ensure power to a server or network device during short power outages?
Uninterruptible power supply
127
To prevent server downtime, which of the following components should be installed redundantly in a server system?
Power supply
128
What is the primary security feature that can be designed into a network's infrastructure to protect and support availability?
Redundancy
129
Which of the following network strategies connects multiple servers together so that if one server fails, the others immediately take over its tasks, preventing a disruption in service?
Clustering
130
Which backup strategy backs up all files from a computer's file system, regardless of whether the file's archive bit is set or not, and then marks them as backed up?
Full
131
Your network performs a full backup every night. Each Sunday, the previous night's backup tape is archived.
On a Wednesday morning, the storage system fails. How many restore operations would you need to perform to recover all of the data?
1
132
Which of the following are backed up during an incremental backup?
Only files that have changed since the last full backup
133
Which of the following is true of an incremental backup's process?
Backs up all files with the archive bit set and resets the archive bit
134
Your network uses the following backup strategy:
- Full backups every Sunday night
- Incremental backups Monday night through Saturday night
On a Thursday morning, the storage system fails. How many restore operations would you need to perform to recover all of the data?
4
135
A system failure has occurred. Which of the following restoration processes would result in the fastest restoration of all data to its most current state?
Restore the full backup and the last differential backup
136
Which of the following are backed up during a differential backup?
Only files that have changed since the last full backup
137
Which backup strategy backs up only files that have the archive bit set, but does not mark them as having been backed up?
Differential
138
Your disaster recovery plan calls for backup media to be stored at a different location. The location is a safe deposit box at the local bank. Because of this, the disaster recovery plan specifies that you choose a method that uses the least amount of backup media, but also allows you to quickly back up and restore files.
Which backup strategy would BEST meet the disaster recovery plan?
Perform a full backup once per week and a differential backup the other days of the week
139
What does a differential backup do during the backup?
Backs up all files with the archive bit set and does not reset the archive bit
140
Your network uses the following backup strategy:
- Full backups every Sunday night
- Differential backups Monday night through Saturday night
On Thursday morning, the storage system fails. How many restore operations would you need to perform to recover all of the data?
2
141
Which of the following describes a system image backup? (Select two.)
A system image contains everything on the system volume, including the operating system, installed programs, drivers, and user data files
A system image backup consists of an entire volume backed up to .vhd files
142
Why should backup media be stored offsite?
To prevent the same disaster from affecting both the network and the backup media
143
Which of the following is an open-source hardware and software company that designs and manufactures single-board microcontrollers as well as kits to build digital devices?
Arduino
144
You manage information systems for a large co-location data center.
Networked environmental controls are used to manage the temperature within the data center. These controls use embedded smart technology that allows them to be managed over an internet connection using a mobile device app.
You are concerned about the security of these devices. What can you do to increase their security posture? (Select two.)
Install the latest firmware updates from the device manufacturer
Verify that your network's existing security infrastructure is working properly
145
You manage the information systems for a large manufacturing firm.
Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) devices are used on the manufacturing floor to manage your organization's automated factory equipment. The SCADA devices use embedded smart technology, allowing them to be managed using a mobile device app over an internet connection.
You are concerned about the security of these devices. What can you do to increase their security posture? (Select two.)
Install the latest firmware updates from the device manufacturer
Verify that your network's existing security infrastructure is working properly
146
Which of the following devices are special computer systems that gather, analyze, and manage automated factory equipment?
SCADA
147
You notice that a growing number of devices, such as environmental control systems and wearable devices, are connecting to your network. These devices, known as smart devices, are sending and receiving data via wireless network connections.
Which of the following labels applies to this growing ecosystem of smart devices?
Internet of Things (IoT)
148
Which Amazon device can be used to control smart devices (such as lights) throughout a home using voice commands?
Echo
149
Why do attackers prefer to conduct distributed network attacks in static environments? (Select two.)
Devices are typically more difficult to monitor than traditional network devices
Devices tend to employ much weaker security than traditional network devices
150
You are creating a VLAN for voice over IP (VoIP). Which command should you use?
switchport voice vlan [number]
151
Which of the following lets you make phone calls over a packet-switched network?
VoIP
152
Which of the following serves real-time applications without buffer delays?
RTOS
153
Which of the following do Raspberry Pi systems make use of?
SoC
154
Which of the following can be used to stop piggybacking at a front entrance where employees should swipe smart cards to gain entry?
Deploy a mantrap
155
What is Piggybanking?
It is when an authorized or unauthorized individual gains entry into a secured area by exploiting the credentials of a prior person
156
Which of the following are solutions that address physical security? (Select two.)
Escort visitors at all times
Require identification and name badges for all employees
157
Where would badge readers be most appropriate in a small business?
Building entrances and the server room
158
Which option is a benefit of CCTV?
Expand the area visible by security guards
159
You want to use CCTV to increase your physical security, and you want the ability to remotely control the camera position. Which camera type should you choose?
Pan Tilt Zoom (PTZ)
160
If a fingerprint or retina scan is required to open a secured door, which kind of physical security has been implemented?
Biometric locks
161
Which of the following is the most important thing to do to prevent console access to the router?
Keep the router in a locked room
162
Your company has five salesmen who work out of the office and frequently leave their laptops laying on their desks in their cubicles. You are concerned that someone might walk by and take one of these laptops.
Which of the following is the BEST protection implementation to address your concerns?
Use cable locks to chain the laptops to the desks
163
Which of the following can make passwords useless on a router?
Not controlling physical access to the router
164
Which device is used to allow a USB device to charge but blocks the data transfer capabilities of the device?
USB data blocker
165
Which of the following fire extinguisher types is best used for the electrical fires that might result when working with computer components?
Class C
166
What does a Class A fire extinguisher do?
It uses water or soda acid and is best for fires using typical combustible materials (wood, paper, cloth, plastics)
167
What does a Class B fire extinguisher do?
It uses either CO2 or FM200, but it is best suited for petroleum, oil, solvent, or alcohol fires
168
What does a Class D fire extinguisher do?
It uses a dry powder and is best for sodium and potassium fires
169
You walk by the server room and notice that a fire has started. What should you do first?
Make sure everyone has cleared the area
170
What is the recommended humidity level for server rooms?
50%
171
Your networking closet contains your network routers, switches, bridges, and some servers. You want to make sure an attacker is not able to gain physical access to the equipment in the networking closet. You also want to prevent anyone from reconfiguring the network to set up remote access or backdoor access.
Which of the following measures are the best ways to secure your networking equipment from unauthorized physical access? (Select two. Each measure is part of a complete solution.)
Place your networking equipment in a room that requires key card entry
Place your networking equipment in a locked cage
172
Components within your server room are failing at a rapid pace. You discover that the humidity in the server room is at 60% and the temperature is at 80 degrees.
What should you do to help reduce problems?
Add a separate A/C unit in the server room
173
You maintain a network for an industrial manufacturing company. You are concerned about the dust in the area getting into server components and affecting network availability.
Which of the following should you implement?
Positive pressure system
174
A Faraday cage is used to prevent what from leaving an area?
Electromagnetic emissions
175
A computer or small network that is not connected to the rest of the network or the internet is known as?
Air gap
176
Where should an organization's web server be placed?
DMZ
177
Which of the following is the MOST likely to happen if the firewall managing traffic into the DMZ fails?
Only the servers in the DMZ are compromised, but the LAN will stay protected
178
What needs to be configured on a firewall to allow traffic directed to the public resource in the DMZ?
Packet filters
179
Which special network area is used to provide added protection by isolating publicly accessible servers?
DMZ
180
Which device is often employed by power companies to protect cabling infrastructure from having cables added or removed and to prevent emissions from being retrieved from the air?
Protective Distribution System (PDS)
181
Most equipment is cooled by bringing cold air in the front and ducting the heat out of the back. What is the term for where the heat is sent in this type of scenario?
Hot aisle
182
You've just deployed a new Cisco router that connects several network segments in your organization.
The router is physically located in a cubicle near your office. You've backed up the router configuration to a remote location in an encrypted file. You access the router configuration interface from your notebook computer using an SSH client with the username admin01 and the password P@ssW0rd. You have used the MD5 hashing algorithm to protect the password.
What should you do to increase the security of this device?
Move the router to a secure server room
183
Power, heating, ventilation, air conditioning systems (HVAC), and utilities are all components of which term?
Infrastructure
184
When you dispose of a computer or sell used hardware, it is crucial that none of the data on the hard disks can be recovered.
Which of the following actions can you take to ensure that no data is recoverable?
Damage the hard disks so badly that all data remanence is gone
185
Which of the following data destruction techniques uses a punch press or hammer system to crush a hard disk?
Pulverizing
186
A company is preparing to discard a batch of old hard drives that contain sensitive data. They want to ensure the data is completely destroyed and the drives are rendered unusable.
Which of the following methods should they use?
Pulping
187
Burning, pulping, and shredding are three ways to securely dispose of data in which form?
Paper
188
Which of the following is a direct integrity protection?
Digital Signature
189
What is the most obvious means of providing non-repudiation in a cryptography system?
Digital signatures
190
What do application control solutions use to identify specific applications?
Application signatures
191
Which of the following are true of Triple DES (3DES)?
Key length is 168 bits
192
Which of the following techniques involves adding random bits of data to a password before it is stored as a hash?
Password salting
193
What is the process of adding random characters at the beginning or end of a password to generate a completely different hash called?
Salting
194
A receiver wants to verify the integrity of a message received from a sender. A hashing value is contained within the digital signature of the sender.
Which of the following must the receiver use to access the hashing value and verify the integrity of the transmission?
Sender's public key
195
Hashing algorithms are used to perform which of the following activities?
Create a message digest
196
Which of the following is used to verify that a downloaded file has not been altered?
Hash
197
You have just downloaded a file. You create a hash of the file and compare it to the hash posted on the website. The two hashes match.
What do you know about the file?
Your copy is the same as the copy posted on the website
198
Which of the following does not or cannot produce a hash value of 128 bits?
SHA-1
199
Mary wants to send a message to Sam in such a way that only Sam can read it. Which key should be used to encrypt the message?
Sam's public key
200
Mary wants to send a message to Sam. She wants to digitally sign the message to prove that she sent it. Which key would Mary use to create the digital signature?
Her private key
201
Which type(s) of key(s) are used in symmetric cryptography?
A shared key
202
How many keys are used with symmetric key cryptography?
One
203
When a cryptographic system is used to protect data confidentiality, what actually takes place?
Unauthorized users are prevented from viewing or accessing the resource
204
Above all else, what must be protected to maintain the security and benefit of an asymmetric cryptographic solution, especially if it is widely used for digital certificates?
Private keys
205
The success of asymmetric encryption is dependent upon which of the following?
The secrecy of the key
206
Which of the following can be classified as a stream cipher?
RC4
207
Which of the following are true concerning the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) symmetric block cipher? (Select two.)
It uses a variable-length block and key length (128-, 192-, or 256-bit keys)
It is also known as the Rijndael cipher
208
How many keys are used with asymmetric (public key) cryptography?
Two
209
Which of the following algorithms are used in asymmetric encryption? (Select two.)
RSA
Diffie-Hellman
210
Which of the following algorithms are used in symmetric encryption? (Select two.)
Blowfish
3DES
211
If a message sender encrypts a message with a key and a message receiver decrypts it using the same key, which type of key exchange is taking place?
Symmetric
212
Which term means a cryptography mechanism that hides secret communications within various forms of data?
Steganography
213
You create a new document and save it to a hard drive on a file server on your company's network. Then you employ an encryption tool to encrypt the file using AES. This activity is an example of accomplishing which security goal?
Confidentiality
214
By definition, which security concept uses the ability to prove that a sender undeniably sent an encrypted message?
Non-repudiation
215
When a sender encrypts a message using their own private key, which security service is being provided to the recipient?
Non-repudiation
216
Your computer system is a participant in an asymmetric cryptography system. You've crafted a message to be sent to another user. Before transmission, you hash the message and then encrypt the hash using your private key. You then attach this encrypted hash to your message as a digital signature before sending it to the other user.
Which protection does the private key-signing activity of this process provide?
Non-repudiation
217
Cryptographic systems provide which of the following security services? (Select two.)
Confidentiality
Non-repudiation
218
Which of the following are often identified as the three main goals of security? (Select three.)
Integrity
Availability
Confidentiality
219
Which of the following encryption mechanisms offers the least security because of weak keys?
DES
220
Which of the following is the weakest symmetric encryption method?
DES
