B3 - Operations Management: Cost Accounting and Performance Management Flashcards

1
Q

Cost object

A

Resources or activities that serve as the basis for management decisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is an example of a cost object?

A

Product lines, departments, or geographic territories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Product costs

A

Relate to manufacturing the product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Inventoriable

A

considered assets before the product is sold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the three components of product costs?

A

Direct materials, direct labor, manufacturing overhead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Period costs

A

Expensed in the period in which they are incurred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T/F Period costs are inventoriable

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

T/F Product costs are inventoriable

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Period cost expenses

A

Selling, general, and administrative expenses, interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Period cost components

A

Cost of selling the product and administering and managing operations of the firm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Manufacturing costs

A

direct and indirect costs associated with manufacturing a product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How are manufacturing costs treated?

A

Capitalized to the cost of the manufactured product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Nonmanufacturing costs

A

Period costs that are expensed in the period incurred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Objectives of cost accounting systems

A

inventory and COGS, Profitability, comparison to standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Direct cost

A

Easily traced to a cost object or pool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Direct raw materials

A

Materials purchased to be used in production (including freight in) plus a reasonable amount for normal scrap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Direct labor

A

Cost of labor that is directly related to the production of a product or the performance of a service plus breaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Indirect costs

A

Not easily traceable to a cost pool or cost object and incurred to benefit two or more cost pools/objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How are indirect costs determined?

A

Allocation methods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where are indirect costs classified?

A

Manufacturing overhead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Direct labor + Direct material

A

Prime Cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Direct labor + Manufacturing Overhead

A

Conversion Cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which costing method is applied:
1. Overhead rate = budgeted overhead costs/estimated cost driver
2. Applied overhead = actual cost driver X overhead rate

A

Traditional costing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Traditional costing overhead rate

A

budgeted overhead costs/estimated cost driver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Traditional applied overhead

A

actual cost driver x overhead rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

T/F Variable costs change proportionally with cost driver

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

T/F Variable costs change in total but remain constant per unit

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

T/F Fixed costs changes when the cost driver changes

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

T/F Fixed costs remain constant in total but vary per unit

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

T/F costs are considered variable in the long run

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What kind of cost is depreciation

A

fixed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Relevant range

A

range for which assumption that the cost driver has a linear relationship with costs incurred are valid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cost of goods manufactured formula

A

Beginning WIP
+Manufacturing Costs
-Ending WIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Cost of goods sold formula

A

Beg FG
+COGM
-End FG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Cost accumulation

A

Assigns costs to products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is cost accumulation driven by

A

Cost object

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What type of cost accumulation would be used?
Custom order

A

Job costing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What type of cost accumulation would be used?
Mass produced, homogenous

A

Process costing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of cost accumulation would be used?
little need for in-process inventory valuation

A

backflush costing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What type of cost accumulation would be used?
manufacturing phase of product’s life

A

Life cycle costing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Manufacturing costs are increased or decreased by the net change in ___________.

A

WIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Job order costing

A

Product costing that identifies the job as the cost objective and is used when there are relatively few units produced or each unit is separately identifiable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Job cost records

A

accumulate costs from material requisition, labor time ticket, and job order costing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

material requistion

A

documents showing materials requested for use on the job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

labor time ticket

A

documents that show labor hours and labor rate associated with the time applied to job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Process costing

A

averages costs and applies them to a large number of homogenous items

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Step 1 of process costing

A

Summarize the flow of physical units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Step 2 of process costing

A

calculate the equivalent unit output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Step 3 of process costing

A

Accumulate the total costs to be accounted for

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Step 4 of process costing

A

Calculate the average unit costs based on total costs and equivalent units

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Step 5 of process costing

A

Apply the average costs to the units completed and the units remaining in ending WIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the two process costing assumptions?

A

Transfers in are 100%
Timing of addition of DM include: beginning of period - 100% or partially complete, end of period - not WIP inventory at month end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Equivalent units

A

Units completed during the month
Units partially completed at the end of the period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How is normal spoilage accounted for?

A

Capitalized as part of inventory costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How is abnormal spoilage accounted for?

A

Period expense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Underapplied manufacturing overhead

A

Actual costs exceed estimated (unfavorable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Overapplied manufacturing overhead

A

Actual costs are less than estimated (favorable)

58
Q

What does Overhead applied mean?

A

Overhead is comprised of actual costs that are calculated during the period and must be estimated when calculated product costs

59
Q

Equivalent Unit FIFO: step 1

A

Completion of units on hand at beginning of period (1-% completed in prior period)

60
Q

Equivalent Unit FIFO: step 2

A

Units started and completed during the period (Units completed - beginning WIP)

61
Q

Equivalent Unit FIFO: step 3

A

Units partially completed (EI * % Complete)

62
Q

Equivalent Unit WA: Step 1

A

Units completed during the month (Beg WIP + Units started and completed)

63
Q

Equivalent Unit WA: Step 2

A

Units partially complete at end of period (EI * % Complete)

64
Q

What kind of activity based costing would apply
Direct labor hours or machine hours

A

Volume based

65
Q

How does using volume based activity based costing affect amount of costs assigned to product lines?

A

Distorts amount of costs assigned to various product lines because all overhead costs do not fluctuate with volume

66
Q

What kind of activity based costing would apply
Tasks, units of work, etc

A

Activity based

67
Q

Resource cost driver

A

Amount of resources that will be used by an activity

68
Q

Activity cost driver

A

Amount of activity that a cost object will use and it is used to assign the costs to the cost objects

69
Q

Activity centers

A

Operation necessary to produce a product

70
Q

Cost pool

A

Group of costs or specifically identified cost center, in which costs are grouped, assigned, or collected

71
Q

Value Chain

A

Series of activites in which customer usefulness is added to the product

72
Q

Non-value added activities

A

Do not increase product value or service and are targeted for elimination

73
Q

Joint product costs

A

Costs incurred in producing products up to the split off point

74
Q

Separable costs

A

Costs incurred on a product after the split off point

75
Q

Productivity ratio

A

Quantity of output produced/ Costs of all inputs used

76
Q

What type of diagram helps identify defects?

A

Pareto

77
Q

What type of diagram helps identify source of defect?

A

Fishbone

78
Q

Pareto diagram formula

A

Defects per type/Total # defects

79
Q

Cumulative defects

A

Defects per type 1 + Defects per type 2/ Total # defects

80
Q

Types of Responsibility Segments “CRPI”

A

Controlling Costs
Revenue
Profit SBU
Investment SBU

81
Q

Profit SBU

A

Managers are held responsible for producing a target profit by taking accountability for both revenue and cost

82
Q

Investment SBU

A

Managers are held responsible for return on assets

83
Q

Contribution Margin

A

Selling price - variable costs

84
Q

Gross Margin

A

Revenue-COGS/Revenue

85
Q

Net Income

A

Sales - COGS - Operating Expenses

86
Q

Gross Profit

A

Sales - COGS

87
Q

T/F Contribution Margin is NOT controllable?

A

False
Selling price - variable costs

88
Q

Controllable Margin

A

Contribution Margin - Fixed costs

89
Q

FICA

A

Balanced scorecard critical success factors

90
Q

F in FICA

A

Financial - profit & growth

91
Q

I in FICA

A

Internal business processes - efficient production and keeping defects low

92
Q

C in FICA

A

Customer satisfaction

93
Q

A in FICA

A

Advancement of innovation and HR - Retention of key employees

94
Q

ROI

A

Income/Investment capital
OR
Profit margin X Investment turnover

95
Q

Prevention costs

A

prevent production of defective units

96
Q

Prevention or appraisal cost:
Employee training

A

Prevention

97
Q

Prevention or appraisal cost:
Inspection expense

A

Prevention

98
Q

Prevention or appraisal cost:
Redesign of process

A

Prevention

99
Q

Prevention or appraisal cost:
Search for higher quality suppliers

A

Prevention

100
Q

Prevention or appraisal cost:
Statistical quality checks

A

Appraisal

101
Q

Prevention or appraisal cost:
Testing

A

Appraisal

102
Q

Prevention or appraisal cost:
Inspection

A

Appraisal

103
Q

Appraisal costs

A

incurred to discover and remove defective parts before they are shipped to the customer or next department

104
Q

Nonconformance costs

A

Internal and external failures

105
Q

Conformance costs

A

Appraisal and prevention

106
Q

Absolute conformance

A

0 defects; rigorous standard

107
Q

Internal failure

A

Curing known defects before reaching customers

108
Q

External failure

A

Curing known defects after reaching customers

109
Q

Internal or external failure
Lost customers

A

External

110
Q

Internal or external failure
Warranty

A

External

111
Q

Internal or external failure
Return costs

A

External

112
Q

Internal or external failure
Rework costs

A

Internal

113
Q

Internal or external failure
Cost to dispos

A

Internal

114
Q

Internal or external failure
Tooling change

A

Internal

115
Q

Calculating investment capital

A

Average assets (Last year + CY)/2
Average PPE + Average WC

116
Q

Profit Margin

A

Net income/Sales

117
Q

Investment turnover

A

Sales/Assets

118
Q

Hurdle rate

A

Shows whether ROI is covering cost of capital

119
Q

Investment myopia

A

overemphasis of managers on investment return targets in the short run

120
Q

ROE

A

Net income/Equity

121
Q

What 3 components are included in DuPont Analysis

A

Net Profit Margin, Asset Turnover, Financial leverage

122
Q

Asset turnover

A

Sales/Assets

123
Q

Financial leverage

A

Assets/Equity

124
Q

Tax burden

A

Extent to which a company retains profits after paying taxes

125
Q

What is profit margin driven by?

A

Competition

126
Q

What is asset turnover driven by?

A

Management efficiency

127
Q

What is financial leverage driven by?

A

Risk management is willing to assume

128
Q

Tax burden formula

A

Net Income/Pretax Income

129
Q

Interest burden

A

reflects how much in pretax income a company retains after paying interest to debt holders; dependent on amount of debt and cost of borrowing

130
Q

Interest burden formula

A

Pretax income/ earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT)

131
Q

EBIT Margin

A

Measure of company profits earned on sales after paying operating and nonoperating costs (other than interest and taxes); dependent on competition and power of suppliers

132
Q

EBIT Margin Formula

A

EBIT/Sales

133
Q

What happens when ROE is greater than required rate of return

A

Value added

134
Q

Residual income

A

Measures value added for stockholders in dollars; positive value indicates performance is meeting standards

135
Q

Residual income formula

A

Net income - Required return on equity

136
Q

Reuiqred return

A

NBV x Hurdle Rate

137
Q

Economic value added

A

Measures excess of income after taxes earned by an investment over the return rate defined by the company’s overall cost of capital

138
Q

EVA Formula

A

NOPAT - Required return

139
Q

NPAT

A

Measures return to all suppliers of capital and includes interest but removes taxes

140
Q

NOPAT Formula

A

EBIT x (1-T)

141
Q
A