B2-Cells Flashcards

1
Q

Structure [2] and function [1] of cell surface/plasma membrane ? [3]

A

-Mainly lipids and proteins
-Receptors on surface for recognition

-Regulates movement of substances in + out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Structure [3] and function [2] of Mitochondria ? [5]

A

-Double membrane
-Inner membrane folds + forms crista
-matrix contains enzymes involved in respiration

-Site of aerobic respiration
-Energy released/ATP produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Structure and function of Nucleus ? [3]

A

-Bound by a ‘nuclear envelope’
-Contains chromosomes (protein bound linear DNA)
-Contains nucleolus which produces RNA to make ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Structure and function of golgi apparatus ? [2]

A

-Modify, processes and packages proteins and lipids
-Golgi vesicles store lipids and proteins and transports out of cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Structure and function of lysosomes ? [3]

A

-A type of vesicle formed from golgi
-Contains and transports digestive enzymes called Lysozymes
-Surrounded by a membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Structure [3] and function [1] of ribosomes? [4]

A

-Found freely in the cytoplasm or part of RER
-Made up of proteins and lipids
-80S in eukaryotic

-Site of translation for photosynthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Structure and function of Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum? [2]

A

-Ribosomes on membrane, some free floating
-Processes proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Structure and function of Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum? [2]

A

-No ribosomes
-Lipids are synthesised and processed here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Structure [4] and function [1] of chloroplast? [5]

A

-Small, flattened strcutre
-Double membrane
-Inside stacked membrane called thylakoids (grana in stacks)
-Stroma=fluid containing enzymes

-Site of photosynthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Structure and function of cell wall? [4]

A

-Rigid structure which supports and structures cells
-Plants and algae= Cellulose cell wall
-Fungi= Chitin cell wall
-Prevents changing of shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Structure [2] and function [2] of vacuole? [4]

A

-Membrane bound organelle
-Contains cell sap

-Involved in isolation of unwanted chemicals
-Maintains pressure and turgidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Prokaryote structure [5]

A

-Much smaller than eukaryote
-No membrane-bound organelles
-Smaller ribosomes (70S)
-No nucleus, circular DNA
-Cell wall made from Murein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Virus structure [3]

A

-Protein coat (capsid)
-Genetic material = DNA or RNA
-Attachment proteins= help virus attach and enter host cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Light microscope principles?

A

Uses long light wavelengths
-Light passes through specimen
-Into magnifying lenses of microscope
-Into objective viewing lens
-Into eye, brain forms image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

TEM principles?

A

Uses electromagnets to focus electron beam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

SEM principles?

A

Beam of electrons move back and forth across cell’s surface, creating details of cell surface characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Light microscope advantages? [5]

A

-Specimen can be alive
-Cheap
-Simple/easy to use + maintain
-Small therefore easily transported
-Coloured images

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Light microscope disadvantages? [3]

A

-Lower magnification and resolution
-object smaller than wavelength of light cannot be seen
-Cannot be used to study ribosomes, lysosomes, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

TEM advantages? [2]

A

-High resolution so organelles can be separated
-Detailed images

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

TEM disadvantages? [5]

A

-Must be performed in a vacuum
-Specimen must be thin
-Specimen must be dead
-No colour
-May contain artefacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

SEM advantages? [3]

A

-3D images
-Specimens can be of any thickness
-Shows surface of specimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

SEM disadvantages? [3]

A

-Lower resolution
-No colour
-May contain artefacts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the three main steps to cell fractionation?

A

-Homogenisation
-Filtration
-Ultracentrifugation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

1- What three things must the solution be during cell fractionation?

A

-Cold
-Isotonic (same water potential)
-Buffer (same ph)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why should the solution be cold during cell fractionation?

A

Reduces enzyme activity and prevents enzymes from denaturing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Why should the solution be isotonic during cell fractionation?

A

Prevents enzyme activity and prevents enzymes from denaturing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Why should the solution be a buffer solution during cell fractionation?

A

Prevents osmosis from occuring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

2- Homogenistation- what is it and why is it done?

A

-Blending the solution
-Breaking apart the cell wall/membrane
-Releases the organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

3- Filtration- why is it done?

A
  • Removes large cellular debris
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

4- Ultracentrifugation- how is it done & keywords

A

-Centrifuge at a low speed- collect pellet containing dense, heavier organelles
-Leftover solution that isnt the pellet is the SUPERNATANT
-Centrifuge the supernantant again, increasing the speed
-Repeat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What order do the organelles pellets form?

A

-Nucleus
-Chloroplasts
-Mitochondria
-Lysosomes/golgi
-ER
Ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is cancer?

A

Unrestrained cell growth and division, leading to the formation of a cluster of cells (called a tumour).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a benign tumour?

A

A tumour which is encapsulated and noninvasive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is a malignant tumour?

A

A tumour which is not encapsulated and invasive, which can undergo metastasis (can spread throughout the body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is chemotherapy?

A

A type of therapy which interferes with the cell cycle and halts division.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

First stage of binary fission:

A

The cells elongate and the DNA is replicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Second stage of binary fission:

A

The cell wall and plasma membrane begin to divide.

38
Q

Third stage of binary fission:

A

A cross-wall forms around the divided DNA.

39
Q

Fourth stage of binary fission:

A

The cells separate.

40
Q

Mitotic Index calculation:

A

Number of cells undergoing mitosis/Total number of cells

41
Q

What happens during G1 phase of Interphase in the cell cycle? [2 points]

A

-The cell is metabolically active and grows.
-The duplication of organelles occurs.

42
Q

What happens during S phase of Interphase in the cell cycle?

A

The DNA replicates

43
Q

What happens during G2 phase of Interphase in the cell cycle? [2 points]

A
  • New organelles are created
  • The cell continues to grow
44
Q

What happens during cytokinesis?

A

The separation of the membrane.

45
Q

What happens during prophase? [2]

A

-The chromosomes become visible under a microscope
-Nuclear envelope breaks down

46
Q

What happens during metaphase? [2]

A

-The chromatids line up at the equator of the cell
-The spindle fibres attach to the chromatids by their centromeres

47
Q

What happens during anaphase? [3]

A

-The centromeres divide to split each pair of chromatids
-The spindle fibres contract and shorten, pulling the chromatids to opposite poles of the cell
-The chromatids appear V-shaped

48
Q

What happens during telophase? [1]

A

-Nuclear envelope forms two new nuclei

49
Q

Where does the phospholipid head face?

A

Face aqueous

50
Q

What is a glycolipid and what is its function?

A

Carbohydrate chain attatched to a lipid.
-Cell protection/recognition
-Cell adhesions
-Uptake and entry of selected substances

51
Q

What is the extrinsic proteins?

A

Sits on the periphery of the membrane

52
Q

What is cholesterol for?

A

Helps to maintain the fluidity of the membrane, preventing it from becoming too rigid when temperatures drops and too fluid when temperatures are high

53
Q

What is the intrinsic protein?

A

Spans the membrane
2 types:
- Channel proteins= allow passive movement of substances that are too big or charged to fit through the bilayer
- Carrier proteins= allow passive movement of some substances

54
Q

What is a glycoprotein?

A

Carbohydrate chain attached to a protein
Same functions as gylcolipid

55
Q

Similarities between the structures of chloroplasts and mitochondria? [3]

A

-Both are double-membraned
-Both contain circular DNA
-Both contain ribosomes

56
Q

Differences between the structures of chloroplasts and mitochondria? [2]

A

-Thylakoids & grana vs cristae
-Stroma vs matrix

57
Q

Why is the model for membrane known as the fluid mosaic model? [3]

A
  • Fluid= the molecules move freely laterally
  • Mosaic= The proteins are disrupted throughout the membrane unevenly
  • Model= The agreed structure is based upon experimental + chemical evidence
58
Q

What is the permeability of a plasma membrane?

A

Partially permeable

59
Q

What are the 5 types of transport processes?

A
  • Simple diffusion
  • Facilitated diffusion
  • Active Transport
  • osmosis
  • Co- transport
60
Q

What is simple diffusion?

A

The net passive movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

61
Q

6 factors which affect the rate of diffusion?

A
  • Temperature
  • Concentration gradient
  • Stirring/movement
  • Surface area
  • Distance/thickness of diffusion distance
  • Size of molecule
62
Q

What is facilitated diffusion?

A

Diffusion using:
- Protein channels
- Carrier molecule

63
Q

What is required for active transport? [2]

A
  • Metabolic energy in the form of ATP
  • Specific carrier proteins
64
Q

How do carrier proteins work? [4]

A
  • Molecules bind to carrier protein receptor site
  • ATP binds to protein (ADP+P) causing protein to change shape and open
  • Molecule released on the other side
  • Phosphate is released from protein and protein reverts to original shape
65
Q

What is Endocytosis?

A

Bringing molecules into the cell

66
Q

What is Exocytosis?

A

Moving molecules out of the cell

67
Q

What is osmosis?

A

The passage of water from a region where it has a higher water potential to a region where it has a lower water potential through a selectively permeable membrane

68
Q

What is an isotonic solution?

A

No net movement of water particles, as the two have the same water potential

69
Q

What is the hypertonic solution?

A

Water particles move out of the cell. The cell membrane shrinks and detaches from the cell wall (plasmaolysis). The water potential is lower in the solution compared to the cells.

70
Q

What is a hypotonic solution?

A

Water particles move into the cell. The cell swells and bursts. The water potential is higher in the solution compared to the cells.

71
Q

What is a protoplast?

A

Consisting of the outer cell surface membrane, nucleus, cytoplasm, and the inner vacuole membrane

72
Q

What is an aquaporin?

A

Special channel proteins allowing water to pass through the membrane

73
Q

What is the Ileum?

A

one in three sections of the small intestine

74
Q

What is co-transport?

A

The coupled movement of substances across a cell membrane via a carrier protein.

75
Q

What is a non-specific cell mediated response? (+ examples)

A

Immediate and same for all pathogens (e.g physical and chemical barriers, phagocytosis)

76
Q

What is a specific cell mediated response? (+ examples)

A

Slower and specific to each pathogen (e.g T and B lymphocytes)

77
Q

What is a macrophage?

A

Another name for phagocytes

78
Q

Two examples of white blood cells:

A
  • Phagocytes
  • Lymphocytes
79
Q

Two examples of lymphocyes

A

T cells
B cells

80
Q

Where to T cells mature?

A

In the thymus gland

81
Q

Where do B cells mature?

A

In the bone marrow

82
Q

What do T helper cells bind to?

A

Antigens presented on the antigen presenting cell

83
Q

What four things can T cells do after having cloned?

A
  • Produce memory cells
  • Produce killer T cells
  • Stimulates B cells to divide (creating antibodies)
  • Produce more phagocyes/macrophages to come to the area
84
Q

What do cytotoxic/killer T cells do? (3 steps)

A
  • Bind to infected cell
  • Releases perforin, which makes holes in infected cell’s membrane
  • Enzyme enters and infected cell is destroyed
85
Q

Three types of T cells:

A
  • T helper cells
  • T killer cells (cytotoxic)
  • T memory cells
86
Q

What do B cells produce?

A

Antibodies

87
Q

What is an antigen?

A

A protein on the cell surface membrane which stimulates an immune response

88
Q

Five examples of the first line of defence:

A
  • Saliva (antibacterial enzymes)
  • Tears (antibacterial enzymes)
  • Skin (physical barrier)
  • Stomach acid (low pH)
  • Mucus lining
89
Q

Four things that antigens enable the immune system to identify:

A
  • Pathogens
  • Cells from other organisms of the cell species
  • Abnormal body cells
  • Toxins
90
Q

Six (simple) stages of phagocytosis:

A
  • Attraction
  • Recognition and attachment
  • Endocytosis
  • Bacteria within a phagocytic vacuole
  • Fusion of lysosomes and phagocytic vacuole
  • Killing and digestion