B13 Flashcards

1
Q

Paclitaxal

A

Microtubule stabilisation agent

MoA:

  • Paclitaxel binds to the β subunit of tubulin causing hyper-stabilisation of the microtubule.
  • This prevents the cell from undergoing disassembly and therefore reorganising the microtubule cytoskeleton. This adversely affects cell function, as a dynamic microtubule network is key to effective cellular transport.

Use:

  • Paclitaxel is a taxoid antineoplastic agent
  • Used for advanced ovarian carcinoma + breast cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cisplatin

A

Antineoplastic alkylating agent

Use:

  • Alkylating agent
  • Cancer treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Isoniazid

A

Bactericidal agent

MoA:

  • Isoniazid is a prodrug and must be activated by bacterial catalase.
  • Once activated, isoniazid inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acids, an essential component of the bacterial cell wall. Isoniazid also disrupts DNA, lipid, carbohydrate, and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) synthesis and/or metabolism

Use:
- Isoniazid is a highly specific bactericidal agent, which targets mycobacterium and is ineffective against other microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Ethambutol

A

Bactericidal agent

MoA:
- Not fully understood but it is thought to inhibit arabinosyl transferases which is involved in cell wall biosynthesis.

Use:

  • Ethambutol is an oral chemotherapeutic agent
  • Apecifically effective against actively growing mycobacterium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Rifampicin

A

Broad spectrum bactericidal

MoA:

  • Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, leading to a suppression of RNA synthesis and cell death.
  • Importantly Rifampicin can target bacterial but not mammalian versions of the enzyme.

Use:

  • Rifampicin is a broad spectrum antibiotic (targets both gram-positive and gram-negative organisms), which is easily absorbed and distributed within the body
  • Due to the emergence of resistant bacteria, the use of Rifampicin is restricted to mainly mycobacterial infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pyrazinamide

A

Antibiotic

Use:

  • Pyrazinamide a highly specific agent used with other drugs to treat TB
  • It is active only against Mycobacterium tuberculosis and is active only at a slightly acid pH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ciprofloxacin

A

Broad spectrum antibiotic (quinolone)

MoA:
- Inhibition of topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV, which are required for bacterial DNA replication, transcription, repair, strand supercoiling repair, and recombination

Use:
- Ciprofloxacin can be used against a wide range of gram-negative and gram-positive microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Salmeterol

Salbutamol

A

Beta 2 adrenergic agonist use

Use:

  • B2-receptor stimulation in the lung causes relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle, bronchodilation, and increased bronchial airflow.
  • They are used to manage asthma and other chronic obstructive airway diseases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Budesonide

A

Anti-inflammatory corticosteroid

Use:

  • Crohn’s disease
  • Asthma inflammation
  • UC

MoA:

  • Has a high glucocorticoid effect and a weak mineralocorticoid effect.
  • Its binding affinity to the glucocorticoid receptor is higher than cortisol and prednisolone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Montelukast

A

Leukotriene receptor antagonist

Use:
- Used as an alternative to anti-inflammatory medications in the management of asthma and exercise-induced bronchospasm (EIB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Ipratropium

A

Anticholinergic agent

Use:

  • Bronchodilator used in the management of cholinergic-mediated bronchospasm associated with COPD
  • Treatment of rhinorrhoea associated with the common cold or with allergic or non-allergic seasonal rhinitis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Verapamil

A

Class IV anti-arrhythmia agent

MoA:
- Verapamil inhibits voltage-dependent calcium channels. In the heart it blocks the L-type calcium channels causing a reduction in ionotropy and chronotropy, reducing heart rate and blood pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Diltiazem

A

Calcium channel inhibitor

Use:
- Used alone or with an ACE inhibitor, to treat hypertension, chronic stable angina pectoris, and Prinzmetal’s variant angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Atenolol

A

Atenolol has similar properties to propranolol and it is a β1-selective antagonist

MoA:
- Higher doses of Atenolol also competitively block β2-adrenergic responses in the bronchial (in asthmatic patients can cause bronchoconstriction) and vascular smooth muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Atropine

A

Antimuscarinic agent

MoA:
- Atropine binds to and inhibits the muscarinic (M2) acetylcholine receptor.

Use:
- Prevents or abolishes bradycardia, asystole and cardiac arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Glyceryl trinitrate

A

Vasodilator

Use:
- Treatment of angina pectoris and perioperative hypertension, to produce controlled hypotension

17
Q

Amiodarone

A

Antianginal and antirhythmic agent

Amiodarone is a Vaughan-Williams Class III antiarrhythmic agent

18
Q

Adenosine

A

Adenosine is an endogenous nucleoside.

MoA + Use:

  • Slow conduction time through the AV node and so interrupt the re-entry pathways through the AV node, resulting in the restoration of normal sinus rhythm in patients with paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT), including PSVT associated with Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome
  • Increase blood flow in normal coronary arteries with little or no increase in stenotic arteries
19
Q

Lidocaine

A

Anaesthetic agent + Class Ib antiarrthmatic drug that blocks voltage-sensitive sodium channels during phase 0 of the cardiac action potential, thus slowing and depressing impulse conduction

Use:

  • Treat ventricular tachyarrhythmias associated with MI.
  • Lidocaine depresses Ventricular excitability and increases the stimulation threshold of the ventricle during diastole.
  • The sinoatrial node is, however, unaffected.