B1 TEST 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

How many chromosomes do prokaryotes have and how do they replicate?

A

1 DNA chromosome, no histones, replicate through binary fission.

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2
Q

What provides protection from outside world for almost all prokaryotes?

A

Cell wall AND plasma membrane

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3
Q

Protozoa and helminths are both types of what?

A

Parasites

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4
Q

What are Koch’s Postulates/Germ Theory (4 points)

A

1) If pathogen is cause of disease it must be able to be found in EVERY scenario disease is involved 2) If pathogen is cause of disease, you should be able to culture it from an infected patient (GROWN IN VITRO) 3) If pathogen is cause of disease, you should be able to infect a new host using the pathogen that you have cultured.. 4) If pathogen is cause of disease, you should be able to recover original pathogen from new infected host.

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5
Q

Fill in the blanks

A
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6
Q

Define core microbiome

A

commonly shared microbioal species among individuals at specific bodily sites

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7
Q

Define secondary microbiome

A

Microbial species that uniquely contribute to the diversity of individuals at specific body sites.

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8
Q

What type of environment (within humans) do gram negative bacteria prefer?

A

The type of bacteria prefer wet/moist conditions.

(hint: you’re upset to get wet)

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9
Q

These four types of tissue are usually considered sterile. List them.

A

1) Deep muscle
2) sinovial fluid
3) cerebrospinal fluid
4) blood

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10
Q

What is immune stimulation?

A

Exposure to low concentrations of anti-normal flora help provide protection against other bacterial pathogens, which allows response for foreign blood types, deep infections, etc.

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11
Q

What are some ways that normal flora prevent foreign invasion? What are some nutritional and metabolic benefits?

A

1) maintaining specific pH (low pH in vaginal tract)
2) physical occupancy (no room for invaders!)
3) secreting antibiotics and bacteriocins (proteins that can act against other bacteria)

Benefits

1) vitamin K synthesis
2) biotin synthesis

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12
Q

What is dysbiosis?

A

Disruption of the normal microbiota is called this.

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13
Q

What are the 3 common shapes of bacteria. Give both names for each type.

A

1) Cocci (spheres)

  • clusters
  • chains
  • diplococci

2) Bacilli (rods)
3) Spirochetes (spirals)

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14
Q

Describe the unique features of gram + bacteria. What color does it turn in response to staining sequence?

A

1) THICK peptidoglycan (PTG) layer
2) Teichoic acid (major surface antigen and support structure. Found inside PTG.
3) Lipoteichoic acid

both (2) and (3) have some SLIGHT endotoxic properties associated with them

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15
Q

Describe the unique features of gram - bacteria. (6) What color does it turn in response to staining sequence?

A

1) THIN peptidoglycan layer
2) periplasmic space (between outer membrane and cytoplasmic membrane, hydrolytic ezymes found here)
3) Lipoproteins (such as beta-lactamase), located inside that periplasmic space
4) LPS or lipopolysaccharide
5) Endotoxin (lipid A)

6) Porin proteins ( allow entry of essential substances AND anitmicrobial drugs)

WILL TURN PINK

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16
Q

What is the backbone of peptidoglycan composed of? What component has the cross link/peptide interbridges attached?

A

alternating glycan chain of

1) (NAG) N-acetylglucosamine
2) (NAM) N-acetylmuramic acid

NAM has the cross-link/peptide interbridge attached

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17
Q

The cross-link reaction in the formation of peptidoglycan is catalyzed by these two enzymes? What class of enzymes do these belong to?

A

1) transpeptidase (responsible for cross-linking the tetrapeptides)
2) carboxypeptidases (turns 5-polypeptide into tetrapeptide and uses that energy to form peptide cross-link)

BOTH of these enzymes belong to the penicillin binding protein (PBP) class

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18
Q

List the two Penicillin binding proteins and the types of antibiotics that they are susceptible to.

A

1) Transpeptidase
2) Carboxypeptidase

Both susceptible to Beta-lactam (penicillin) and vancomycin antibiotics

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19
Q

What holds together the outermembrane in gram (-) bacteria? What can disrupt this?

A

Divalent Cations (Mg2+, Ca2+) hold this together through linkages b/w phosphates of lipopolysaccharides (LPS)

EDTA (Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) will destroy this outermembrane of gram - bacteria

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20
Q

Define antigenic.

A

something that causes a strong innate immune response. can induce fever and cause shock

(think LPS and endotoxin/lipid A)

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21
Q

What are the (4) steps of Gram Staining? What does each step do to both gram (+) and (-)?

A

1) Crystal Violet (dye tissue)
2) Gram Iodine (fix tissue to hold color)
3) Decolorizer/Alcohol/Acetone (disrupts lipids, washes off excess CV dye)
4) Safranin Red (dyes exposes tissue, counterstain)

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22
Q

commonly shared microbioal species among individuals at specific bodily sites

A

Define core microbiome

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23
Q

Microbial species that uniquely contribute to the diversity of individuals at specific body sites.

A

Define secondary microbiome

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24
Q

Exposure to low concentrations of anti-normal flora help provide protection against other bacterial pathogens, which allows response for foreign blood types, deep infections, etc.

A

What is immune stimulation?

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25
Q

Disruption of the normal microbiota is called this.

A

What is dysbiosis?

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26
Q

What is the compostion and function of bacteria’s external structure?

1) Capsule?
2) Glycocalyx?
3) Pili (fimbriae)?
4) Flagella?

A
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27
Q

What is the name of a biochemical reaction in which antibodies bind to the bacterial capsule for specific type of bacteria. This antibody reaction allows these species to be visualized under a microscope. If the reaction is positive, the capsule becomes slimy or mucoid appearance of a bacterial colony is usually evidence of capsule production

A

Quellung reaction

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28
Q

What is the benefit of a flagella?

A

Chemotaxis and motility

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29
Q

How can you tell whether a strain of bacteria has flagella?

A

Motility test in soft auger.

Stick inoculated need inside auger.

If bacteria spread across entire tube (looks cloudy) then they have flagella.

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30
Q

What external structure found on bacteria promotes adherence?

A

Pili (fimbriae)

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31
Q

What is the name for a bacterial tube that can transfer large segements of bacterials chromosomes between bacteria?

A

F pili (sex pili)

(hint: f*** pili)

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32
Q

How do many bacteria overcome the lack of environmental iron?

A

By secreting siderophores (small, high-affinity iron chelating compounds secreted by microorganisms such as bacteria, fungi and grasses. Siderophores are amongst the strongest soluble Fe binding agents known)

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33
Q

What are the starting and ending products of anaerobic bacteria metabolism?

A

Pyruvate–> ATP + NADH (fermenation)

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34
Q

What are the starting and ending products of aerobic bacteria metabolism?

A

Pyruvate–> ATP (Electron transport chain)

35
Q

What enzyme must all aerobic bacteria contain but NO obligate anaerobes contain? What is the function of this enzyme?

A

superoxide dismutase!

this enzyme converts 02 –> H2O2

36
Q

Which specific aspect of the bacteria growth curves always for identification of many types of bacteria?

A

The Lag period: how long it takes bacteria to adapt to new environment and start growing exponentially

37
Q

What type of bacteria can use sporogenesis to resist being killed?

A

ONLY gram + bacteria, usually bacili

38
Q

What is the name of the preservation mode that some bacteria can enter to survive harsh conditions? What is the trigger for entering this phase? How do bacteria exit this phase?

A

Sporogenesis (only employeed by gram + bacteria)

-thick coat protects DNA and only spore mRNA is transcribed; make it resistant to chemicals (antibiotics) and heat

Sporogenesis is triggered by depletion of nutrients

Sporogenesis is exited by disruption of the outer coat (mechanical stress, pH, boiling a potato)

39
Q

What are examples of cytoplasmic DNA for both eukaryotes and prokaryotes?

A

Eukaryotes: mitochondrial DNA

Prokaryotes: plasmids, bacteriophage (usually this is non-essential DNA, or BONUS DNA)

40
Q

What helps maintain the supercoiled DNA structure inside bacteria?

A

Polyamines and DNA Gyrase (topo II)

41
Q

What are some of the benefits of bacterial plasmids?

A

Can confer antibiotic resistance, bacteriocins, toxins, virulence determinants.

Replicates completely independently of the main bacterial chromosome

42
Q

Describe the bacteriophage lytic cycle? 5 steps!

A

1) ATTACHMENT Bacteriophage lands on specific type of bacteria
2) PENTRATION- bacteriophage inserts DNA into host cell
3) Biosynthesis- bacteriophage DNA uses host cell machinary to replicate DNA and bacteriophage proteins
4) Maturation- newly synthesis proteins and DNA are assembled to form lots of new Bacteriophages
5) Lysis- rupture of cell and bacteriophages spread to find new hosts

43
Q

What is a prophage?

A

bacteriophage DNA that has been integrated into the host chromosome and DNA. Can remain dormant for long periods of time

44
Q

A bacteriophage actively undergoing the lytic cycle is considered to be a ______ phage.

A

virulent

45
Q

A bacteriophage that has inserted its DNA into the host chromosome and DNA and is not actively undergoing replication is considered to be a _________ phage.

A

temperate

46
Q

Describe the lysogenic cycle?

A

A bacteriophage enter the host cell and inserts its DNA into the bacterial DNA. Integrated bacteriophage DNA is called prophage.

The host cell survives and continues normal activity, but sometime this phage DNA will confer additional properties like antibiotic resistance.

The prophage can change its phenotype to LYTIC cycle at any time.

47
Q

The acquisition of properties by the bacteria due to the presence of a prophage is called _________.

A

lysogenic conversion

48
Q

the genome of an organism that is responsible for its capacity to cause disease (its pathogenicity). The virulence of the organism is modulated by genes harbored on this portion of DNA.

A

pathogenicity island

“island of evil”

49
Q

Topoisomerases are susceptible to this type of antibiotic

A

quinolones (end in -floxacin)

50
Q

Do bacterial have multiple different types of RNA? If not, what takes its place?

A

Bacterial only have one type of RNA: DNA dependent RNA polymerase

DNA dependent RNA Polymerase is composed of a sigma enzyme (responsible for transcribing “SOS genes”) and a core enzyme.

51
Q

__________ are groups of one or more structurally or functionally related genes under the control of one promoter.

A

Operons

52
Q

Define and contrast:

Endogenous vs. exogenous infections

A

Endogenous infection are caused by flora that are normally part of your body/surrounding that are opportunistic.

Exogenous infections are infections that are ACQUIRED from a new source (pre-school etc)

There can be some overlap

53
Q

Define and contrast

Community acquired (CAI) vs. healthcare -associated (HAI) Infections

A

Community acquired: anywhere that is not healthcare related

Heathcare: anywhere that is healthcare related

nosocomial infection: hospital

latrogenic infection: intervention by a physician (think latex)

54
Q

What are 4 examples of newly emerging infectious diseases?

A

1) West Nile Virus
2) SARS (severe acture respiratory syndrome, severe form of pneumonia)
3) Zika VIrus
4) Middle East Respiratory Syndrome

55
Q

Describe the common anatomical portals and modes of microbial transmission in infections.

A

URAM infections into host!

Urogenital (body fluid)

Respiratory (inhalation)

Alimentary (eating, drinking)

Mucousal (kissing, open wound)

56
Q

• Define inoculum size and explain its significances in causing a symptomatic infection (disease state).

A

Inoculum size is the number of pathogens enter into the host during transmission. SIZE MATTERS. Higher number of pathogens= better chance of establishment in host

Most infections DO NOT lead to symptomatic disease, must pass a theshold number to reach symptomatic diseased state

57
Q

• Define and give examples/explanation for: fomites, reproduction number and total attack rate in the spread of infectious diseases.

A

fomites: objects that are used to carry/spread infection (clothes, doorknobs, pencils, computers)

total attack rate: the percentage of a population that will become infected with disease over the course of an outbreak

reproduction number (Ro): the number of people 1 infected person will spread the disease to during the infectious phase of disease life cycle

58
Q

• Identify host and microbial factors that can influence microbial colonization in/on a host.

A

Virulent/microbial factors that influence colonizationL

1) slimy capside
2) long/strong pili for adhence
3) nutrients from host cell

Host efforts to prevent infection:

1) phagocytes
2) sweeping pathogens aways (UTI)
3) strave microbes

59
Q

• Describe the basic mechanism and the significances of microbial adhesion.

A

direct lateral adhesion using pili/slimy capsid/disguizing yourself- usually must have adhesins that bind to host receptors. If you have huge numbers of pathogens this is not as important

dissemination: spreading to distant sites using host systems (circulatory, neuronal, lymphatic, respiratory, etc)

60
Q

• Explain the determinants and significances of microbial invasiveness and tissue tropism in microbial pathogenesis.

A

tissue tropism is the specific type of environment/host cells that a pathogen like to encounter to increase their ability to spread. factors to be considered include

1) temperature
2) pH
3) cell receptor type

61
Q

• Explain the possible clinical outcomes from an infection.

A

1) asymptomatic- infection is flushed or destroyed (can occur during colonization phase OR after infection phase)
2) latent infection- no harm to host, infection becomes part of normal flora or integrates into host cells
3) pathogenicity

infection crosses the theshold number of organism and starts becoming symptomatic

62
Q

• Explain the roles of innate and adapted host immune responses in clearing an infection, and give examples of microbial strategies in evading immune defense.

A

innate: pH, flushing, shedding, temperature, skin
adapted: phagocytes, immune system (haha)

63
Q

• Explain the biological processes responsible for tissue damage in an infection. (3)

A

microbe pathogenic activity

1) secrete toxins or invasins
2) lysing cells
3) stop cell growth

64
Q

Chlamydiae (list 2 species)

A

Chlamydiae trachomatis- an obligate intracellular bacteria that is the most common cause of STD.

Chlamydiae pneumoniae- an obligate intracellular bacteria that causes atypical pneumonia

65
Q

Mycoplasmas

A
  • causes atypical (walking pneumonia) and is transmitted by aerosols
  • is resistant to penicillin and other cell wall antibiotics
  • requires sterols to live
  • do not have cell walls
66
Q

Rickettsiae

A

an obligate intracellular bacteria that causues EPIDEMIC TYPHIS (lice)and ROCKY MOUNTAIN SPOTTED FEVER (tick)

(uses arthropod vector)

67
Q

Treponema pallidum

A

(syphilis)

an type of spirochete bacteria that is an STD

FLEXIBLE CELL WALL

68
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi

A

Lyme disease

a type of spirochete bacteria that is tick transmitted

FLEXIBLE CELL WALL

69
Q

Leptospira so (leptospirosis)

A

a spirochete bacteria with a flexible cell wall

also zoonotic

70
Q

mycobacterium

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

  • stain red by acid-fast stain
  • a filamentous bacteria
71
Q

example of a gram (+) aerobic bacteria

A

nocardia

72
Q

an example of a gram (+) strict anaerobe

A

actinomyces

73
Q

streptococcus

A

gram (+) cocci; subdivided into groups based of hemolysis pattern

examples: pharyngitis, pneumonia, soft tissue infections

74
Q

staphylococcus

A

a gram (+) cocci that is salt resistant

causes soft tissue infections and TOXIC shocks

75
Q

Neisseria. Gives two species examples.

A

a gram (-) diplococci

  • include normal flori of moth and pharynx
    1) neisseria gonorrhoeae -std
    2) neisseria meningiditis- meningitis
76
Q

corynebacterium (2 speicies)

A

non spore forming gram (+) rods

corynebacterium diphtheria

corynebacterium listeria

77
Q

bacillus

A

aerobic,spore-forming, gram (+) rods

78
Q

clostridium

A

strict anaerobes, spore forming, gram (+) rods

79
Q

E coli

A

gram (-) rods

ENTERIC BACTERIA

enterobacteriaceae family

causes diarrhea and sepsis

80
Q

vibrio

A

cholera

gram (-) rods

ENTERIC BACTERIA

non-enterobacteriaceae family

81
Q

pseudomonas

A

gram (-) rods

NON-ENTERIC

found in aqueous environment, opportunistic infections

82
Q

haemophilus

A

gram (-) rods

non-enteric

(sp?) cocobacilli, fastidious, meningitis

83
Q

neutrophils

A

granulocytes

multiple lobes (3-4)

stain dark purple and lilac

involved in acute inflammation and bacterial infections

first to be recruited to scene

make up 60% of WBC

phagocytic activity, specifically target bacteria

84
Q
A