B1 Flashcards

1
Q

List the clinical features ( S&S) of pneumonia ( at least 4 )

A

Symptoms
- Hyperpyrexia ( > 38C)
- Pleuritic chest pain
- Dyspnoea
- Haemoptysis
- Cough with mucopurulent sputum : Rusty sputum - pneumococcus
- Loss of appetite
- Fatigue , malaise , muscle aches
- Sinusitis , URI ( Legionella )
- Nausea and vomiting
- Diarrhoea ( Legionella )
- Chills and rigors

Signs
- Fever
- Hypotension
- Tachypnoea
- Confusion
- Tachycardia , bradycardia
- Central cyanosis
- Use of accessory respiratory muscles : Scalene muscle , SCM , Pectoralis major , trapezius , external, intercostal
-Signs of consolidation : Diminished chest expansion , Dull percussion note , Increased tactile vocal fremitus / vocal resonance , vocal, Bronchial breathing , Pleural rub
- Signs of pleural effusion : Stony dullness on percussion
- Herpes labialise : In pneumococcal infections

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2
Q

List lab investigations for pneumonia

A

1) Complete blood count ( CBC ) with differential leukocyte count
- to check MCV , MCH , MCHC , leukocytosis etc

2) Blood culture and sensitivity
- check bactermia
- done prior to antibiotics administration

3) Chest X - ray
- shows consolidation , pleural effusion , collapse , hilar lymphadenopathy

4) Sputum tests
- Gram stains
- Culture of colonies

5) Pulse oximetry
- see O2 saturation

6) Bronchoscopy

7) PCR

8) Serology

9) CT scan

10) ABG determination
- see pH of blood , paO2 , etc

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3
Q

State some complication of pneumonia

A

1) Lung abscess / empyema ( abscess in pleural space )

2) Septicemia , bacteremia
- leads to meningitis , endocarditis , septic arthritis , multi-organ failure

3) Difficulty breathing and ARDS

4) Collapse of the affected lobe / segment

5)Circulatory and respiratory failure -> shock

6) Thromboembolic disease

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4
Q

The mnemonic (…………) can be used as prognostic marker for community-acquired pneumonia

A
  • CURB-65
    C - Confusion
    U - serum urea <7mmol /L
    R - respiratory rate > 30 / min
    B - diastolic BP< 60mmHg
    65 - > 65 years of age
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5
Q

State some predisposing factor to pneumonia

A

1) Elderly

2) Infants

3)Immunocompromised / immunosuppressed

4) Cigarette smokers

5) Alcoholics
- via vomit aspiration

6) COPD , asthmatics , CF , bronchiectasis

7) Dysphagic people
- stroke , dementia or other neurologic conditions

8) Heart disease , liver cirrhosis , diabetes

9) ICU patients

10 ) Nursing home patients

11) IV drug users : Staph .aureus infection

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6
Q

COPD is characterised by persistent airflow limitation, usually progressive & not fully reversible with an enhanced chronic inflammatory response in the airways & lung in response to noxious particles and gases.

It includes ( ………… ) & ( ………….. )

A

COPD is characterised by persistent airflow limitation, usually progressive & not fully reversible with an enhanced chronic inflammatory response in the airways & lung in response to noxious particles and gases.

It includes ( chronic bronchitis ) & ( emphysema )

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7
Q

Chronic bronchitis is defined as a ( …………………………………… )
Emphysema is the ( …………………………………………………. )

A

Chronic bronchitis is defined as a ( chronic , productive cough on most days for 3 months per year for at least 2 successive years )

Emphysema is the ( abnormal & permanent enlargement of airways distal to the terminal bronchioles that is accompanied by destruction of the airspace walls )

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8
Q

State the etiological factors of COPD

A

1) Smoking , second hand smoking & air pollution

2) Occupational hazards : ( dust , silica , chemical fumes )

3) Low birth weight

4) Bronchial hyper-responsiveness

5) Alpha- antitrypsin-1 deficiency ( elastase inhibitor , elastase destroys elastin in RT )

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9
Q

Describe the clinical features of COPD

A

1) Chronic productive cough

2) Difficultly breathing / exerted dyspnoea
- progressive dyspnoea : chronic bronchitis
- Constant dyspnoea : emphysema

3) Cyanosis

4) Chronic chest infections

5) Weight loss , tiredness

6 ) Pedal edema
- If Cor pulmonare occurs

7) Barrel- chest
- chest wall in AP plane increase in size

8) Expiratory pursed-lip breathing

9) Signs of CO2 retention
- flapping tremors ( asterixis )
- bonding pulse
- obtundation ( less than full alertness )

10) Signs of rt heart failure
- pedal edema
- ascites
- hepatomegaly
- JVP

11) Resonant percussion note

12 Crackles at lung bass

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10
Q

Describe the investigation of COPD

A

1) Spirometry
- FEV1 <80 % and FEV1/FVC <70% strongly suggest COPD

2) CXR
- shows bullae ( large areas with absence of lung markings )
- hypertranslucent lung field & flattened diaphragm
- chest shows hyperexpansion

3) Arterial blood gas analysis
- shows hypoxia and hypercapnia

4) Bronchiodilator trial
- after administering B2 agonist , if spirometry shows > 15% improvement in FRV1 -> bronchial asthma
- if < 15% improvement -> COPD

5) Culture & sensitivity of sputum

6) AAT deficiency screening
- done in young pt . with family history

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11
Q

Describe the treatment of COPD

A

1) Long term oxygen therapy (LTOT )

2) Smoking cessation

3) Bronchodilators

4) Oral corticosteroids
- to decrease freq. of acute exacerbation
- chronic use not recommended

5) Antibiotics is superadded infection occurs

6) Pulmonary rehab

7) Surgery
- lung reduction , transplant

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12
Q

State precipitating factors of asthma

A

A) Genetics : play more of a role in childhood asthma

B) Enviromental : pet dander , pollen m cigarette smoke , fungi , stress
- plays more of a role in adults / elderly asthma

C) Medicine
- B-blockers cause bronchospasm by inhibiting B2 receptors
- NSAIDs inhibit COX , diverting arachidonic acid production to LOX pathway , producing asthmogenic leukotriene
- oral contraceptives , cholinergic agents

D) Latex allergy

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13
Q

State the clinical features of asthma

A

Symptoms
1) Recurrent episodes of wheezing
2) Breathlessness
3) Chest tightness
4) Cough
5) Diurnal pattern
- symptoms & lung function worse in early morning

Signs
1) Tachycardia
2) Tachypnoea
3) Use of accessory respiratory muscle
4) Hyper-inflated chest
5) Hyper-resonant percussion
6) Breath sounds ( harsh vesicular breathing with prolonged expiration )
7) wheeze
8) Eosinophilia

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14
Q

Describe the investigation of asthma

A

1) Pulmonary function test

2) Peak expiratory flow rate
- measured using a peak flow meter which measure the max velocity of air expelled by an individual
- shows lower than normal value

3) Spirometry
- FEV1 <80%
- FEV1 / FVC <70%
- Following administration of bronchodilator , an improvement of at least 15% is diagnostic of bronchial asthma

4) CXR
- normal , but may show hyper inflated chest

5) Sputum differential eosinophil count>2%

6) CBC
- Shows eosinophilia

7) ABG analysis

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15
Q

Describe the management of asthma

A

1) Give O2
2) Minimize exposure of allergens
3) Cease smoking

4) Step-wise smoking
Step 1 : SABA ( salbutamol , terbutaline )
Step 2 : SABA + low dose ICS ( beclomethasone , budesonide , fluticasone )
Step 3 : SABA + LABA ( salmeterol ) + low dose ICS
Step 4 : SABA + LABA + high dose ICS / theophylline / LT antagonist
Step 5 : SABA + LABA + high dose ICS+ OCS

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16
Q

Describe the Pathogenesis of tuberculosis

A
  • infection through inhalation of aerosolised droplet nuclei containing Mycobacterium tuberculosis or ingesting non sterilised milk (M. Bovis )
  • m/o lodges into the alveoli
  • leads to recruitment of macrophages & lymphocytes
  • Macrophages transform into epitheloid cells and Langhans cell , forming a tuberculous granuloma
  • granulomas aggregate to form Ghon focus in the periphery of the lung
  • the primary complex get encased in a fibrous capsule which limits spread of bacilli ( latent TB)
  • the Ghon’s complex may also undergo fibrosis or calcification & form Ranke complex
  • if bacilli managed to spread hematogenously -> dormancy in other organs
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17
Q

Describe the clinical features of tuberculosis

A

Symptoms
- haemoptysis
- chronic cough
- fever and chills
- weight loss and weakness ( consumption )
- dyspnoea
- pleuritic chest pain
- nights sweats

Signs
- lymphadenopathy
- post - tussive crackles
- fever
- signs of consolidation
- unresolved pneumonia
- pneumothorax
- pleural effusion

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18
Q

Ghon’s focus is seen in ( ……………… ) and located at the ( ……………….. )

Simon focus is seen in ( ………………… ) and located at the (…………………. )

A

Ghon’s focus is seen in ( primary TB) and located at the ( middle or lower lobes )

Simon focus is seen in ( secondary TB ) and located at the ( apex of upper lobes as this is where there is highest concentration of O2 and where aerobic bacteria can thrive )

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19
Q

Describe the management of TB

A

Intensive phase ( HRZEP)
- take drugs daily or 3 x per week for 2 mths
- isoniazid 300 mg + rifampin 450mg + pyrazinamide 1500 mg + ethambutol 800 mg + pyridoxine 10mg

Continuous phase ( HRP)
- take drugs daily / 3 x weekly for 4 mths
- isoniazids 300 mg + rifampin 450mg + pyridoxine 10mg

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20
Q

Pott’s disease typically affects the ( …………………………… )

A

Pott’s disease typically affects the ( thoracic and lumbrosacral spine , knees and hips )

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21
Q

Describe the manifestation of TB in oral cavity

A
  • appears as Stellate ulcers on dorsum of tongue
  • also include palate , lips , buccal mucosa , gingiva , palatine tonsils , floor of mouth

-ulcers may present as non-healing ulcers or long duration , painless ulcers

  • cervical lymphadenopathy ( matted lymph nodes ) + draining sinus
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22
Q

State some common causes of pleural effusion ( Transudative , exudative types )

A

Transudative ( protein <30g/L )
I) Congestive heart failure
II) Hypoproteinemia ( nephrotic syndrome , liver cirrhosis , malnutrition )
III) myxedema
IV) pericardial disease

Exudative ( protein >30g/L )
I) Tuberculosis
II) Malignancy
III) Acute rheumatic fever
IV) Pneumonia
V) pulmonary embolism
VI) SLE
VII) Uremia
VII) pancreatitis
IX) hemothorax , chylothorax
X)Meig’s syndrome

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23
Q

State the clinical feature ( S&S ) of pleural effusion

A

Symptoms
- dyspnoea
- cough with sputum
- pleuritic chest pain
- Hemoptysis
- fever
- weight loss
- trauma
- history of cancer , cardiac surgery and other symptoms related to the underlying cause

Signs
- blunting of costophrenic angle on CXR
- asymmetric chest expansion ( diminished on affected side )
- tracheal deviation to opposite side
- egophony above the level of pleural effusion
- stony dullness on percussion
- absent tactile fremitus
- decreased / absent breath sounds
- localised pleural friction rub
- raised JVP
- ascites
- peripheral edema
- unilateral leg swelling
- Tachypnoea

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24
Q

( ……………….. ) on percussion is a characteristic finding of pleural effusion , as well as ( …………………. ) on chest X-ray.

A

( Stony dullness ) on percussion is a characteristic finding of pleural effusion , as well as ( blunting of the costophrenic angle ) on chest X-ray.

Inspection - Tachypnoea
Palpatation- reduce expansion on R
- Trachea and apex may be moved to L
Percussion - stony dull
- R mid and lower zones

Auscultation - absent breath sounds ash vocal resonance R base
- Bronchial breathing or crackles above effusion

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25
Q

Describe the management of pleural effusion

A

1) Aspiration of pleural fluids ( thoracentesis )
- done to alleviate dyspnoea

2) Treat the underlying cause

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26
Q

The commonest cancer in men ( ……………… )

The commonest cancer in women is ( ……………… ) with ( ………………… ) being second

A

The commonest cancer in men ( lung cancer )

The commonest cancer in women is ( breast cancer ) with ( lung cancer ) being second

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27
Q

The common sites of metastasis for lung cancer are :

A

Liver - most common
Adrenals
Brain
Bone
Kidney

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28
Q

Metastasis of kidney cancer to the lungs present itself as ( …………………….. )

A

Metastasis of kidney cancer to the lungs present itself as ( “cannon ball” lesion / cannon ball metastasis)

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29
Q

State some symptoms of bronchiogenic carcinoma / lung cancer

A

1) Due to primary effect of tumor
- dyspnoea
- cough with streaks of blood in sputum
- pleuritic chest pain
- pleuritic effusion
- wheezing
- fever

2) Due to invasion into thorax
- dysphagia ( compression on oesophagus )
- dysphonia / hoarseness ( compression of laryngeal nerves )
- chest pain
- SVC syndrome

3) Due to metastasis to distant sites
-lymphadenopathy
- bone pain
- jaundice
- kidney failure
- neurological deficits ( seizures , dizziness , headaches )

4) systemic symptoms
- paraneoplastic syndrome — Cushing’s , hypercalcemia
- anorexia , weight loss , weakness
- clubbing of finger

5) Horner’ syndrome

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30
Q

Lung cancer can be divided into 2 :

( …………………..) & (……………………… )

( …………………… ) can be further divided into 3 types ( ……………………………………… )

( ………………………… ) occurs more frequently than ( …………………… ) and they grow fairly slowly , compared to ( ………………. ) which grow faster but occur less often.

A

Lung cancer can be divided into 2 :

( small cell lung cancer ( SCLC) ) & ( non- small cell lung cancer ( NSCLC) )

( Non- small cell lung cancer ) can be further divided into 3 types ( adenocarcinoma , large cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma )

( Non - small cell lung cancers) occurs more frequently than ( small cell lung cancers) and they grow fairly slowly , compared to ( SCLCs ) which grow faster but occur less often.

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31
Q

In tuberculous lymphadenitis , the ( ……………………….. ) group of lymph nodes become enlarged and matted.

It can lead to a ( …………………. ) abscess and sinus formation

A

In tuberculous lymphadenitis , the ( supraclavicular and posterior cervical ) group of lymph nodes become enlarged and matted.

It can lead to a ( collar stud) abscess and sinus formation

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32
Q

(……………………..) is a complex agent of opportunistic TB infection

A

( M . Avium complex ) is a complex agent of opportunistic TB infection

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33
Q

Describe the Jone’s criteria of acute rheumatic fever

A

JONES CRITERIA
Major Manifestation
- Carditis ( friction rub , murmur , cardiomegaly , CHF )
- Arthritis ( migratory polyarthritis , swollen , red , tender )
- Chorea ( this describe inflammation of the central nervous system )
- Subcutaneous nodules ( lumps under the skin )
- Erythema marginatum ( rash )

Minor manifestation
- Clinical : Fever , Arthralgia , History of rheumatic fever or rheumatic heart disease
- Laboratory : ESR & C -reactive proteins raised , leukocytosis
: Characteristic ECG changes - ( Prolonged P-R interval

Diagnosis is made when :
I) 2 major criteria is met
II) 1 major + 2 minor + history of strep. Infection

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34
Q

Acute rheumatic fever usually affects children and young adults b/w the age of ( ………………… ) with evidence of preceding ( ………………… ) pharyngitis.

A

Acute rheumatic fever usually affects children and young adults b/w the age of ( 5 - 15 years ) with evidence of preceding ( group A streptococcal ) pharyngitis.

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35
Q

In acute rheumatic fever , ( …………….. ) can be given to relieve the symptoms of arthritis rapidly , and a response within 24hrs helps to confirm the diagnosis.

A

In acute rheumatic fever , ( aspirin ) can be given to relieve the symptoms of arthritis rapidly , and a response within 24hrs helps to confirm the diagnosis.

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36
Q

Elaborate the lab diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever

A

-WBC count and ESR is elevated

  • Anti Streptolysin- O titer is elevated in 95 of patients -> 200 units in adults and > 300 units in children.
  • C -reactive protein is positive
  • Cardiac enzymes levels may increase in severe carditis ( These include the creative kinase ( CK ) & the proteins troponin I ( Tnl ) and troponin T ( TNT ) are linked with injury of the heart muscle.
  • Throat cultures continue to show presence of GABS ( group A beta haemolytic streptococci ) ; however they usually occur in small number. Isolating them is difficult.
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37
Q

Describe the treatment of ARF

A

1) Bed rest until inflammation subsides

2) Antibiotic therapy
- IM benzathine penicilin ( 1.2m units ) every 3-4 wks
- Oral penicillin ( 250mg ) 4x daily for 10 days
- erythromycin or sulfadiazine if allergic to penicillin

3) Anti-inflammatory
- aspirin
- corticosteroids

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38
Q

Describe the long term prophylaxis of ARF :

1) In RF w/o carditis
2) In RF w/ carditis
3) In RF + carditis + valvular disease

A

Benzathine penicillin ( 1.2 m units ) every 3-4 wks IM
Or
Oral penicillin 250mg 2x/day
If allergic - erythromycin 250 mg 2x / day orally

1) Prophylaxis should be done for 5 years or until 21 yrs of age ( whichever is longer )
2) 10 years or into adulthood
3) 10 years since last episode or until 40 y of age ( sometimes lifelong )

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39
Q

Describe the diagnosis f infective endocarditis

A

Duke’s CRITERIA
Major Criteria
- 2 separate positive blood cultures with microorganism typical for infective endocarditis ( viridans streptococci , streptococcus bovis , HÁČEK group , staphylococcus aureus , enterococci )
- Echocardiographic evidence of endocardial involvement ( typical valvular lesion : vegetations , abscess or partial dehiscence of a prosthetic valve )

Minor criteria
- Predisposition : predisposing factor heart condition or IV drug use
- Temperature > 38C
- Vascular phenomena : major arterial emboli , septic pulmonary infarcts , mycotic intracranial haemorrhage , conjunctival haemorrhage , Janeway lesion
Immunological phenomena :glomerulonephrotis , Osler nodes , Roth spots , rheumatoid factor.
Microbiological evidence : positive blood culture but not meeting major criterion , or serologic evidence of active infection with organism consistent with infective endocarditis

^^ 2 major criteria , 1 major criteria and 3 minor criteria , 5 minor criteria
^^ Blood cultures should be taken at 3 separate times ( 30 m apart ) at 3 different sites , before commencement of antibiotic therapy

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40
Q

State some high risk condition of infective endocarditis which require antibiotics prophylaxis

A

1) Prosthetic valves
2) Prior IE
3) Congenital cyanosis heart disease
4) Patent ductus arteriosus
5) Aortic stenosis , aortic regurgitation , MR , MS with MR
6) Coarctation of aorta
7) Ventricular septal defect ( hole on heart )
8) Surgical systemic-pulmonary shunts
9) Cardiac transplant recipients who develop valvulopathy
10) Rheumatic heart disease

41
Q

Lists signs & symptoms of infection endocarditis.

A

Signs
- Fever
- Cardiac consequences : Heart murmur , heart failure , blocks

Nonspecific signs : Anemia , Petechiae , Subungual or “splinter” haemorrhages, clubbing , splenomegaly , subconjunctival haemorrhages , Neurologic changes - meningitis , intracranial bleed

More specific signs : Osler’s Nodes , Janeway lesions , Roth Spots.

42
Q

Describe lab investigations of IE

A

1) Blood cultures
- 3 samples from 3 different sites and 3 different times ( 30m intervals ) to assess for constant bacteremia
- should be done before antibiotics treatment

2) Electrocardiography
- to detect conduction disturbances

3) Echocardiography
- to detect vegetation , valvular dysfunction ,abscess formation

4) CXR
- detect cardiomegaly , heart failure , pulmonary edema

5) Raised CRP , ESR

6) Leucocytosis

7) Microscopic hematuria, proteinuria

8) Normocytic normochromic anemia

43
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of infective endocarditis

A
  • usually occur in pre-existing cardiac condition where there is turbulent blood flow ( subacute IE -> S. viridans ) + bacteremia , but may also occur in healthy cardiac tissue ( acute IE -> S. aureus )
  • high pressure blood flow injuries the heart valves , endocardium -> lead to accumulation of platelet & fibrin , leading to formation of thrombus
  • Bacteria introduced to bloodstream during surgical procedures ( dental , urological, skin ) leads to colonisation of the sterile vegetation
  • vegetation may cause obstruction leading to damage of valves & abscess or embolism.
44
Q

State the causative agents of :
Subacute IE : ( ………………………………………… )
Acute IE : ( …………………)
IE due to IV drug abuse : ( ………………… )
Prosthetic valve endocarditis : ( …………………….. )

A

State the causative agents of :
Subacute IE : ( S . viridans ( S.mitis , S . sanguis ) , HÁČEK group , Candida , rickettsia , chlamydia , anaerobes )
Acute IE : ( S . aureus )
IE due to IV drug abuse : ( S. aureus , C .albicans )
Prosthetic valve endocarditis : ( S. epidermis )

45
Q

State the areas for auscultation for :

1) Apex beat : ( ………………….. )
2) Tricuspid : ( ………………….. )
3) Pulmonary area : ( ………………….. )
4) Aortic area : ( ………………………)

A

State the areas for auscultation for :

1) Apex beat : ( 5th LICS near mid-clavicular line )
2) Tricuspid : ( 5th LICS near sternum )
3) Pulmonary area : ( 2nd LICS near sternum )
4) Aortic area : ( 2nd RICS near sternum )

46
Q

State the importance of the sternal angle of Louis

A

-site of aortic arch
- site of carina of trachea
- site of attachment of 2nd rib
- site of bifurcation of pulmonary trunk
- location of left recurrent laryngeal nerve

47
Q

Describe the lab investigations of coronary artery disease

A

1) Coronary angiography
- to demonstrate anatomy & patency of arteries

2) ECG
- shows evidence of ischemia ( ST depression , T wave inversion ) , infarction ( ST elevation , Q waves ) , Hypertrophy of ventricles or arrhythmias

3) Exercise tolerance test

4) CXR
- signs of cardiac failure ( cardiomegaly , pleural effusion , pulmonary edema )

5) Echocardiogram

6) Cardiac enzyme assay
- Troponin I , Troponin T
- raised levels indicate MI

7 ) Coronary flow reserve

8) Myocardial fractional flow reverse

9) Screening for risk factors of atherosclerosis ( serum lipids , glucose levels , HbA1c , CRP , CBC )

48
Q

Describe the treatment of IHD

A

Lifestyle changes
- exercise
- stop smoking
- adopt healthy diet rich in fruits & vege
- maintain healthy body weight
- less alcohol consumption

Medications
- antiplatelet drugs ( Clopidogrel , aspirin )
- antihypertensive ( beta-blocker , ACEi )
- statin drugs
- oral antidiabetic agents to maintain blood glucose ( metformin , glicazide )
- CCBs ( verapamil , diltiazem , amlodipine )

Surgical intervention
- coronary artery bypass graft
- coronary angioplasty

49
Q

State the treatment and prevention of angina

A

Prevent
- avoid heavy meals
- avoid stress
- avoid extremely cold weather
- stop smoking , drinking alcohol
- maintain ideal body weight
- exercise but with caution

Treatment
-low dose aspirin or Clopidogrel ( 75mg ) daily
- sublingual GTN ( 0.4-0.6 ) for acute relief , for long term : Isosorbide nitrate 10-20mg 8th hourly
- B-blocker
- CCB
- antifibrinolytics ( streptokinase , TPA ) in case of MI

50
Q

( ……………………… ) angina occurs on exertion and is relieved by rest and medication. The pain usually does not increase in frequency and usually lasts for a short duration ( 1-5mins , <5min usually )

( ………………. ) angina occurs at rest and is not relieved by rest . It presents with increasing frequency and intensity of pain and can last up 30 mins

Angina occurs due to ischemia of the heart secondary to CAD , If the atherosclerotic plaque ruptures , it leads to platelet activation , adhesion & aggregation which leads to occlusion of the coronary artery & may lead to MI.

A

( Stable ) angina occurs on exertion and is relieved by rest and medication. The pain usually does not increase in frequency and usually lasts for a short duration ( 1-5mins , <5min usually )

( Unstable ) angina occurs at rest and is not relieved by rest . It presents with increasing frequency and intensity of pain and can last up 30 mins

Angina occurs due to ischemia of the heart secondary to CAD , If the atherosclerotic plaque ruptures , it leads to platelet activation , adhesion & aggregation which leads to occlusion of the coronary artery & may lead to MI.

51
Q

State precipitating factors of angina

A
  1. Intense emotional stress
  2. Exercise & exertion
  3. Heavy meals
  4. Extremely cold weather
  5. Thyroid disease
  6. Nightmares ( nocturnal angina )
  7. Anemia
52
Q

Describe the classification of hypertension

A

(Blood Pressure Category) ( Systolic mmHg) (Diastolic mmHg )
I) Normal , less than 120 and less than 80
II) Elevated , 120-129 and Less than 80
III) high blood pressure ( hypertension ) stage 1 , 130-139 or 80-89
IV) High blood pressure ( Hypertension ) stage 2 , 140 OR HIGHER or 90 or higher
V) Hypertensive crisis , higher than 180 and/or higher than 120

53
Q

State the cause of hypertension

A

1) Essential hypertension
- genetic predisposition , ethnicity , gender
- enviromental factors : high salt intake , obesity , diabetes ( insulin resistance ) , high BMI , high alcohol intake , sympathetic overactivity, smoking m sedentary lifestyle.

2)Secondary hypertension ( ABCDE)
- hyperaldoteronism
- bad kidney / renal failure : glomerulonephritis , pyelonephritis
- coarctation of aorta
- drugs : oral contraceptives , sympathetic agents , corticosteroids
- endocrine disturbance : pheochromocytoma , Cushing syndrome , acromegaly , hyperthyroidism
-pregnancy
- sleep apnea

54
Q

State the complication of hypertension

A

1) CVS manifestations
I) left ventricular Hypertrophy
II) Left heart failure
III) Accelerated atherosclerosis -> coronary artery disease , periphery artery disease

2) On brain ( cerebralvascular disease )
I) stroke
II) transient ischemic attacks
III) hypertensive encephalopathy

3) On kidney
- kidney failure

4) On eyes
- hypertensive retinopathy -> retinal haemorrhage -> blindness

55
Q

State some signs of consolidation eg in pneumonia

A

1) Aegophony

2) Dullness on percussion

3) Diminished chest expansion

4) Increased tactile vocal fremitus
- Tactile fremitus refers to the palpable vibration of the chest wall that results from. The transmission of sound vibration through the lungs tissue to the chest wall

5) Pleural rub

6) Whispering pectoriloquy

56
Q

( ……………………. ) occurs when blood pressure spikes — BP 180-220 / 120-140mmHg but there is no damage to body organs
It occurs on patient with history of HTN who ( ……………………….. ) or those who ( …………………..)

Hypertensive emergencies occur when there is damage to organs . For examples : ( ……………………………………)

A

( Hypertensive urgency ) occurs when blood pressure spikes — BP 180-220 / 120-140mmHg but there is no damage to body organs
It occurs on patient with history of HTN who ( fails to comply with BP medications ) or those who ( have been undermedicated)

Hypertensive emergencies occur when there is damage to organs . For examples : (
I) Hypertensive encephalopathy
II) Acute renal failure
III) Myocardial infarction , Acute left ventricular dysfunction
IV) heart failure with pulmonary edema
V) eclampsia
VI) microangiopathic haemolytic anemia )

57
Q

State some causes of congestive heart failure

A

1) IHD -> MI

2) Respiratory conditions
- COPD , bronchietasis leads to cor pulmonare

3) Valvular heart disease
- stenosis , regurgitation

4) Congenital heart disease
- ventricular septal defects
- patent ductus arteriosus

5) Constrictive pericarditis

6) Hypertensive heart disease

7) Infective endocarditis

8) Cardiomyopathy

O) Output failure
- anemia , thyrotoxicosis , pregnancy

58
Q

Describe about Herpes zoster / shingles ( etiopathogenesis , age distribution , c/f , complications )

A

-Varicella Zoster Virus lies latent in sensory ( DRG , trigeminal ) ganglia after chickenpox infection -> reactivate due to immunosuppression , effect of medication , radio/chemotherapy

  • usually occurs late ( 50-60yrs )
  • C/F :
    I) Vesticular rash erupts in a dermatomal pattern ( but do not cross the midline )
    II) Itching
    III) Pain , burning sensation
  • Complications
    I) post-herpetic neuralgia
    II) Ramsay-Hunt syndrome ( CNVII involvement )
    III) Labryrinthitis -> hearing , balance problems
    IV) Oral shingles
    V) Opthalmic shingles -> vision loss
    VI) Granulomatous angitis

Shingles - Infections - MSD Manual Consumer Version

59
Q

Describe some oral manifestation of HIV/AIDS

A

1) Oral , oropharyngeal candidiasis
- most common manifestation
- angular cheilitis can occur due to Candida infections

2) Hairy leukoplakia
- vertical white striations on lateral border of tongue
- usually asymptomatic
- caused by EBV

3) Oral ulcers
- due to HSV, CMV , aphthous ulcers , histoplasmosis

4) Kaposi sarcoma
- reddish - purple nodule / papules
- affects palate , gums , faucets or tongue

60
Q

Describe the management of HIV/ AIDS

A

1) HAART ( Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy )
- 2 NNRTI + 1NRTI / PI / FI
- ex : didanosine + lamivudine + nevirapine / lopinavir / raltegralvir

2) Early detection and screening
- in high risk individuals , pregnant mothers , transfusion products

3) Use sterile needles

4) Safe sex

5) PPE

61
Q

Describe the investigation of HIV /AIDS

A

1) Western blot assay
- more specific diagnostic test
- gold standard but expensive and sometimes yield indeterminate results

2) ELISA
- diagnostic test

3) p24 antigen & antibody screening

4) PCR

5) CD4 count
- >500 cells / mm3 : normal
- 200-500 cells /mm3 : low risk of developing major opportunistic infections
- <2000 cells/mm3 : severe immune suppression and a high risk of AIDS - defining conditions

62
Q

State common opportunistic infections in HIV/ AIDS

A

1) Candidiasis

2) EBV - oral hairy leukoplakia

3)Penumocystis jirovecii - pneumonia

4) Pulmonary TB

5) Herpes simplex virus infection
6) Herpes zoster

63
Q

Describe the clinical features of heart failure

A

Symptoms
- peripheral edema , ascites
- hepatomegaly
- anorexia , nausea , vomiting
- jaundice
- fatigue
- dyspnoea ,Orthopnea , paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea
- cough , expectoration , pink frothy sputum

Signs
- raised JVP
- pitting edema
- tachycardia
- Tachypnoea
- peripheral cyanosis
- crackles
- cardiomegaly
- cold clammy skin

64
Q

The histological hallmark of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is the presence of ( ………………………… )

A

The histological hallmark of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is the presence of ( Reed Sternberg cells — large , malignant lymphoid cells of B cells origin )

65
Q

The hallmark histologic finding of acute myeloid leukaemia is the presence of ( ………….. )

A

The hallmark histologic finding of acute myeloid leukaemia is the presence of ( Auer rods )

66
Q

Leukaemia are a malignant disorder of the ( …………………… ) stem cell compartment

It is associated with an increase in the number of white cells in the ( …………………………. )

A

Leukaemia are a malignant disorder of the ( hematopoietic) stem cell compartment

It is associated with an increase in the number of white cells in the ( bone marrow and peripheral blood )

Hematopoietic : red cells , platelets , granulocytes , platelets

67
Q

State the main differences of acute and chronic leukaemia

A

Acute leukaemia -> proliferation of primitive stem cells but differentiation is affected -> accumulation of blasts in BM & peripheral blood

Chronic leukaemia -> proliferation of primitive stem cells but differentiation is not affected -> accumulation of mature white cells

AML - myeloblasts seen
CML -> mature myeloid cells seen
ALL -> lymphoblasts seen
CLL -> mature lymphocytes seen

68
Q

The characteristics genetic anomaly of chronic myeloid leukaemia ( CML ) is the ( ……………………. )

A

The characteristics genetic anomaly of chronic myeloid leukaemia ( CML ) is the ( Philadelphia chromosome )

Abnormal fusion gene -> BCR- ABl fusion gene which codes for a protein with tyrosine kinase activity -> cells can proliferate even in absence of regulating signals

69
Q

Describe the lumbar puncture ( purpose , site of insertion )

A

Function :
1) Collect CSF sample to investigate infections ( encephalitis , meningitis ) , subarachnoid haemorrhage and inflammatory conditions ( sarcoidosis , MS , cerebral lupus )
2) Indirect measurement of intracranial pressure

Site of insertion
- between spinous processes of L3 and L4 , into the subarachnoid space ( lumbar cistern )

  • Lumbar puncture ( spinal tap ) - Mayo Clinic
70
Q

Describe the brain freeze / sphenopalatine ganglioneuralgia / cold stimulus headache

A

-occurs when a person takes cold food / beverage
- leads to rapid vasoconstriction of blood vessels in the palate , followed by rapid vasodilation
- rapid change in vessel diameter lead to pain -> transmitted via trigeminal nerve to brain causing a headache

  • eased by :
    I) eating / drinking something warm
    II) putting tongue to roof of palate
  • increased prevalence in people suffering from migraines
71
Q

State the signs and symptoms of meningism

A

1) Neck pain
2) Fever
3) Photophobia , photophobia
4) Headaches

5) Kernig’s sign - painful knee extension
6) Brudzinski’s sign - passive flexion of neck causes flexion of hips and knees

72
Q

State the types of headaches

A

1) Tension headaches

2) Migraine

3) Sinus headache

4) Cluster / histamine headache

5) Post-traumatic headache

6j Headache due to medication overuse

73
Q

State some causes for tracheal deviation

A

1) Away from side of lesion
- massive pleural effusion
- tumors
- pneumothorax
- cardiomegaly

2) Toward side of lesion
- collapse of lung
- fibrosis
- pneumonectomy

74
Q

State the sign and symptoms of classical dengue fever

A

Symptoms
1) fever -> sudden decrease -> warning sign
2) Headache and retro-orbital pain
3) Severe myalgia , bone pain , arthralgia
4) Nausea / vomiting
5) Maculopapular rash over face , thorax & flexor surfaces

Signs
1) Thrombocytopenia ( <100k cell/ uL)
2) Increased PT time
3) increased hematocrit
4) Leukopenia , Lymphopenia
5) Hypoproteinemia

75
Q

State the criteria for diagnosis of dengue Hemorrhagic fever ( DHF ) and dengue shock syndrome ( DSS )

A

DHF ( HEFT )
1) Thrombocytopenia <100k cells /uL
2) Hemorrhagic manifestation ( epistaxis , gum bleeding , petechia , purpura , ecchymoses , hematemesis , Melena , haematuria , menorrhagia )
3) Fever
4) Evidence of leaky capillaries ( hypoalbuninemia , effusion , elevated hematocrit 20% over baseline )

DSS
- 4 criteria of DHF and :
I) Hypotension
II) tachycardia and paradoxical Bradycardia
III) signs of decreased peripheral effusion ( capillary refill time increased )
IV) hepatomegaly
V) Hypothermia
VI) Narrow pulse pressure ( <20mmHg )

76
Q

( ……………… ) antigen detection can help to diagnose dengue fever

A

( NS1 ) antigen detection can help to diagnose dengue fever

77
Q

In dengue , ( ………….. ) should be avoided to prevent haemorrhage

A

In dengue , ( aspirin ) should be avoided to prevent haemorrhage

78
Q

Cobblestone appearance in intestinal mucosa ( due to ulceration ) appears in ( ……………… )

Pseudoployps appears in ( ………………….. )

A

Cobblestone appearance in intestinal mucosa ( due to ulceration ) appears in ( Crohn Disease )

Pseudoployps appears in ( ulcerative colitis )

79
Q

State some differences between Crohn Disease and ulcerative colitis

A

Crohn Disease : Ulcerative Colitis

Area affected :
A) All parts of GIT from mouth to anus , but most commonly distal ilium and proximal colon
B) Rectum and colon

Layers affected
A) Transmral ( mucosa -> submucosa -> muscular layer -> serous )
B) Mucosa and submucosa

Predisposing factors
A) Common in smokers
B) Common in non-smokers and ex-smokers

Epidermology
A) Common in 2nd & 3rd decade of life , but has a second peak in the 7th decade
B) Common in second and third decade of life

Clinical features
A)
- pain in lower right quadrant
- Lesions exhibit ‘skip pattern ‘
- presence of fistulations , abscess , fissures ( cobblestone appearances )
B)
- Pain in lower left quadrant
- Lesions are contiguous
- Presence of pseudopolyps

Malabsorptions syndrome
A) More common due to involvement of small intestine

B) Less common

80
Q

State complication of inflammatory bowel disease

A

1) Colon cancer

2) Toxic megacolon

3) Hemorrhage

4) Extragit complication

81
Q

State the clinical feature of haemodynamic shock

A

1) Tachycardia
- fast and threads pulse

2) Hypotension ( SBP <90mmHg)

3) Cool , clammy skin
- warm , Reddish skin in septic shock

4) Oliguria , Anuria

5) Multi-organ failure

6) Dysglycemia

7) Delirium , confusion , stupor , coma

8) Tachypnoea
-rapid and shallow breathing

9) Raised JVP in cardio genie , obstructive shock

82
Q

State the types of hemodynamic shock & some examples

A

1) Cardiogenic shock : pump failure
- MI
-valvular dysfunction
- cardiomyopathy
- arrhythmias
- overdose of Beta-blockers

2) Hypovolemic shock : intravascular volume loss
- diarrhea
- burns
-hemorrhage
- vomiting
-polyuria eg in diabetic ketoacidosis

3) Distributive shock : excessive vasodilation & impaired distribution of blood flow
- sepsis
- neurogenic shock
- anaphylaxis
- systemic inflammatory response system
- adrenal insufficiency , thyroid disease

4) Obstructive shock : physical obstruction of blood circulation & inadequate blood oxygenation
- tension pneumothorax
- cardiac tamponade
- pulmonary embolism
- aortic dissection
- air embolism

83
Q

Describe the management of haemodynamic shock

A

1) Resuscitate the patient

2) Infuse 1.0L cystalloid to treat hypotension

3) Dopamine / NE to increase BP

4) Infuse NAHCO3 to correct acidosis

5) Blood transfusions

6) Antibiotics in sepsis

7) Epi in anaphylaxis

8) Insulin in DKA

9) Steroids in adrenal crisis , myxedema coma

84
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of malaria

A

1) Intermittent fever
- tertian fever -> P.vivax , P. ovale ( 1 day gap)
- Quartan fever -> P. Malaria ( 2 day gap )
- P.falciparum has no specific pattern of fever

2) Rigor and chills , sweats

3) Headaches

4) Cough

5)Fatigue , malaise

6) Arthralgia , myalgia
- but more severe in dengue

7) Nausea , anorexia , abdominal pain , vomiting

8) Splenomegaly : due to lysis of RBC

85
Q

State the manifestation of severe malaria ( P. Falciparum)

A

1) Cerebral malaria : confusion , coma , convulsion ,neurological sign

2) Blackwater fever - haemoglobinuria due to intravascular haemolysis

3) Respiratory abnormalities
- metabolic acidosis
- respiratory distress
- Pulmonary edema

4) Massive splenomegaly

5) Nephrotic syndrome

6)Severe anemia

86
Q

Describe the malaria

A

1) Blood smears
-thin : to identify species
- thick : more sensitive

2) Normocytic normochromic anemia

3) ELISA

4) PCR

87
Q

The drugs used to treat malaria are ( …………………… )

A

The drugs used to treat malaria are ( chloroquine and quinine / quinidine )

88
Q

Describe clinical symptoms of typhoid fever

A

1) Step ladder pyrexia
- characterised by rising temperature over the course of each day that drops by the subsequent morning. The peaks and troughs rise progressively over time.

2) Maculopapular rose spots over the trunk

3) Diffuse abdominal pain and tenderness

4) Colicky right upper quadrant pain

5) Diarrhea

89
Q

State the etiology of peptic ulcer disease

A

1) Helicobacter pylori infection ( 80% of cases )
- increased HCl secretion
- increased gastronomes and pepsinogen
- decreased mucus
- decreased bicarbonate

2) Use of NSAID except coxibs
- inhibit COX-1 enzyme , loss of gastroprotective prostaglandins

3) Hyperactive secretory syndrome ( Zollinger -Ellison syndrome )
- gastrinomas in SI produce gastrin

4) Cushing ulcer
- increased intracranial pressure due to tumors , injury or infection -> stimulation of vagal nerve -> increased secretion of gastric acid -> ulcer formation

5) Curling ulcer
- seen in severe burn victims
- depleted plasma volume leads to ischemia & necrosis of gastric mucosa -> ulcer formation

6)Smoking , alcoholism , certain food
- Debatable

7) Genetics
- 1st degree relatives are more likely to have PUD

90
Q

State the clinical symptoms of peptic ulcer disease

A

1)Gnawing Epigastric pain
- may be dull , vague , or feel like hunger pains

2) Bloating

3) Nausea , vomiting

4) Water brash

5) Appetite changes , weight loss

6) Melena

7) Hematemesis

8) Stomach pain which make you up at night

9) Anemia

91
Q

State the investigation for peptic ulcer disease

A

1)Endoscopy to detect ulcerations in stomach and duodenum

2) Barium test

3) Fecal bacterial antigen assay

4) Urea breath test

5) Occult blood in stool

6) Measurement of gastric acid or serum gastrin levels

92
Q

State the complications of peptic ulcer disease

A

1) Perforations

2) Hemorrhage : leads to anemia

3) Pylori obstruction ( stenosis )
- causes absent bowel sounds

93
Q

Describe the management of peptic ulcer disease

A

1) To neutralise acid
-PPI ( Omeprazole ) , antacids , H2 receptor antagonists ( ranitidine )

2) Mucosal protective agents
- Misoprostol
- indicated in patients who cannot withdraw NSAID use

3) To eradicate H .pylori infection
- 1 PPI + 2 antibiotics
- PPI : Omeprazole , lansoprazole
- antibiotics : amoxicillin / metronidazole / clarithromycin

94
Q

Compare duodenal and gastric ulcer

A

Duodenal. : Gastric
Pain 2-3 hours after eating : Onset of pain : Pain immediately after eating
Feels better when eating or drinking : After eating or drinking. : Feels worse when eating or drinking
Eating. : Relieving factor : Vomiting
- : Effect of antacids : Not relieved by antacids

95
Q

Calcitonin is released by the ( …………………………….. )
It’s secretion is stimulated by ( ……………… ) serum calcium levels
It ( ………………… ) the serum calcium levels by ( ………………………….. )

Parathormone is released by the ( ………………….. )
It’s secretion is stimulated by ( …………) serum calcium levels
It ( …………………… ) serum calcium levels by ( ………………………………… )

A

Calcitonin is released by the ( parafollicular cells of thyroid gland )
It’s secretion is stimulated by ( high ) serum calcium levels
It ( decreases ) the serum calcium levels by ( increase its uptake by bone , increasing its excretion by kidney )

Parathormone is released by the ( parathyroid gland )
It’s secretion is stimulated by ( low ) serum calcium levels
It ( increases ) serum calcium levels by ( increase its mobilisation from the bone and increasing its reabsorption through the kidneys )

96
Q

Describe the Grave disease

A
  • autoimmune disorder
  • IgG autoantibodies ( TSH receptor antibodies ) are produced -> stimulate thyroid hormone production -> thyrotoxicosis
  • Clinical features :
    I) Ophthalmopathy
  • periorbital edema , Diplopia , exophthalmos’s , conjunctival irritation
    II) Weight loss
    III) Goiter
    IV) Heat intolerance
    V) Tremors , palpitations , irritability
    VI) Tachycardia
    VII) Palmar erythema
    VIII) Lid Lag
    IX) occur in females 30-50 y/o
97
Q

State causes of upper GI bleeding

A

1) Gastric , duodenal ulcer

2) Erosion ( NSAID , alcohol )

3) Oesophagel varies : seen in portal hypertension

4) Gastritis

5) Mallory - Weiss tear - split in esophagus caused by forceful vomiting

6) Gastric carcinoma

7) Esophagitis

8) Pancreatitis

98
Q

State causes of lower GI bleeding

A

1) Hemorrhoids

2) Colon cancer

3) Diverculitis

4) Colitis

5) Inflammatory bowel disease

6) Merkel diverticulum

99
Q

State the presentation of GI bleeding

A

1) Hematemesis
- more common in upper GI bleeding ( originate from stomach , esophagus )
- coffee -ground appearance when gastric acid converts hemoglobin -> methemoglobin

2) Melena
- more common in upper GI bleeding
- passage of black tarry stools

3) Hematochezia
- more common in lower GI bleeding
- passage of bright red blood from rectum
- common in bleeding from colon , rectum , anus

4) Fatigue , weakness , pale skin , shortness of breath -> anemia

5) Abdominal pain

6) Weight loss

7) Jaundice