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AWS Cert Exam - Solutions Associate Architect > AWS Deck 1 > Flashcards

AWS Deck 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What does S3 stand for?

A

Simple Storage Service

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2
Q

How much data can be stored without worry of underlying storage infrastructure with regards to S3?

A

Unlimited

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3
Q

How many AZ’s can S3 replicate data across?

A

At least 3 to ensure 99.99% availability and 11’ 9s of durability

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4
Q

What can objects contain? What are they like?

A

Data. They are like files.

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5
Q

What size can objects be?

A

Anywhere from 0 Bytes to 5 Terabytes

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6
Q

What do buckets tend to contain?

A

Objects

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7
Q

What can buckets contain that can in turn contain objects?

A

Folders

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8
Q

Bucket names are unique across all AWS accounts. True or False?

A

True

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9
Q

What are bucket names similar to?

A

Domain names

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10
Q

When you upload a file to S3 successfully, what will you receive?

A

An HTTP 200 code

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11
Q

What can objects be moved between?

A

Storage Classes

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12
Q

Objects cant be deleted automatically based on a schedule. True or False?

A

False

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13
Q

What do objects give?

A

Version ID’s

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14
Q

When new objects are uploaded the old objects are kept. True or False?

A

True

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15
Q

Is is possible to access limited object versions or any object versions?

A

Any

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16
Q

What happens when you delete an object?

A

The previous object is restored

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17
Q

Can versioning ever truly be turned off once it is turned on? Explain

A

No, it can only be suspended

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18
Q

Where can you only turn MFA Delete on from?

A

The AWS CLI

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19
Q

What is the only thing a root account can delete?

A

Objects

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20
Q

All new buckets are public by default. True or False? Explain

A

False, they are private by default

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21
Q

What can be turned on to track operations performed on objects?

A

Logging

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22
Q

How is access control configured? Explain how.

A

By using bucket policies and Access Control Lists

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23
Q

What are bucket policies exactly?

A

JSON documents which let you write complex control access

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24
Q

ACL’s are what method? What do you grant access to?

A

Legacy method (not deprecated). Grant access to objects and buckets with simple actions

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25
Q

What two “snow” things are a rugged container? What do they contain?

A

Snowball and Snowball Edge. Contain a storage device

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26
Q

What is a snowmobile?

A

A 45 foot long ruggedized shipping container, pulled by a semi-trailer truck

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27
Q

What scale migration is snowball and snowball edge for?

A

Peta-scale migration

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28
Q

What type of migration is snowmobile for?

A

Exabyte-scale migration

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29
Q

Why would someone use snowball vs having to transfer 100TB of data over high speed internet?

A

Snowball is 1/5th the cost

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30
Q

What is the speed comparison of transferring data when it comes to high speed internet vs. snowball?

A

It would take 100 days to transfer over 100TB of data vs. snowball where it would take less than a week.

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31
Q

How many sizes does snowball come in? How much usable space per size?

A

50TB - 42TB of usable space. 80TB - 72TB of usable space.

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32
Q

How many sizes does snowball edge come in? How much usable space per size?

A

100TB - 83TB of usable space. 100TB Clustered - 45TB per node

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33
Q

What size does snowmobile come in?

A

100PB (petabytes)

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34
Q

What two things can you do using snowball or snowmobile regarding data?

A

Import or export data

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35
Q

What things can you import into with regards to “snow”?

A

S3 or Glacier

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36
Q

What can snowball edge undertake?

A

Local processing and edge-computing workloads

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37
Q

How can snowball edge be used regarding “clusters”?

A

Can be used in a cluster in groups of 5-10 devices

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38
Q

What do VPC endpoints help keep traffic between?

A

AWS services within the AWS network

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39
Q

How many kinds of VPC endpoints are there? What are their names?

A

Two kinds. Interface endpoints and Gateway endpoints

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40
Q

What is the difference between interface endpoints and gateway endpoints?

A

Interface costs money, gateway is free

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41
Q

Elastic Network Interface (ENI) and Private IP (powered by AWS PrivateLink), are associated with what endpoint?

A

Interface

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42
Q

Gateway endpoints is a target for what?

A

A specific route in your route table

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43
Q

Interface Endpoints dont support a lot of AWS services. True or False?

A

False

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44
Q

What two things does Gateway Endpoint only support?

A

DynamoDB and S3

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45
Q

What do VPC Flow Logs monitor?

A

In-and-Out traffic of your network interfaces within your VPC

46
Q

What 3 levels can the Flow Logs be turned on?

A

VPC, Subnet and Network Interface Level

47
Q

VPC flow logs cannot be tagged like other AWS Resources? True or False?

A

True

48
Q

Is it possible to change the configuration of a flow log after its created?

A

No

49
Q

You cannot enable flow logs for VPC’s which are peered with your VPC unless it is in the same account. True or False?

A

True

50
Q

What can VPC Flow Logs be delivered to?

A

S3 or CloudWatch Logs

51
Q

VPC flows log contain the source and what addresses?

A

Destination IP addresses

52
Q

Is all instance traffic monitored?

A

Only some is not monitored

53
Q

Instance Traffic that is not monitored is as follows:

A

Instance traffic generated by contacting the AWS DNS server, Windows license activation traffic from instances, Traffic to and from the instance metadata address (169.254,169.254), DHCP traffic, Any traffic to the reserved IP address of the default VPC router.

54
Q

What does NACL stand for?

A

Network Access Control List

55
Q

VPC’s are automatically given a default NACL. True or False?

A

True

56
Q

Do VPC’s automatically given a default NACL allow all out and inbound traffic?

A

Yes

57
Q

What must each VPC within a subnet be associated with?

A

An NACL

58
Q

How many subnets can an NACL be associated with at a time?

A

1

59
Q

Will associating a subnet with a new NACL remove the previous association?

A

Yes

60
Q

If an NACL is not explicitly associated with a subnet, will the subnet automatically be associated with the default NACL?

A

Yes

61
Q

What rules does NACL have?

A

Inbound and outbound (just like Security Groups)

62
Q

What can rule do?

A

Either allow or deny traffic (unlike Security Groups which can only allow)

63
Q

Do NACL’s have a state? Explain

A

No, they are stateless (any allowed inbound traffic is also allowed outbound)

64
Q

When an NACL is created, it will allow all traffic by default. True or False?

A

False, it will deny all traffic.

65
Q

What do NACL’s contain? What type of “list”?

A

A numbered list of rules. They get evaluated in order from lowest to highest.

66
Q

If you needed to block a single IP address, could you via an NACL? (Security Groups cannot deny)

A

Yes

67
Q

At what level do security groups act as a firewall?

A

Instance Level

68
Q

Unless it is allowed specifically, what traffic is blocked by default?

A

Inbound Traffic

69
Q

All __ traffic from the instance is allowed by default

A

Outbound

70
Q

You can specify the source of the security group traffic to be 3 things, what are they?

A

IP range, Single IP address or another security group

71
Q

Are security groups stateful, or stateless?

A

StateFUL (if traffic is allowed inbound it is also allowed outbound)

72
Q

Do any changes made to a security group take effective eventually, or immediately?

A

Immediately

73
Q

Can EC 2 instances belong to multiple security groups?

A

Yes

74
Q

Security Groups can contain multiple EC2 instances. True or False?

A

True

75
Q

What would you need that would allow you to block specific IP addresses with Security Groups?

A

Network Access Control List (NACL)

76
Q

How many security groups can you have per region?

A

10,000 (default 25,000)

77
Q

How many inbound and how many outbound rules per security group can you have?

A

60 inbound, 60 outbound

78
Q

How many security groups can you have associated to an ENI?

A

16 (default is 5)

79
Q

When creating a NAT instance you must __ on the instance?

A

Must disable source and destination checks

80
Q

NAT instances must exist in private subnets. True or False? Explain

A

False, public subnets

81
Q

Should you have a route out or in to a private subnet NAT instance?

A

Route Out

82
Q

The size of a NAT instance determines what?

A

How much traffic can be handled

83
Q

High availability (with regards to NAT), can be achieved using what?

A

Autoscaling Groups, Multiple subnets in different AZ’s, and automate failover between them using a script

84
Q

NAT gateways are _______ zone.

A

Redundant inside an availability…(can survive failure of EC2 instance)

85
Q

How many gateways can you have inside 1 availability zone?

A

1 NAT gateway (cannot span AZ’s)

86
Q

What amount do gateways start at (with regards to NAT topic)?

A

5GBPS and scales all the way up to 45 GBPS

87
Q

Whats the preferred setup for enterprise systems?

A

NAT gateways

88
Q

Is there a requirement to patch NAT gateways?

A

No

89
Q

Is there a need to disable Source/Destination checks for the NAT gateway (unlike NAT instances)?

A

No

90
Q

NAT gateways are automatically what?

A

Assigned a public IP address

91
Q

Route Tables for the NAT gateway MUST what?

A

Be updated

92
Q

If you have resources in multiple AZ’s sharing a gateway, what risk do you run? Unless you do what?

A

You will lose internet access if the Gateway goes down. Unless you create a gateway in each AZ and configure route tables accordingly

93
Q

Identity Access Management is used to manage what?

A

Access to users and resources

94
Q

What system is IAM?

A

Universal (*applied to all Regions at the same time)

95
Q

Is IAM a free or paid service?

A

Free

96
Q

What kind of account is initially created when AWS is set up?

A

Root Account (full admin.)

97
Q

Do IAM accounts have any permissions by default?

A

No, they have to be granted

98
Q

What keys do new users get assigned?

A

Access Key ID and Secret Key (first created when you give them programmatic access.

99
Q

Access Keys are only used for what?

A

CLI and SDK (cannot access console)

100
Q

Access keys only shown once when created. True or False?

A

True (if lost, they must be deleted/recreated again)

101
Q

What should always be setup for Root Accounts?

A

MFA

102
Q

What must individual users do regarding MFA that admins cannot do?

A

Individual users have to enable it themselves

103
Q

IAM allows what in terms of a password policies?

A

To set minimum password requirements or rotate passwords

104
Q

IAM identities are what 3 things?

A

Users, Groups and Roles

105
Q

IAM users are end users who do what?

A

Log into the console or interact with AWS resources programatically

106
Q

IAM groups are groups that group up your what?

A

Group up your users so they all share permission levels of the group (ie; Admins, Devs and Auditors)

107
Q

IAM roles Associate what?

A

Permissions to a Role and then assign this to a User or Groups

108
Q

IAM policies are JSON what?

A

Documents which grant permission for a specific user, group, or role to access services. Policies are attached to IAM identities

109
Q

Can managed policies be edited?

A

No (they are provided by AWS)

110
Q

Customer managed policies are created by who? Can they be edited?

A

The customer and CAN be edited

111
Q

Inline policies are directly attached to who?

A

The user

AWS Cert Exam - Solutions Associate Architect (1 decks)

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