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AWS Certifications > AWS Cloud Practitioner > Flashcards

AWS Cloud Practitioner Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 6 advantages of the cloud?

A
  • Trade capital expense for variable expense
  • Benefit from massive economies of scale
  • Stop guessing about capacity
  • Increase speed and agility
  • Stop spending money running and maintaining data centers
  • Go global in minutes
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2
Q

What are the 3 types of cloud computing?

A
  • Infrastructure as a service (IAAS)
  • Platform as a service (PAAS)
  • Software as a service (SAAS)
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3
Q

What is IAAS?

A

Infrastructure as a service

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4
Q

What is PAAS?

A

Platform as a service

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5
Q

What is SAAS?

A

Software as a service

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6
Q

What are the 3 types of cloud computing deployments?

A

Public, Hybrid, and Private cloud

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7
Q

What is an AWS region?

A

A region is a physical location in the world which consists of two or more AZs

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8
Q

What is an AZ?

A

An AZ is an availability zone which is one or more discrete data centers, each with redundant power, networking, and connectivity, housed in separate facilities

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9
Q

What is an edge location?

A

Edge locations are endpoints for AWS which are used for caching content. Typically consists of CloudFront, Amazon’s Content Delivery Network

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10
Q

What is a CDN?

A

Content Delivery Network

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11
Q

What is Amazon’s CDN called?

A

CloudFront

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12
Q

Why should you choose a specific AWS region?

A
  • Data sovereignty laws
  • Latency to the majority of end users
  • AWS services available in certain regions
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13
Q

What are the different AWS support packages?

A
  • Basic
  • Developer
  • Business
  • Enterprise
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14
Q

How much is the Basic support package?

A

Free

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15
Q

How much is the Developer support package?

A

Starts at $29/mo and scales up with usage

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16
Q

How much is the Business support package?

A

Starts at $100/mo and scales up with usage

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17
Q

How much is the Enterprise support package?

A

Starts at $15k/mo and scales up with usage. Also includes a Technical Account Manager (TAM)

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18
Q

What does IAM stand for?

A

Identity Access Management

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19
Q

Is IAM a regional or global service?

A

Global

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20
Q

What are the 3 ways to access the AWS platform?

A
  • Via the console
  • Programmatically via the command line
  • Using a Software Development Kit (SDK)
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21
Q

The root account has what kind of access? What is an additional security measure you should add to the root account?

A
  • Full admin access

- 2FA or MFA

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22
Q

What is an IAM Group? What do the things in this group inherit?

A
  • A place to store your users

- Users in a group inherit all permissions applied to the group

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23
Q

IAM Group policies are written in what?

A

JSON

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24
Q

How many users should be created for each person in a company?

A

Only one. One user, one human.

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25
Q

Describe how permissions should generally be applied across users and groups

A

You should try to create groups with certain permissions, and then add users to their respective groups so that they inherit those permissions.

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26
Q

What are two ways to make user accounts more secure?

A
  • Have a strong password rotation policy

- Always enable MFA wherever possible

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27
Q

What is needed for programmatic access to AWS?

A

An access key

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28
Q

What are IAM credential reports used for?

A

To audit the permissions of your users and accounts

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29
Q

What information is shown on an IAM credential report?

A

Passwords, access keys, and MFA

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30
Q

What does S3 stand for?

A

Simple Storage Service

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31
Q

AWS S3 is ___ based, and allows you to upload ____ file types

A
  • object

- flat

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32
Q

How big can files uploaded to S3 be?

A

0 bytes to 5tb

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33
Q

What is the storage restriction on S3?

A

None, storage is unlimited

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34
Q

Files on S3 are stored in what?

A

Buckets

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35
Q

S3 is a _____ name space so your name must be _____ _____

A
  • universal

- globally unique

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36
Q

Is S3 suitable for installing an operating system on?

A

No

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37
Q

Successfully S3 upload will generate what HTTP status code?

A

200

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38
Q

Files uploaded to S3 are stored as _____. Where the ____ is the name of the object and the ____ is the data

A
  • Key value pairs
  • Key
  • Value
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39
Q

What are the S3 class types?

A
  • Standard
  • Standard Infrequently Accessed (IA)
  • One Zone IA
  • Intelligent Tiering
  • Glacier
  • Glacier Deep Archive
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40
Q

What is the S3 Standard class for?

A

General purpose storage for any type of data, typically used for frequently accessed data

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41
Q

What is the S3 Intelligent Tiering class for?

A

Automatic cost savings for data with unknown or changing access patterns

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42
Q

What is the S3 Standard Infrequent Access class for?

A

For long lived but infrequently accessed data that needs millisecond access

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43
Q

What is the S3 One Zone Infrequent Access class for? Why is it called One Zone?

A

For re-creatable infrequently accessed data that needs millisecond access. It is called One Zone because data is stored in a single Availability Zone and would be lost in the event of AZ destruction

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44
Q

What is the S3 Glacier class for?

A

For long-term backups and archives with retrieval options from 1 minute to 12 hours

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45
Q

What is the S3 Glacier Deep Archive class for?

A

For long-term data archiving that is accessed once or twice a year and can be restored within 12 hours

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46
Q

S3 buckets are used for what?

A

Flat file storage

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47
Q

S3 buckets are viewed ____ but you can have buckets in ________

A
  • Globally

- Individual Regions

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48
Q

What kind of websites are appropriate for use with S3? When would a website not be appropriate for use with S3?

A
  • Static websites

- If you need to have a database

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49
Q

Why is S3 appropriate if you expect a lot of requests?

A

Because S3 scales automatically to meet demand i.e. a static website where you expect a lot of traffic

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50
Q

What are the 3 ways you can restrict S3 bucket access?

A
  • Bucket policies
  • Object policies
  • IAM policies to Users & Groups
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51
Q

S3 bucket policies apply to what?

A

Across the whole bucket

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52
Q

S3 object policies apply to what?

A

To individual files

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53
Q

IAM security policies apply to what?

A

Users and Groups

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54
Q

What is S3 versioning?

A
  • S3 stores versions of all objects
  • Great backup tool
  • Cannot be disabled
  • MFA delete capability
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55
Q

What is CloudFront service?

A

Amazon’s Content Delivery Network (CDN)

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56
Q

What is an Edge Location in relation to CloudFront?

A

The location where content will be cached. This is separate to an AWS region or AZ

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57
Q

What is an Origin in relation to CloudFront?

A

The origin of all the files that the CDN will distribute. This can either be an S3 bucket, an EC2 instance, an Elastic Load Balancer, or Route 53

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58
Q

What is a Distribution in relation to CloudFront?

A

This is the name given to the CDN which consists of a collection of Edge Locations

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59
Q

What is a CloudFront Web Distribution used for?

A

Websites

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60
Q

What is CloudFront RTMP used for?

A

Media Streaming

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61
Q

Are edge locations for CloudFront read only, write only, or read and write?

A

Read and write

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62
Q

Objection at CloudFront edge locations are cached for _____

A

The Time to Live (TTL)

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63
Q

What does EC2 stand for?

A

Elastic Compute Cloud

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64
Q

What is AWS EC2?

A

A web service that provides resizable compute capacity in the cloud

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65
Q

What are the main benefits of EC2?

A
  • Reduces the time required to obtain and boot a new server instance to minutes
  • Allows you to quickly scale capacity up and down as requirements change
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66
Q

What are the 4 different pricing models for EC2?

A
  • On Demand
  • Reserved
  • Spot
  • Dedicated host
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67
Q

What is EC2 On Demand pricing?

A

Allows you to pay a fixed rate by the hour or by the second with no commitment

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68
Q

What is EC2 Reserved pricing?

A

Provides you with a capacity reservation, and offers a significant discount on the hourly charge for an instance. Contract terms are 1 year or 3 years.

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69
Q

What is EC2 Spot pricing?

A

Enables you to bid whatever price you want for instnace capacity, providing for even greater savings if your applications have flexible start times and end times.

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70
Q

What is EC2 Dedicated Hosting?

A

Provides access to a physical EC2 server dedicated for your use. Dedicated host can help to reduce costs by allowing you to use your existing server-bound software licenses.

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71
Q

What is the acronym used to remember EC2 instance types?

A

Fight Dr McPxz AU

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72
Q

What is an EC2 F instance type?

A

FGPA

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73
Q

What is an EC2 I instance type?

A

IOPS

74
Q

What is an EC2 G instance type?

A

Graphics

75
Q

What is an EC2 H instance type?

A

High disk throughput

76
Q

What is an EC2 T instance type?

A

Cheap general purpose i.e. T2 micro free tier

77
Q

What is an EC2 D instance type?

A

Density

78
Q

What is an EC2 R instance type?

A

RAM

79
Q

What is an EC2 M instance type?

A

Main choice for general purpose apps

80
Q

What is an EC2 C instance type?

A

Compute

81
Q

What is an EC2 P instance type?

A

Graphics (think pics)

82
Q

What is an EC2 X instance type?

A

Extreme memory

83
Q

What is an EC2 Z instance type?

A

Extreme memory and CPU

84
Q

What is an EC2 A instance type?

A

Arm based workloads

85
Q

What is an EC2 U instance type?

A

Bare metal

86
Q

What are the different EBS volume types?

A
  • General purpose SSD (GP2)
  • Provisioned IOPS SSD (IO1)
  • Throughput Optimized HDD (ST1) (magnetic)
  • Cold HDD (SC1) (magnetic)
  • Magnetic (previous gen)
87
Q

What is a GP2 EBS volume type? What is it used for?

A
  • General purpose SSD

- Balances price and performance for a wide variety of workloads

88
Q

What is an IO1 EBS volume type? What is it used for?

A
  • Provisioned IOPS SSD

- Highest performance SSD volume for mission critical low latency or high throughput workloads

89
Q

What is an ST1 EBS volume type? What is it used for?

A
  • Throughput Optimized HDD
  • Magnetic
  • Low cost HDD volume designed for frequently accessed, throughput intensive workloads
90
Q

What is an SC1 EBS volume type?

A
  • Cold HDD
  • Magnetic
  • Lowest cost HDD volume designed for less frequently accessed workloads like file servers
91
Q

True or false - EC2 is a compute based server, it is not serverless

A

True! EC2 is a server!

92
Q

What do you need to connect to an EC2 instance?

A

A private key

93
Q

What is the commonly used EC2 port for Linux?

A
  • SSH

- Port 22

94
Q

What is the commonly used EC2 port for Windows?

A
  • Remote Desktop Protocol

- Port 3389

95
Q

What is the port for HTTP?

A

Port 80

96
Q

What is the port for HTTPS?

A

Port 443

97
Q

EC2 Security groups act as a what?

A

Virtual firewall that opens specific ports for usage

98
Q

Always design for _____. You should have at least one EC2 instance in each _________.

A
  • Failure

- Availability Zone

99
Q

What is more secure than using access key IDs and secret access keys?

A

Using Roles

100
Q

When can you apply roles to EC2 instances?

A
  • Any time

- Changes take effect immediately

101
Q

Do you need to specify roles at a regional level?

A

No, roles are universal

102
Q

What are the 3 different types of load balancers?

A
  • Application load balancers
  • Network load balances
  • Classic load balancers
103
Q

What should you think of when you think of Application Load Balancers?

A

They are layer 7 aware meaning they can make intelligent decisions

104
Q

What should you think of when you think of Network Load Balancers?

A
  • Extreme performance

- Static IP addresses

105
Q

What should you think of when you think of Classic Load Balancers?

A
  • Used for testing and development

- Keep costs low

106
Q

What is Amazon RDS?

A

Relational Database Service

107
Q

What kind of databases can RDS handle?

A
  • SQL/OLTP
  • SQL
  • MySQL
  • PostgreSQL
  • Oracle
  • Aurora
  • MariaDB
108
Q

What is Amazon’s NoSQL database service?

A

DynamoDB

109
Q

What is Amazon’s Online Analytics Processing service?

A

Redshift OLAP

110
Q

What is Amazon Elasticache?

A

Full managed in-memory data store, coompatible with Redis or Memcached. It takes a load off of the production db.

111
Q

What are the two key features of Amazon RDS?

A
  • Multi AZ for disaster recovery

- Read replicas for performance

112
Q

What is Route 53?

A

AWS DNS service

113
Q

What does DNS stand for?

A

Domain Name Service

114
Q

What is the purpose of DNS?

A

To resolve domain names to IP addresses

115
Q

Is Route 53 a global or regional service?

A

Global

116
Q

What is AWS Elastic Beanstalk?

A

An easy to use service for deploying and scaling web applications and services with familiar languages and servers without worrying about the infrastructure that runs those applications. Simply upload an app and Elastic Beanstalk automatically handles the details of capacity provisioning, load balancing, scaling, app health monitoring, etc

117
Q

What is AWS CloudFormation?

A

CloudFormation gives you an easy way to model a collection of related AWS and third party resources, provision them quickly and consistently, and manage them throughout their lifecycles by treating infrastructure as code.

  • You can create CloudFormation templates that describes the resources you want to use
  • The service is free but the resources are not
118
Q

What are the global AWS services to remember?

A
  • IAM
  • Route 53
  • CloudFront
  • SNS/SES
  • S3
119
Q

What are the on premise deployment services?

A
  • Snowball
  • Snowball Edge
  • Storage Gateway
  • Code Deploy
  • Opsworks
  • IoT Greengrass
120
Q

What is CloudWatch?

A

CloudWatch is a monitoring and observability service. It provides you with data and actionable insights to monitor your applications, respond to system wide performance changes, optimize resource utilization, and get a unified view of operational health.

121
Q

What is the default monitoring interval for CloudWatch? What is the interval if you turn on detailed monitoring?

A
  • 5 minutes

- 1 minute

122
Q

How can you trigger notifications with CloudWatch?

A

By creating CloudWatch Alarms

123
Q

When you think about CloudWatch you should think about what?

A

Performance

124
Q

What is Systems Manager?

A

Systems Manager gives you visibility and control of your infrastructure on AWS. it provides a unified user interface so you can view operational data from multiple AWS services and automate operational tasks across your AWS resources as well as group resources.

125
Q

What service does Systems Manager integrate with to give you a dashboard of your entire state?

A

CloudWatch

126
Q

What is EBS?

A

A virtual disk that can be attached to EC2. The size of the disk can be changed, but it is not done automatically.

127
Q

What is EFS?

A

A virtual disk that can be attached to EC2, and the size of the disk is elastic

128
Q

What is the difference between EBS and EFS?

A

They are both virtual disks in the cloud, but EBS size cannot be changed automatically whereas EFS is elastic.

129
Q

What is Global Accelerator?

A

Global Accelerator is a networking service that sends your user’s traffic through AWS global network infrastructure, improving user performance by up to 60%. When the internet is congested, Global Accelerator’s automatic routing optimizations will help keep packet loss, jitter, and latency consistently low.

130
Q

What is Capex?

A

Capex stands for Capital Expenditure which is where you pay up front. It’s a fixed, sunk cost.

131
Q

What is Opex?

A

Opex stands for operational expenditure which is where you pay for what you use. Think of utility billing such as electricity, gas, water, etc

132
Q

What are the main tenets of AWS billing and pricing?

A
  • Pay as you go
  • Pay for what you use
  • Pay less as you use more
  • Pay even less when you reserve capacity
133
Q

What does On Demand pricing entail?

A

Allows you to pay a fixed rate by the hour or by the second with no commitment

134
Q

What does Reserved entail?

A

Provides you with a capacity reservation, and offers a significant discount on the hourly charge for an instance. Contract terms are 1 year or 3 years.

135
Q

What does Spot pricing entail?

A

Enables you to bid whatever price you want for instance capacity, providing for even greater savings if your applications have flexible start and end times.

136
Q

What does Dedicated Host pricing entail?

A

Physical EC2 server dedicated for your use. Dedicated hosts can help you reduce costs by allowing you to use your existing server bound software licenses.

137
Q

What are the FREE AWS services to remember?

A
  • VPC
  • Elastic Beanstalk
  • CloudFormation
  • Identity Access Manager (IAM)
  • Auto Scaling
  • Opsworks
  • Consolidated Billing
138
Q

What is AWS Budgets used for?

A

Budgets is used to budget or predict costs BEFORE they are incurred

139
Q

What is AWS Cost Explorer used for?

A

Cost Explorer is used to explore cost AFTER they have been incurred

140
Q

What AWS support plan do you need if you want a Technical Account Manager?

A

Enterprise

141
Q

What are the case severity response times for the Basic support plan?

A

None guaranteed

142
Q

What are the case severity response times for the Developer support plan?

A
  • General Guidance, 24hrs

- System Impaired, 12hrs

143
Q

What are the case severity response times for the Business support plan?

A
  • General Guidance, 24hrs
  • System Impaired, 12hrs
  • Production Impaired, 4hrs
  • Production Down, 1hr
144
Q

What are the case severity response times for the Enterprise support plan?

A
  • General Guidance, 24hrs
  • System Impaired, 12hrs
  • Production Impaired, 4hrs
  • Business Critical System Down, 15min
145
Q

What are tags?

A

Tags are key value pairs attached to AWS resources

146
Q

What is metadata?

A

Data about data

147
Q

What is a Resource Group?

A

Resource groups make it easy to group resources using the tags that are assigned to them. You can group resources that share one or more tags.

148
Q

What is Tag Editor?

A

Tag Editor is a global service that allows us to discover resources and to add additional tags to them as well.

149
Q

True or False - You should make sure to deploy all resources on the paying account

A

False. The paying account should be used for billing purposes only. Do not deploy resources to the paying account.

150
Q

What is the maximum number of linked accounts?

A

20

151
Q

True or False - When monitoring is enabled on the paying account, the billing data for all linked accounts is included

A

True

152
Q

True or False - You cannot create billing alerts per individual account

A

False

153
Q

Is CloudTrail enabled globally across all accounts or per account?

A

CloudTrail is enabled per AWS account and is enabled per region

154
Q

How can you consolidate CloudTrail logs?

A
  • Turn on CloudTrail in the paying account
  • Create an S3 bucket with a policy that allows cross-account access
  • Turn on CloudTrail in the other accounts and use the bucket in the paying account
155
Q

True or False - Consolidated billing allows you to get volume discounts on all your accounts

A

True

156
Q

What happens to unused EC2 reserved instance?

A

They are applied across the group

157
Q

What is AWS Quickstart?

A

AWS Quick Start is a way of deploying environments quickly, using CloudFormation templates built by AWS Solutions Architects who are experts in that particular technology

158
Q

What is AWS Landing Zone?

A

AWS Landing Zone is a oslution that helps customers more quickly set up a secure multi-account AWS environment on AWS best practices

159
Q

What is AWS Simple Monthly Calculator?

A

Simple Monthly Calculator is used to calculate your running costs on AWS on a per month basis. It is not a comparison tool.

160
Q

What is AWS TCO calculator?

A

TCO calculator is used to compare costs of running your infrastructure on premise vs in the AWS cloud. It will generate reports that you can give to C-level execs to make a business case to move to the cloud.

161
Q

According to the Shared Responsibility model, customers are responsible for things ____ the cloud

A

IN

162
Q

According to the Shared Responsibility model, AWS has responsibility ___ the cloud

A

OF

163
Q

In terms of the Shared Responsibility model, name the things that customers are responsible for

A
  • Customer Data
  • Platform, apps, identity and access management
  • operating system, network and firewall configuration
  • client side data, encryption, and data integrity
  • server side encryption
  • network traffic protection
164
Q

In terms of the Shared Responsibility model, name the things that AWS is responsible for

A
  • Software
  • Compute
  • Storage
  • Database
  • Networking
  • Hardware/AWS Global Infrastructure
  • Regions
  • AZs
  • Edge Locations
165
Q

What is a responsibility that is shared between AWS and customers?

A

Encryption

166
Q

True of False - An advantage of using RDS over a traditional database is that AWS maintains the underlying OS and performs software patching on the database.

A

True

167
Q

Which 2 of these are pillars of an AWS Well Architected Framework?

  • Ease of use
  • Operational Excellence
  • Reliability
  • Scalability
  • Elasticity
A
  • Operational Excellence

- Reliability

168
Q

Which valuable AWS design principle can be a valuable feature when deploying applications?

  • Tight coupling
  • Regional coupling
  • Hardware coupling
  • Loose coupling
A

Loose coupling

169
Q

A video production company uploads large video files to S3 buckets using multipart upload. To which AWS Cloud best practice does this adhere?

  • Decouple your components
  • Think parallel
  • Design for failure
  • Implement elasticity
A

Think Parallel

170
Q

What tool can you use to test IAM policies?

A

IAM Policy Simulator

171
Q

A new application needs temporary access to resources in AWS. How can this best be achieved?

A

Create an IAM Role and have the application assume the role.

172
Q

In Identity and Access Management, which term refers to the IAM resource objects that AWS users for authentication?

A

Entities

173
Q

You are working with IAM and need to attach policies to users, groups, and roles. What will you be attaching these policies to?

A

Identities

174
Q

If you needed to set up a virtual firewall for your EC2 instance. What would you use?

A

Security group

175
Q

Which AWS service provides central governance and management across multiple AWS accounts?

A

AWS Organizations

176
Q

After configuring your VPC and all of the resources iwthin it, you want to add an extra layer of security at the subnet level. What will you use to add this security?

A

Network ACL

177
Q

What AWS Developer Tools Suite service will enable creating, managing, and working with software development projects on AWS?

A

AWS CodeStar

178
Q

What AWS service can automate deployments from end to end and provide continuous delivery functionality?

A

CodePipeline

179
Q

Several EC2 instance in a public subnet need internet access. What will you configure as one step in granting internet access?

A

Internet gateway

180
Q

What AWS service, coupled with EC2, can you implement elasticity by adding and removing instances as needed?

A

Auto Scaling

181
Q

You have infrequently accessed data in S3 buckets that you want to transfer to Glacier. What can you use in AWS to do this?

A

S3 Lifecycle Policy

182
Q

A gaming company is using the AWS Developer Tool Suite to develop, build, and deploy their applications. Which AWS service can be used too trace user requests from end to end through the app?

A

AWS X-Ray

AWS Certifications (1 decks)

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