AWS Cloud Practioner Cards Flashcards

1
Q

What is cloud computing?

A) Backing up files that are stored on desktop and mobile devices to prevent data loss

B) Deploying applications connected to on-premises infrastructure

C) Running code without needing to manage or provision servers

D) On-demand delivery of IT resources and applications through the internet with pay-as-you-go pricing

A

D) On-demand delivery of IT resources and applications through the internet with pay-as-you-go pricing

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2
Q

What is another name for on-premises deployment?

A) Private cloud deployment
B) Cloud-based application
C) Hybrid deployment
D) AWS Cloud

A

A) Private cloud deployment

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3
Q

How does the scale of cloud computing help you to save costs?

A) You do not have to invest in technology resources before using them.

B) The aggregated cloud usage from a large number of customers results in lower pay-as-you-go prices.

C) Accessing services on-demand helps to prevent excess or limited capacity.

D) You can quickly deploy applications to customers and provide them with low latency.

A

B) The aggregated cloud usage from a large number of customers results in lower pay-as-you-go prices.

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4
Q

Which Amazon EC2 instance type is suitable for data warehousing applications?
A) Memory optimized
B) Storage optimized
C) General purpose
D) Compute optimized

A

B) Storage optimized

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5
Q

Which Amazon EC2 instance type balances compute, memory, and networking resources?

A) Memory optimized
B) Storage optimized
C) General purpose
D) Compute optimized

A

C) General purpose

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6
Q

Which Amazon EC2 instance type is ideal for high-performance databases?

A) Memory optimized
B) Storage optimized
C) General purpose
D) Compute optimized

A

D) Compute optimized

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7
Q

Which Amazon EC2 pricing option provides a discount when you specify a number of EC2 instances to run a specific OS, instance family and size, and tenancy in one Region?

A) Convertible Reserved Instances
B) EC2 Instance Savings Plans
C) Spot Instances
D) Standard Reserved Instances

A

D) Standard Reserved Instances

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8
Q

Which Amazon EC2 pricing option provides a discount when you make an hourly spend commitment to an instance family and Region for a 1-year or 3-year term?

A) On-demand
B) EC2 Instance Savings Plans
C) Spot Instances
D) Reserved Instances

A

B) EC2 Instance Savings Plans

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9
Q

Which AWS service is the best choice for publishing messages to subscribers?

A) Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)
B) Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
C) Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
D) Elastic Load Balancing

A

C) Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)

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10
Q

You want to use an Amazon EC2 instance for a batch processing workload. What would be the best Amazon EC2 instance type to use?

A) General purpose
B) Memory optimized
C) Compute optimized
D) Storage optimized

A

C) Compute optimized

The correct response option is Compute optimized.

The other response options are incorrect because:
* General purpose instances provide a balance of compute, memory, and networking resources. This instance family would not be the best choice for the application in this scenario. Compute optimized instances are more well suited for batch processing workloads than general purpose instances.
* Memory optimized instances are more ideal for workloads that process large datasets in memory, such as high-performance databases.
Storage optimized instances are designed for workloads that require high, sequential read and write access to large datasets on local storage. The question does not specify the size of data that will be processed. Batch processing involves processing data in groups. A compute optimized instance is ideal for this type of workload, which would benefit from a high-performance processor.

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11
Q

What are the contract length options for Amazon EC2 Reserved Instances? (Select TWO.)

A) 1 year
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) 4 years
E) 5 years

A

A) 1 year
C) 3 years

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12
Q

You have a workload that will run for a total of 6 months and can withstand interruptions. What would be the most cost-efficient Amazon EC2 purchasing option?

A) Reserved Instance
B) Spot Instance
C) Dedicated Instance
D) On-Demand Instance

A

B) Spot Instance

The correct response option is Spot Instance.

The other response options are incorrect because:
* Reserved Instances require a contract length of either 1 year or 3 years. The workload in this scenario will only be running for 6 months.
* Dedicated Instances run in a virtual private cloud (VPC) on hardware that is dedicated to a single customer. They have a higher cost than the other response options, which run on shared hardware.
On-Demand Instances fulfill the requirements of running for only 6 months. However, a Spot Instance would be the best choice because it does not require a minimum contract length, is able to withstand interruptions, and costs less than an On-Demand Instance.

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13
Q

Which process is an example of Elastic Load Balancing?

A) Ensuring that no single Amazon EC2 instance has to carry the full workload on its own
B) Removing unneeded Amazon EC2 instances when demand is low
C) Adding a second Amazon EC2 instance during an online store’s popular sale
D) Automatically adjusting the number of Amazon EC2 instances to meet demand

A

A) Ensuring that no single Amazon EC2 instance has to carry the full workload on its own

The correct response option is Ensuring that no single Amazon EC2 instance has to carry the full workload on its own.

Elastic Load Balancing is the AWS service that automatically distributes incoming application traffic across multiple resources, such as Amazon EC2 instances. This helps to ensure that no single resource becomes over utilized.

The other response options are all examples of Auto Scaling.

Learn more:
* Elastic Load Balancing(opens in a new tab)
* Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling

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14
Q

You want to deploy and manage containerized applications. Which service should you use?

A) AWS Lambda
B) Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
C) Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)
D) Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)

A

D) Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS)

The correct response option is Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS).

Amazon EKS is a fully managed Kubernetes service. Kubernetes is open-source software that enables you to deploy and manage containerized applications at scale.

The other response options are incorrect because:
* AWS Lambda is a service that lets you run code without provisioning or managing servers.
* Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) is a service that enables you to send, store, and receive messages between software components through a queue.
* Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) is a publish/subscribe service. Using Amazon SNS topics, a publisher publishes messages to subscribers.

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15
Q

Which statement best describes an Availability Zone?

A) A geographical area that contains AWS resources
B) A single data center or group of data centers within a Region
C) A data center that an AWS service uses to perform service-specific operations
D) A service that you can use to run AWS infrastructure within your own on-premises data center in a hybrid approach

A

B) A single data center or group of data centers within a Region

The other response options are incorrect because:
* A Region is a geographical area that contains AWS resources.
* An edge location is a data center that an AWS service uses to perform service-specific operations. Edge locations are examined in the next section of this module.
* AWS Outposts is a service that you can use to run AWS infrastructure, services, and tools in your own on-premises data center in a hybrid approach. AWS Outposts is explored later in this module.

Learn more:
* AWS global infrastructure(opens in a new tab)
* Regions and Availability Zones

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16
Q

Which statement is TRUE for the AWS global infrastructure?

A) A Region consists of a single Availability Zone.
B) An Availability Zone consists of two or more Regions.
C) A Region consists of three or more Availability Zones.
D) An Availability Zone consists of a single Region.

A

C) A Region consists of three or more Availability Zones.

The correct response option is A Region consists of three or more Availability Zones.

For example, the South America (São Paulo) Region is sa-east-1. It includes three Availability Zones: sa-east-1a, sa-east-1b, and sa-east-1c.

Learn more:
* AWS global infrastructure(opens in a new tab)
Regions and Availability Zones

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17
Q

Which factors should be considered when selecting a Region? (Select TWO.)

A) Compliance with data governance and legal requirements
B) Proximity to your customers
C) Access to 24/7 technical support
D) Ability to assign custom permissions to different users
E) Access to the AWS Command Line Interface (AWS CLI)

A

A) Compliance with data governance and legal requirements
B) Proximity to your customers

The correct two response options are:
* Compliance with data governance and legal requirements
* Proximity to your customers
Two other factors to consider when selecting a Region are pricing and the services that are available in a Region.

The other response options are incorrect because:
* The level of support that you choose is not determined by Region. AWS Support plans are explored later in this course.
* Assigning custom permissions to different users is a feature that is possible in all AWS Regions.
* The AWS Command Line Interface (AWS CLI) is available in all AWS Regions.
Learn more:
Choosing Regions and Availability Zones

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18
Q

Which statement best describes Amazon CloudFront?
A) A service that enables you to run infrastructure in a hybrid cloud approach
B) A serverless compute engine for containers
C) A service that enables you to send and receive messages between software components through a queue
D) A global content delivery service

A

D) A global content delivery service

The correct response option is A global content delivery service.

Amazon CloudFront is a content delivery service. It uses a network of edge locations to cache content and deliver content to customers all over the world. When content is cached, it is stored locally as a copy. This content might be video files, photos, webpages, and so on.

The other response options are incorrect because:
* AWS Outposts is a service that enables you to run infrastructure in a hybrid cloud approach.
* AWS Fargate is a serverless compute engine for containers.
* Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) is a service that enables you to send, store, and receive messages between software components through a queue.
Learn more:
Amazon CloudFront

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19
Q

Which site does Amazon CloudFront use to cache copies of content for faster delivery to users at any location?

A) Region
B) Availability Zone
C) Edge location
D) Origin

A

C) Edge location

The correct response option is Edge location.

The other response options are incorrect because:
* A Region is a separate geographical location with multiple locations that are isolated from each other.
* An Availability Zone is a fully isolated portion of the AWS global infrastructure.
* An origin is the server from which CloudFront gets your files. Examples of CloudFront origins include Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) buckets and web servers. Note: Amazon S3 is explored later in this course.
Learn more:
* Amazon CloudFront infrastructure

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20
Q

Which action can you perform with AWS Outposts?

A) Automate actions for AWS services and applications through scripts.
B) Access wizards and automated workflows to perform tasks in AWS services.
C) Develop AWS applications in supported programming languages.
D) Extend AWS infrastructure and services to different locations including your on-premises data center.

A

D) Extend AWS infrastructure and services to different locations including your on-premises data center.

The other response options are incorrect because:
* The AWS Command Line Interface (AWS CLI) is used to automate actions for AWS services and applications through scripts.
* The AWS Management Console includes wizards and workflows that you can use to complete tasks in AWS services.
* Software development kits (SDKs) enable you to develop AWS applications in supported programming languages.
Learn more:
AWS Outposts

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21
Q

Which statement best describes an AWS account’s default network access control list?

A) It is stateless and denies all inbound and outbound traffic
B) It is stateful and allows all inbound and outbound traffic
C) It is stateless and allows all inbound and outbound traffic
D) It is stateful and denies all inbound and outbound traffic

A

C) It is stateless and allows all inbound and outbound traffic

The correct response option is It is stateless and allows all inbound and outbound traffic.

Network access control lists (ACLs) perform stateless packet filtering. They remember nothing and check packets that cross the subnet border each way: inbound and outbound.

Each AWS account includes a default network ACL. When configuring your VPC, you can use your account’s default network ACL or create custom network ACLs.

By default, your account’s default network ACL allows all inbound and outbound traffic, but you can modify it by adding your own rules. For custom network ACLs, all inbound and outbound traffic is denied until you add rules to specify which traffic should be allowed. Additionally, all network ACLs have an explicit deny rule. This rule ensures that if a packet doesn’t match any of the other rules on the list, the packet is denied.

Learn more:
* Network ACLs

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22
Q

Which statement best describes DNS resolution?

A) Launching resources in a virtual network that you define
B) Storing local copies of content at edge locations around the world
C) Connecting a VPC to the internet
D) Translating a domain name to an IP address

A

D) Translating a domain name to an IP address

The correct response option is Translating a domain name to an IP address.

For example, if you want to visit AnyCompany’s website, you enter the domain name into your PC and this request is sent to a DNS server. Next, the DNS server asks the web server for the IP address that corresponds to AnyCompany’s website. The web server responds by providing the IP address for AnyCompany’s website, 192.0.2.0.

Learn more:
* Amazon Route 53

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23
Q

Your company has an application that uses Amazon EC2 instances to run the customer-facing website and Amazon RDS database instances to store customers’ personal information. How should the developer configure the VPC according to best practices?

A) Place the Amazon EC2 instances in a private subnet and the Amazon RDS database instances in a public subnet.
B) Place the Amazon EC2 instances in a public subnet and the Amazon RDS database instances in a private subnet.
C) Place the Amazon EC2 instances and the Amazon RDS database instances in a public subnet.
D) Place the Amazon EC2 instances and the Amazon RDS database instances in a private subnet.

A

B) Place the Amazon EC2 instances in a public subnet and the Amazon RDS database instances in a private subnet.

The correct response option is Place the Amazon EC2 instances in a public subnet and the Amazon RDS databases instances in a private subnet.

A subnet is a section of a VPC in which you can group resources based on security or operational needs. Subnets can be public or private.

Public subnets contain resources that need to be accessible by the public, such as an online store’s website.

Private subnets contain resources that should be accessible only through your private network, such as a database that contains customers’ personal information and order histories.

Learn more:
* Amazon VPC(opens in a new tab)
* VPCs and subnets

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24
Q

Which component can be used to establish a private dedicated connection between your company’s data center and AWS?

A) Private subnet
B) DNS
C) AWS Direct Connect
D) Virtual private gateway

A

C) AWS Direct Connect

The correct response option is AWS Direct Connect.

The other response options are incorrect because:
* A private subnet is a section of a VPC in which you can group resources that should be accessed only through your private network. Although it is private, it is not used for establishing a connection between a data center and AWS.
* DNS stands for Domain Name System, which is a directory used for matching domain names to IP addresses.
* A virtual private gateway enables you to create a VPN connection between your VPC and a private network, such as your company’s data center. Although this connection is private and encrypted, it travels through the public internet, not through a dedicated connection.
Learn more:
* AWS Direct Connect

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25
Which statement best describes security groups? A) They are stateful and deny all inbound traffic by default. B) They are stateful and allow all inbound traffic by default. C) They are stateless and deny all inbound traffic by default. D) They are stateless and allow all inbound traffic by default.
C) They are stateless and deny all inbound traffic by default. The correct response option is Security groups are stateful and deny all inbound traffic by default. Security groups are stateful. This means that they use previous traffic patterns and flows when evaluating new requests for an instance. By default, security groups deny all inbound traffic, but you can add custom rules to fit your operational and security needs. Learn more: * Security groups for your VPC
26
Which component is used to connect a VPC to the internet? A) Public subnet B) Edge location C) Security group D) Internet gateway
D) Internet gateway The correct response option is Internet gateway. The other response options are incorrect because: * A public subnet is a section of a VPC that contains public-facing resources. * An edge location is a site that Amazon CloudFront uses to store cached copies of your content for faster delivery to customers. * A security group is a virtual firewall that controls inbound and outbound traffic for an Amazon EC2 instance. Learn more: * Internet gateways
27
Which service is used to manage the DNS records for domain names? A) Amazon Virtual Private Cloud B) AWS Direct Connect C) Amazon CloudFront D) Amazon Route 53
D) Amazon Route 53 The correct response option is Amazon Route 53. Amazon Route 53 is a DNS web service. It gives developers and businesses a reliable way to route end users to internet applications that host in AWS. Another feature of Route 53 is the ability to manage the DNS records for domain names. You can transfer DNS records for existing domain names managed by other domain registrars. You can also register new domain names directly in Route 53. The other response options are incorrect because: * Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC) is a service that enables you to provision an isolated section of the AWS Cloud. In this isolated section, you can launch resources in a virtual network that you define. * AWS Direct Connect is a service that enables you to establish a dedicated private connection between your data center and VPC. * Amazon CloudFront is a content delivery service. It uses a network of edge locations to cache content and deliver content to customers all over the world. Learn more: * Amazon Route 53
28
Which of the following are characteristics of the Amazon EBS service? (Select TWO.) A) Best for data that requires retention B) Best for temporary data that is not kept long term C) Separate drives from the host computer of an EC2 instance D) Physically attached to the host computer of an EC2 instance E) Data is deleted when an EC2 instance is stopped
A) Best for data that requires retention C) Separate drives from the host computer of an EC2 instance
29
You want to store data that is infrequently accessed but must be immediately available when needed. Which Amazon S3 storage class should you use? A) S3 Intelligent-Tiering B) S3 Glacier Deep Archive C) S3 Standard-IA D) S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval
C) S3 Standard-IA The correct response option is S3 Standard-IA. The S3 Standard-IA storage class is ideal for data that is infrequently accessed but requires high availability when needed. Both S3 Standard and S3 Standard-IA store data in a minimum of three Availability Zones. S3 Standard-IA provides the same level of availability as S3 Standard but at a lower storage price. The other response options are incorrect because: * In the S3 Intelligent-Tiering storage class, Amazon S3 monitors objects’ access patterns. If you haven’t accessed an object for 30 consecutive days, Amazon S3 automatically moves it to the infrequent access tier, S3 Standard-IA. If you access an object in the infrequent access tier, S3 automatically moves it to the frequent access tier, S3 Standard. * S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval and S3 Glacier Deep Archive are low-cost storage classes that are ideal for data archiving. They would not be the best choice for this scenario, which requires high availability. You can retrieve objects stored in the S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval storage class within a few minutes to a few hours. By comparison, you can retrieve objects stored in the S3 Glacier Deep Archive storage class within 12 hours.
30
What are the scenarios in which you should use Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS)? (Select TWO.) A) Running a serverless database B) Using SQL to organize data C) Storing data in a key-value database D) Scaling up to 10 trillion requests per day E) Storing data in an Amazon Aurora database
B) Using SQL to organize data E) Storing data in an Amazon Aurora database The two correct response options are: * Using SQL to organize data * Storing data in an Amazon Aurora database The other three response options are scenarios in which you should use Amazon DynamoDB.
31
Which Amazon S3 storage classes are optimized for archival data? (Select TWO.) A) Amazon S3 Standard B) Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval C) Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering D) Amazon S3 Standard-IA E) Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive
B) Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval E) Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive The correct two response options are: * Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval * Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive Objects stored in the Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval storage class can be retrieved within a few minutes to a few hours. By comparison, objects that are stored in the Amazon S3 Glacier Deep Archive storage class can be retrieved within 12 hours. The other response options are incorrect because: * Amazon S3 Standard is a storage class that is ideal for frequently accessed data, not archival data. * Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering monitors access patterns of objects and automatically moves them between the Amazon S3 Standard and Amazon S3 Standard-IA storage classes. It is not designed for archival data. * Amazon S3 Standard-IA is ideal for data that is infrequently accessed but requires high availability when needed. Learn more: * Amazon S3 storage classes
32
Which statement or statements are TRUE about Amazon EBS volumes and Amazon EFS file systems? A) EBS volumes store data within a single Availability Zone. Amazon EFS file systems store data across multiple Availability Zones. B) EBS volumes store data across multiple Availability Zones. Amazon EFS file systems store data within a single Availability Zone. C) EBS volumes and Amazon EFS file systems both store data within a single Availability Zone. D) EBS volumes and Amazon EFS file systems both store data across multiple Availability Zones.
C) EBS volumes and Amazon EFS file systems both store data within a single Availability Zone. The correct response option is: EBS volumes store data within a single Availability Zone. Amazon EFS file systems store data across multiple Availability Zones. An EBS volume must be located in the same Availability Zone as the Amazon EC2 instance to which it is attached. Data in an Amazon EFS file system can be accessed concurrently from all the Availability Zones in the Region where the file system is located. Learn more: * Amazon EBS volumes(opens in a new tab) * Amazon EFS: How it works
33
You want to store data in an object storage service. Which AWS service is best for this type of storage? A) Amazon Managed Blockchain B) Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) C) Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) D) Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)
D) Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) The correct response option is Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3). The other response options are incorrect because: * Amazon Managed Blockchain is a service that you can use to create and manage blockchain networks with open-source frameworks. Blockchain is a distributed ledger system that lets multiple parties run transactions and share data without a central authority. * Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) is a scalable file system used with AWS Cloud services and on-premises resources. It does not store data as object storage. * Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) is a service that provides block-level storage volumes that you can use with Amazon EC2 instances. Learn more: * Amazon S3(opens in a new tab) * What is cloud object storage?
34
Which statement best describes Amazon DynamoDB? A) A service that enables you to run relational databases in the AWS Cloud B) A serverless key-value database service C) A service that you can use to migrate relational databases, nonrelational databases, and other types of data stores D) An enterprise-class relational database
B) A serverless key-value database service The correct response option is A serverless key-value database service. Amazon DynamoDB is a key-value database service. It is serverless, which means that you do not have to provision, patch, or manage servers. The other response options are incorrect because: * A service that enables you to run relational databases in the AWS Cloud describes Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS). * A service that you can use to migrate relational databases, nonrelational databases, and other types of data stores describes AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS). * An enterprise-class relational database describes Amazon Aurora. Learn more: * Amazon DynamoDB
35
Which service is used to query and analyze data across a data warehouse? A) Amazon Redshift B) Amazon Neptune C) Amazon DocumentDB D) Amazon ElastiCache
A) Amazon Redshift
36
Which tasks are the responsibilities of customers? (Select TWO.) A) Maintaining network infrastructure B) Patching software on Amazon EC2 instances C) Implementing physical security controls at data centers D) Setting permissions for Amazon S3 objects E) Maintaining servers that run Amazon EC2 instances
B) Patching software on Amazon EC2 instances D) Setting permissions for Amazon S3 objects The correct two response options are: * Patching software on Amazon EC2 instances * Setting permissions for Amazon S3 objects The other three response options are tasks that are the responsibility of AWS. Learn more: * AWS shared responsibility model
37
You are configuring service control policies (SCPs) in AWS Organizations. Which identities and resources can SCPs be applied to? (Select TWO.) A) IAM users B) IAM groups C) An individual member account D) IAM roles E) An organizational unit (OU)
C) An individual member account E) An organizational unit (OU) The correct two response options are: * An individual member account * An organizational unit (OU) In AWS Organizations, you can apply service control policies (SCPs) to the organization root, an individual member account, or an OU. An SCP affects all IAM users, groups, and roles within an account, including the AWS account root user. You can apply IAM policies to IAM users, groups, or roles. You cannot apply an IAM policy to the AWS account root user. Learn more: * AWS Organizations(opens in a new tab) * Service control policies(opens in a new tab) * Attaching SCPs
38
Which tasks can you complete in AWS Artifact? (Select TWO.) A) Access AWS compliance reports on-demand. B) Consolidate and manage multiple AWS accounts within a central location. C) Create users to enable people and applications to interact with AWS services and resources. D) Set permissions for accounts by configuring service control policies (SCPs). E) Review, accept, and manage agreements with AWS
A) Access AWS compliance reports on-demand. E) Review, accept, and manage agreements with AWS The correct two response options are: * Access AWS compliance reports on-demand. * Review, accept, and manage agreements with AWS. The other response options are incorrect because: * Consolidate and manage multiple AWS accounts within a central location- This task can be completed in AWS Organizations. * Create users to enable people and applications to interact with AWS services and resources- This task can be completed in AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) * Set permissions for accounts by configuring service control policies (SCPs)- This task can be completed in AWS Organizations. Learn more: * AWS Artifact
39
Which statement best describes an IAM policy? A) An authentication process that provides an extra layer of protection for your AWS account B) A document that grants or denies permissions to AWS services and resources C) An identity that you can assume to gain temporary access to permissions D) The identity that is established when you first create an AWS account
B) A document that grants or denies permissions to AWS services and resources The correct response option is: A document that grants or denies permissions to AWS services and resources. IAM policies provide you with the flexibility to customize users’ levels of access to resources. For instance, you can allow users to access all the Amazon S3 buckets in your AWS account or only a specific bucket. The other response options are incorrect because: * Multi-factor authentication (MFA) is an authentication process that provides an extra layer of protection for your AWS account. * An IAM role is an identity that you can assume to gain temporary access to permissions. * The root user identity is the identity that is established when you first create an AWS account. Learn more: * AWS IAM: Policies and permissions
40
An employee requires temporary access to create several Amazon S3 buckets. Which option would be the best choice for this task? A) AWS account root user B) IAM group C) IAM role D) Service control policy (SCP)
C) IAM role The correct answer is IAM role. An IAM role is an identity that you can assume to gain temporary access to permissions. When someone assumes an IAM role, they abandon all permissions that they had under a previous role and assume the permissions of the new role. IAM roles are ideal for situations in which access to services or resources needs to be granted temporarily instead of long-term. The other response options are incorrect because: * The AWS account root user is established when you first create an AWS account. As a best practice, do not use the root user for everyday tasks. * Although you can attach IAM policies to an IAM group, this would not be the best choice for this scenario because the employee only needs to be granted temporary permissions. * Service control policies (SCPs) enable you to centrally control permissions for the accounts in your organization. An SCP is not the best choice for granting temporary permissions to an individual employee. Learn more: * IAM roles
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Which statement best describes the principle of least privilege? A) Adding an IAM user into at least one IAM group B) Checking a packet’s permissions against an access control list C) Granting only the permissions that are needed to perform specific tasks D) Performing a denial of service attack that originates from at least one device
C) Granting only the permissions that are needed to perform specific tasks The correct response option is: Granting only the permissions that are needed to perform specific job tasks. When you grant permissions by following the principle of least privilege, you prevent users or roles from having more permissions than needed to perform specific job tasks. For example, cashiers in the coffee shop should be given access to the cash register system. As a best practice, grant IAM users and roles a minimum set of permissions and then grant additional permissions as needed. Learn more: * Security best practices in IAM
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Which service helps protect your applications against distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks? A) Amazon GuardDuty B) Amazon Inspector C) AWS Artifact D) AWS Shield
D) AWS Shield The correct response option is AWS Shield. As network traffic comes into your applications, AWS Shield uses a variety of analysis techniques to detect potential DDoS attacks in real time and automatically mitigates them. The other response options are incorrect because: * Amazon GuardDuty is a service that provides intelligent threat detection for your AWS infrastructure and resources. It identifies threats by continuously monitoring the network activity and account behavior within your AWS environment. * Amazon Inspector checks applications for security vulnerabilities and deviations from security best practices, such as open access to Amazon EC2 instances and installations of vulnerable software versions. * AWS Artifact is a service that provides on-demand access to AWS security and compliance reports and select online agreements. Learn more: * AWS Shield
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Which task can AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) perform? A) Configure multi-factor authentication (MFA). B) Update the AWS account root user password. C) Create cryptographic keys. D) Assign permissions to users and groups.
C) Create cryptographic keys. The correct response option is: Create cryptographic keys. AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) enables you to perform encryption operations through the use of cryptographic keys. A cryptographic key is a random string of digits used for locking (encrypting) and unlocking (decrypting) data. You can use AWS KMS to create, manage, and use cryptographic keys. You can also control the use of keys across a wide range of services and in your applications. The other response options are incorrect because: * You can configure multi-factor authentication (MFA) in AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM). * You can update the AWS account root user password in the AWS Management Console. * You can assign permissions to users and groups in AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM). Learn more: * AWS KMS
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Which tasks can you perform using AWS CloudTrail? (Select TWO.) A) Monitor your AWS infrastructure and resources in real time B) Track user activities and API requests throughout your AWS infrastructure C) View metrics and graphs to monitor the performance of resources D) Filter logs to assist with operational analysis and troubleshooting E) Configure automatic actions and alerts in response to metrics
B) Track user activities and API requests throughout your AWS infrastructure D) Filter logs to assist with operational analysis and troubleshooting The correct two response options are: * Track user activities and API requests throughout your AWS infrastructure * Filter logs to assist with operational analysis and troubleshooting The other response options are tasks that you can perform in Amazon CloudWatch. Learn more: * AWS CloudTrail
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Which service enables you to review the security of your Amazon S3 buckets by checking for open access permissions? A) Amazon CloudWatch B) AWS CloudTrail C) AWS Trusted Advisor D) Amazon GuardDuty
C) AWS Trusted Advisor The correct response option is AWS Trusted Advisor. AWS Trusted Advisor is a web service that inspects your AWS environment and provides real-time recommendations in accordance with AWS best practices. The inspection includes security checks, such as Amazon S3 buckets with open access permissions. The other response options are incorrect because: * Amazon CloudWatch is a web service that enables you to monitor and manage various metrics for the resources that run your applications. * AWS CloudTrail is a web service that enables you to review details for user activities and API calls that have occurred within your AWS environment. * Amazon GuardDuty is a service that provides intelligent threat detection for your AWS environment and resources. It identifies threats by continuously monitoring the network activity and account behavior within your AWS environment. Learn more: * AWS Trusted Advisor
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Which actions can you perform using Amazon CloudWatch? (Select TWO.) A) Monitor your resources’ utilization and performance B) Receive real-time guidance for improving your AWS environment C) Compare your infrastructure to AWS best practices in five categories D) Access metrics from a single dashboard E) Automatically detect unusual account activity
A) Monitor your resources’ utilization and performance D) Access metrics from a single dashboard The two correct response options are: * Monitor your resources’ utilization and performance * Access metrics from a single dashboard The other response options are incorrect because: * Receiving real-time recommendations for improving your AWS environment can be performed by AWS Trusted Advisor. * Comparing your infrastructure to AWS best practices in five categories can be performed by AWS Trusted Advisor. * Automatically detecting unusual account activity can be performed by AWS CloudTrail. Learn more: * Amazon CloudWatch
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Which categories are included in the AWS Trusted Advisor dashboard? (Select TWO.) A) Reliability B) Performance C) Scalability D) Elasticity E) Fault tolerance
B) Performance E) Fault tolerance The two correct response options are: * Performance * Fault tolerance AWS Trusted Advisor continuously inspects your AWS environment and provides best practice recommendations across five categories: cost optimization, performance, security, fault tolerance, and service limits. Learn more: * AWS Trusted Advisor
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The AWS Free Tier includes offers that are available to new AWS customers for a certain period of time following their AWS sign-up date. What is the duration of this period? A) 3 months B) 6 months C) 9 months D) 12 months
D) 12 months The correct response option is 12 months. The AWS Free Tier consists of three types of offers that allow customers to use AWS services without incurring costs: Always free, 12 months free, and Trials. For 12 months after you first sign up for an AWS account, you can take advantage of offers in the 12 Months Free category. Examples of offers in this category include specific amounts of Amazon S3 Standard Storage, thresholds for monthly hours of Amazon EC2 compute time, and amounts of Amazon CloudFront data transfer out. Learn more: * AWS Free Tier
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Which Support plan includes all AWS Trusted Advisor checks at the lowest cost? A) Basic B) Developer C) Business D) Enterprise
C) Business The correct response option is Business. Only the Business, Enterprise On-Ramp, and Enterprise Support plans include all AWS Trusted Advisor checks. Of these three Support plans, the Business Support plan has a lower cost. Learn more: * Compare AWS Support plans
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Which Perspective of the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework helps you design, implement, and optimize your AWS infrastructure based on your business goals and perspectives? A) Business Perspective B) Platform Perspective C) Operations Perspective D) People Perspective
B) Platform Perspective The correct response option is Platform Perspective. The Platform Perspective of the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework also includes principles for implementing new solutions and migrating on-premises workloads to the cloud. The other response options are incorrect because: * The Business Perspective helps you to move from a model that separates business and IT strategies into a business model that integrates IT strategy. * The Operations Perspective focuses on operating and recovering IT workloads to meet the requirements of your business stakeholders. * The People Perspective helps Human Resources (HR) employees prepare their teams for cloud adoption by updating organizational processes and staff skills to include cloud-based competencies. Learn more: * Whitepaper: An Overview of the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework
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Which migration strategy involves moving to a different product? A) Refactoring B) Retiring C) Replatforming D) Repurchasing
D) Repurchasing The correct response option is Repurchasing. Repurchasing involves replacing an existing application with a cloud-based version, such as software found in AWS Marketplace. The other response options are incorrect because: * Refactoring involves changing how an application is architected and developed, typically by using cloud-native features. * Retiring involves removing an application that is no longer used or that can be turned off. * Replatforming involves selectively optimizing aspects of an application to achieve benefits in the cloud without changing the core architecture of the application. It is also known as “lift, tinker, and shift.” Learn more: * 6 Strategies for Migrating Applications to the Cloud
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What is the storage capacity of Snowball Edge Storage Optimized? A) 40 TB B) 60 TB C) 80 TB D) 100 TB
C) 80 TB The correct response option is 80 TB. Snowball Edge Storage Optimized is a device that enables you to transfer large amounts of data into and out of AWS. It provides 80 TB of usable HDD storage. Learn more: * AWS Snow Family
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Which service enables you to quickly build, train, and deploy machine learning models? A) Amazon Textract B) Amazon Lex C) AWS DeepRacer D) Amazon SageMaker
D) Amazon SageMaker The correct response option is Amazon SageMaker. With Amazon SageMaker, you can quickly and easily begin working on machine learning projects. You do not need to follow the traditional process of manually bringing together separate tools and workflows. The other response options are incorrect because: * Amazon Textract is a machine learning service that automatically extracts text and data from scanned documents. * Amazon Lex is a service that enables you to build conversational interfaces using voice and text. * AWS DeepRacer is an autonomous 1/18 scale race car that you can use to test reinforcement learning models. Learn more: * Amazon SageMaker
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Which Perspective of the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework helps you structure the selection and implementation of permissions? A) Governance Perspective B) Security Perspective C) Operations Perspective D) Business Perspective
B) Security Perspective The correct response option is Security Perspective. The Security Perspective of the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework also helps you to identify areas on non-compliance and plan ongoing security initiatives. The other response options are incorrect because: * The Governance Perspective helps you to identify and implement best practices for IT governance and support business processes with technology. * The Operations Perspective focuses on operating and recovering IT workloads to meet the requirements of your business stakeholders. * The Business Perspective helps you to move from a model that separates business and IT strategies into a business model that integrates IT strategy. Learn more: * Whitepaper: An Overview of the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework
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Which strategies are included in the six strategies for application migration? (Select TWO.) A) Revisiting B) Retaining C) Remembering D) Redeveloping E) Rehosting
B) Retaining E) Rehosting The two correct response options are: * Retaining * Rehosting The application migration strategies are rehosting, replatforming, refactoring/re-architecting, repurchasing, retaining, and retiring. Learn more: * 6 Strategies for Migrating Applications to the Cloud
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What is the storage capacity of AWS Snowmobile? A) 40 PB B) 60 PB C) 80 PB D) 100 PB
D) 100 PB The correct response option is 100 PB. AWS Snowmobile is a service that is used for transferring up to 100 PB of data to AWS. Each Snowmobile is a 45-foot long shipping container that is pulled by a semi trailer truck. Learn more: * AWS Snow Family
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Which statement best describes Amazon Lex? A) A service that enables you to build conversational interfaces using voice and text B) A machine learning service that automatically extracts text and data from scanned documents C) A document database service that supports MongoDB workloads D) A service that enables you to identify potentially fraudulent online activities
A) A service that enables you to build conversational interfaces using voice and text The correct response option is "A service that enables you to build conversational interfaces using voice and text." In Amazon Lex, you can quickly build, test, and deploy conversational chatbots to use in your applications. The other response options are incorrect because: * A machine learning service that automatically extracts text and data from scanned document describes Amazon Textract. * A document database service that supports MongoDB workloads describes Amazon DocumentDB. * A service that enables you to identify potentially fraudulent online activities describes Amazon Fraud Detector. Learn more: * Amazon Lex
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Which pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework focuses on the ability of a workload to consistently and correctly perform its intended functions? A) Operational Excellence B) Performance Efficiency C) Security D) Reliability
D) Reliability The correct response option is Reliability. The other response options are incorrect because: * The Operational Excellence pillar includes the ability to run workloads effectively, gain insights into their operations, and continuously improve supporting processes to deliver business value. * The Performance Efficiency pillar focuses on using computing resources efficiently to meet system requirements, and to maintain that efficiency as demand changes and technologies evolve. * The Security pillar includes protecting data, systems, and assets, and using cloud technologies to improve the security of your workloads. Learn more: * Whitepaper: AWS Well-Architected Framework
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Which process is an example of benefiting from massive economies of scale? A) Deploying an application in multiple Regions around the world B) Receiving lower pay-as-you-go prices as the result of AWS customers’ aggregated usage of services C) Paying for compute time as you use it instead of investing upfront costs in data centers D) Scaling your infrastructure capacity in and out to meet demand
B) Receiving lower pay-as-you-go prices as the result of AWS customers’ aggregated usage of services The correct response option is: Receiving lower pay-as-you-go prices as the result of AWS customers’ aggregated usage of services. Because usage from hundreds of thousands of customers is aggregated in the cloud, providers such as AWS can achieve higher economies of scale. The economies of scale translate into lower pay-as-you-go prices. The other response options are incorrect because: * Deploying an application in multiple Regions around the world: This process is an example of Go global in minutes. * Paying for compute time as you use it instead of investing upfront costs in data centers: This process is an example of Trade upfront expense for variable expense. * Scaling your infrastructure capacity in and out to meet demand: This process is an example of Stop guessing capacity. Learn more: * Six advantages of cloud computing
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Which pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework includes the ability to run workloads effectively and gain insights into their operations? A) Cost Optimization B) Operational Excellence C) Performance Efficiency D) Reliability
B) Operational Excellence The correct response option is Operational Excellence. The other response options are incorrect because: * The Cost Optimization pillar focuses on the ability to run systems to deliver business value at the lowest price point. * The Performance Efficiency pillar focuses on using computing resources efficiently to meet system requirements and to maintain that efficiency as demand changes and technologies evolve. * The Reliability pillar focuses on the ability of a workload to consistently and correctly perform its intended functions. Learn more: * AWS Well-Architected Framework
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Which process is an example of benefiting from massive economies of scale? A) Deploying an application in multiple Regions around the world B) Receiving lower pay-as-you-go prices as the result of AWS customers’ aggregated usage of services C) Paying for compute time as you use it instead of investing upfront costs in data centers D) Scaling your infrastructure capacity in and out to meet demand
B) Receiving lower pay-as-you-go prices as the result of AWS customers’ aggregated usage of services The correct response option is: Receiving lower pay-as-you-go prices as the result of AWS customers’ aggregated usage of services. Because usage from hundreds of thousands of customers is aggregated in the cloud, providers such as AWS can achieve higher economies of scale. The economies of scale translate into lower pay-as-you-go prices. The other response options are incorrect because: * Deploying an application in multiple Regions around the world: This process is an example of Go global in minutes. * Paying for compute time as you use it instead of investing upfront costs in data centers: This process is an example of Trade upfront expense for variable expense. * Scaling your infrastructure capacity in and out to meet demand: This process is an example of Stop guessing capacity. Learn more: * Six advantages of cloud computing
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Which pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework includes the ability to run workloads effectively and gain insights into their operations A) Cost Optimization B) Operational Excellence C) Performance Efficiency D) Reliability
B) Operational Excellence The correct response option is Operational Excellence. The other response options are incorrect because: * The Cost Optimization pillar focuses on the ability to run systems to deliver business value at the lowest price point. * The Performance Efficiency pillar focuses on using computing resources efficiently to meet system requirements and to maintain that efficiency as demand changes and technologies evolve. * The Reliability pillar focuses on the ability of a workload to consistently and correctly perform its intended functions. Learn more: * AWS Well-Architected Framework
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What are the benefits of cloud computing? (Select TWO.) A) Increase speed and agility. B) Benefit from smaller economies of scale. C) Trade variable expense for upfront expense. D) Maintain infrastructure capacity. E) Stop spending money running and maintaining data centers
A) Increase speed and agility. E) Stop spending money running and maintaining data centers The two correct response options are: * Increase speed and agility. * Stop spending money running and maintaining data centers. The six advantages of cloud computing are: * Trade upfront expense for variable expense. * Benefit from massive economies of scale. * Stop guessing capacity. * Increase speed and agility. * Stop spending money running and maintaining data centers. * Go global in minutes. Learn more: * Six advantages of cloud computing
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AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner exam results are reported as a score from 100–1,000. What is the minimum passing score? A) 650 B) 700 C) 850 D) 900
B) 700 The correct response option is 700. Key words and phrases that you might have identified in this question include minimum and AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner.
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Which domains are included on the AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner exam? (Select TWO.) Strategy: Think back to the exam domains that were reviewed earlier in this module. Based on the domains that you recall learning about, which response options do you think that you can eliminate as incorrect? A) Security and Compliance B) Automation and Optimization C) Monitoring and Reporting D) Billing and Pricing E) Deployment and Provisioning
A) Security and Compliance D) Billing and Pricing The two correct response options are: * Security and Compliance * Billing and Pricing Key words and phrases that you might have identified in this question include domains and AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner. The other three response options are domains that are included on the AWS Certified SysOps Administrator – Associate exam.
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Which statement best describes Amazon GuardDuty? A) A service that helps protect applications against distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks B) A service that monitors network requests for web applications C) A service that checks applications for security vulnerabilities and deviations from security best practices D) A service that provides intelligent threat detection for AWS infrastructure and resources
D) A service that provides intelligent threat detection for AWS infrastructure and resources The correct response option is A service that provides intelligent threat detection for your AWS infrastructure and resources. AWS GuardDuty identifies threats by continually monitoring the network activity and account behavior within an AWS environment. The other response options are incorrect because: * A service that helps protect applications against distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks - This response option describes AWS Shield. * A service that checks applications for security vulnerabilities and deviations from security best practices - This response option describes Amazon Inspector. * A service that monitors network requests for web applications - This response option describes AWS WAF. Learn more: * Amazon GuardDuty
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Which service provides review details for user activities and API calls that have occurred within an AWS environment? A) AWS Trusted Advisor B) Amazon CloudWatch C) AWS CloudTrail D) Amazon Inspector
C) AWS CloudTrail The correct response option is AWS CloudTrail. With CloudTrail, a person can view a complete history of user activity and API calls for their applications and resources. Events are typically updated in CloudTrail within 15 minutes after an API call was made. A person can filter events by specifying the time and date that an API call occurred, the user who requested the action, the type of resource that was involved in the API call, and more. The other response options are incorrect because: * Amazon CloudWatch is a service that provides data for monitoring applications, optimizing resource utilization, and responding to system-wide performance changes. * Amazon Inspector is a service that checks applications for security vulnerabilities and deviations from security best practices. * AWS Trusted Advisor is an online tool that inspects an AWS environment and provides real-time guidance in accordance with AWS best practices. Learn more: * AWS CloudTrail
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Which Perspective of the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework focuses on recovering IT workloads to meet the requirements of business stakeholders? A) People Perspective B) Governance Perspective C) Business Perspective D) Operations Perspective
D) Operations Perspective The correct response option is Operations Perspective. The Operations Perspective of the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework also includes principles for operating in the cloud by using agile best practices. The other response options are incorrect because: * The Business Perspective helps moves a business from a model that separates business and IT strategies into a business model that integrates IT strategy. * The People Perspective helps Human Resources (HR) employees prepare their teams for cloud adoption by updating organizational processes and staff skills to include cloud-based competencies. * The Governance Perspective provides the capability to update the staff skills and organizational processes that are necessary to ensure business governance in the cloud. Learn more: * Whitepaper: An Overview of the AWS Cloud Adoption Framework
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Which tool provides the capability to visualize, understand, and manage AWS costs and usage over time? A) AWS Cost Explorer B) AWS Budgets C) AWS Pricing Calculator D) AWS Artifact
A) AWS Cost Explorer The correct response option is AWS Cost Explorer. With AWS Cost Explorer, businesses can quickly create custom reports to analyze their AWS cost and usage data. The other response options are incorrect because: * AWS Budgets lets businesses set custom alerts that will notify individuals when a service usage exceeds (or is forecasted to exceed) the amount that has been budgeted. * AWS Pricing Calculator creates an estimate for the cost of a business' use cases on AWS. In the AWS Pricing Calculator, a person can enter details for their cloud computing requirements and then receive a detailed estimate that can be exported and shared. * AWS Artifact is a service that provides access to AWS security and compliance reports and special online agreements. Learn more: * AWS Cost Explorer
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An application developer wants to store data in a key-value database. Which service should they use? A) Amazon Aurora B) Amazon DocumentDB C) Amazon DynamoDB D) Amazon RDS
C) Amazon DynamoDB The correct response option is Amazon DynamoDB. Amazon DynamoDB is a key-value database service. A key-value database might include data pairs such as “Name: John Doe,” “Address: 123 Any Street,” and “City: Anytown”. In a key-value database, you can add or remove attributes from items in the table at any time. Additionally, not every item in the table has to have the same attributes. The other response options are incorrect because: * Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) and Amazon Aurora use structured query language (SQL) to store and query data. They are not key-value databases. * Amazon DocumentDB is a document database service that supports MongoDB workloads. Learn more: * Amazon DynamoDB
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Which action can a person perform in Amazon CloudFront? A) Deliver content to customers through a global network of edge locations B) Provision resources by using programming languages or a text file C) Provision an isolated section of the AWS Cloud to launch resources in a virtual network that a person defines D) Run infrastructure in a hybrid cloud approach.
A) Deliver content to customers through a global network of edge locations The correct response is Deliver content to customers through a global network of edge locations. Amazon CloudFront is a content delivery service. It uses a network of edge locations to cache content and deliver content to customers all over the world. When content is cached, it is stored locally as a copy. This content might be video files, photos, webpages, and so on. The other response options are incorrect because: * Run infrastructure in a hybrid cloud approach - This action can be performed with AWS Outposts. * Provision resources by using programming languages or a text file - This action can be performed in AWS CloudFormation. * Provision an isolated section of the AWS Cloud to launch resources in a virtual network that a person defines - This action can be performed in Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC). Learn more: * Amazon CloudFront
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Which Support plans include access to all AWS Trusted Advisor checks? (Select TWO.) A) Enterprise B) Basic C) Business D) AWS Free Tier E) Developer
A) Enterprise C) Business The two correct response options are: * Enterprise * Business The other response options are incorrect because: * The Basic and Developer Support plans provide access to a limited selection of AWS Trusted Advisor checks. * The AWS Free Tier is not a Support plan. It is a program that consists of three types of offers that allow customers to use AWS services without incurring costs: Always free, 12 months free, and Trials. Learn more: * AWS Trusted Advisor
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A cloud architect wants Amazon S3 to monitor object access patterns. Which storage class should they use? A) Amazon S3 One Zone-IA B) Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering C) Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval D) Amazon S3 Standard-IA
B) Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering The correct response option is Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering. In the Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering storage class, Amazon S3 monitors object access patterns. If an object has not been accessed for 30 consecutive days, Amazon S3 automatically moves it to the infrequent access tier, Amazon S3 Standard-IA. If an object is accessed in the infrequent access tier, Amazon S3 automatically moves it to the frequent access tier, Amazon S3 Standard. The other response options are incorrect because: * Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval is a low-cost storage class that is ideal for data archiving. A person can retrieve objects stored in the Amazon S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval storage class within a few minutes to a few hours. * The Amazon S3 Standard-IA storage class is ideal for data that is infrequently accessed but requires high availability when needed. Both Amazon S3 Standard and Amazon S3 Standard-IA store data in a minimum of three Availability Zones. Amazon S3 Standard-IA provides the same level of availability as Amazon S3 Standard but at a lower storage price. * Amazon S3 One Zone-IA is ideal for infrequently accessed data that does not require high availability. Learn more: * Amazon S3 storage classes
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Which tool provides automation actions for AWS services and applications through scripts? A) AWS Command Line Interface B) Amazon QLDB C) AWS Snowball D) Amazon Redshift
A) AWS Command Line Interface The correct response option is AWS Command Line Interface. The AWS Command Line Interface (AWS CLI) provides the capability to control multiple AWS services directly from the command line within one tool. For example, a person can use commands to start an Amazon EC2 instance, connect an Amazon EC2 instance to a specific Auto Scaling group, and more. The AWS CLI is available for users on Windows, macOS, and Linux. The other response options are incorrect because: * Amazon Redshift is a data warehousing service for providing big data analytics. It offers the ability to collect data from many sources and provides insight into relationships and trends across a data set. * Amazon Quantum Ledger Database (Amazon QLDB) is a ledger database service. A person can use Amazon QLDB to review a complete history of all the changes that have been made to application data. * AWS Snowball is a device that transfers large amounts of data into and out of AWS. Learn more: * AWS Command Line Interface
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Which AWS Trusted Advisor category includes checks for high-utilization EC2 instances? A) Performance B) Cost Optimization C) Security D) Fault Tolerance
A) Performance The correct response option is Performance. In this category, AWS Trusted Advisor also helps improve the performance of services by providing recommendations for how to take advantage of provisioned throughput. The other response options are incorrect because: * The Security category includes checks that review permissions and identify which AWS security features to enable. * The Cost Optimization category includes checks for unused or idle resources that could be eliminated and provide cost savings. * The Fault Tolerance category includes checks to help improve an application's availability and redundancy. Learn more: * AWS Trusted Advisor
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Which statement best describes AWS Marketplace? A) A resource that can answer questions about best practices and assist with troubleshooting issues B) A resource that provides guidance, architectural reviews, and ongoing communication with companies as they plan, deploy, and optimize their applications C) An online tool that inspects an AWS environment and provides real-time guidance in accordance with AWS best practices D) A digital catalog that includes thousands of software listings from independent software vendors
D) A digital catalog that includes thousands of software listings from independent software vendors The correct response option is A digital catalog that includes thousands of listings from independent software vendors. Businesses can use AWS Marketplace to find, test, and buy software that runs on AWS. The other response options are incorrect because: * A resource that can answer questions about best practices and assist with troubleshooting issues - This response option describes AWS Support. * A resource that provides guidance, architectural reviews, and ongoing communication with companies as they plan, deploy, and optimize their applications - This response option describes a Technical Account Manager (TAM). * An online tool that inspects an AWS environment and provides real-time guidance in accordance with AWS best practices - This response option describes AWS Trusted Advisor. Learn more: * AWS Marketplace
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Which service is used to transfer up to 100 PB of data to AWS? A) Amazon Neptune B) Amazon CloudFront C) AWS Snowmobile D) AWS DeepRacer
C) AWS Snowmobile The correct response option is AWS Snowmobile. AWS Snowmobile is a service that is used for transferring up to 100 PB of data to AWS. Each Snowmobile is a 45-foot long shipping container that is pulled by a semi-trailer truck. The other response options are incorrect because: * Amazon Neptune is a graph database service. Amazon Neptune provides the capability to build and run applications that work with highly connected datasets, such as recommendation engines, fraud detection, and knowledge graphs. * Amazon CloudFront is a content delivery service. * AWS DeepRacer is an autonomous 1/18 scale race car that tests reinforcement learning models. Learn more: * AWS Snow Family
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Which service builds the workflows that are required for human review of machine learning predictions? A) Amazon Augmented AI B) Amazon Lex C) Amazon Aurora D) Amazon Textract
A) Amazon Augmented AI The correct response option is Amazon Augmented AI. Amazon Augmented AI (Amazon A2I) provides built-in human review workflows for common machine learning use cases, such as content moderation and text extraction from documents. With Amazon A2I, a person can also create their own workflows for machine learning models built on Amazon SageMaker or any other tools. The other response options are incorrect because: * Amazon Textract is a machine learning service that automatically extracts text and data from scanned documents. * Amazon Lex is a service that builds conversational interfaces using voice and text. * Amazon Aurora is an enterprise-class relational database. Learn more: * Amazon Augmented AI
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Which statement best describes Elastic Load Balancing? A) A service that monitors applications and automatically adds or removes capacity from resource groups in response to changing demand B) A service that provides data for monitoring applications, optimize resource utilization, and respond to system-wide performance changes C) A service that distributes incoming traffic across multiple targets, such as Amazon EC2 instances D) A service that provides the capability to create, manage, and scale a distributed in-memory or cache environment in the cloud
C) A service that distributes incoming traffic across multiple targets, such as Amazon EC2 instances The correct response option is A service that distributes incoming traffic across multiple targets, such as Amazon EC2 instances. A load balancer acts as a single point of contact for all incoming web traffic to an Auto Scaling group. This means that as Amazon EC2 instances are added or removed in response to the amount of incoming traffic, these requests are routed to the load balancer first and then spread across multiple resources that will handle them. The other response options are incorrect because: * A service that monitors applications and automatically adds or removes capacity from resource groups in response to changing demand - This response option describes AWS Auto Scaling. * A service that provides data for monitoring applications, optimize resource utilization, and respond to system-wide performance changes - This response option describes Amazon CloudWatch. Although Elastic Load Balancing does optimize resource utilization by distributing incoming traffic across available resources, this would not be the best response option because Elastic Load Balancing does not provide all the other listed features. * A service that provides the capability to create, manage, and scale a distributed in-memory or cache environment in the cloud - This response option describes Amazon ElastiCache. Learn more: * Elastic Load Balancing
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Which Amazon EC2 pricing option reduces costs when a business makes an hourly spend commitment to an instance family and Region for a 1-year or 3-year term? A) Dedicated Hosts B) Spot Instances C) EC2 Instance Savings Plans D) Reserved Instances
C) EC2 Instance Savings Plans The correct response option is EC2 Instance Savings Plans. EC2 Instance Savings Plans reduces compute costs by committing to a consistent hourly spend for a 1-year or 3-year term. This results in savings of up to 72% over On-Demand Instance costs. Any EC2 usage up to the commitment is charged at the discounted Savings Plan rate (for example, $10 an hour). Any EC2 usage beyond the commitment is charged at regular On-Demand Instance rates. The other response options are incorrect because: * Reserved Instances are a billing discount that is applied to the use of On-Demand Instances in an AWS account. A business can purchase Standard Reserved and Convertible Reserved Instances for a 1-year or 3-year term. Unlike EC2 Instance Savings Plans, Reserved Instances do not require an hourly spend commitment over the duration of the contract term. * Spot Instances are ideal for workloads with flexible start and end times or that can withstand interruptions. Spot Instances leverage unused EC2 computing capacity and offer cost savings at up to 90% of On-Demand Instance prices. * Dedicated Hosts are physical servers with EC2 instance capacity that is fully dedicated to a single customer. A business can use existing per-socket, per-core, or per-VM software licenses to help maintain license compliance. A business can purchase On-Demand Dedicated Hosts or Reserved Dedicated Hosts. Of all the Amazon EC2 options that were covered in this course, Dedicated Hosts are the most expensive. Learn more: * Savings Plans
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Which statement best describes an Availability Zone? A) A fully isolated portion of the AWS global infrastructure B) A separate geographical location with multiple locations that are isolated from each other C) The server from which Amazon CloudFront gets files D) A site that Amazon CloudFront uses to cache copies of content for faster delivery to users at any location
A) A fully isolated portion of the AWS global infrastructure The correct response option is A fully isolated portion of the AWS global infrastructure. An Availability Zone is a single data center or a group of data centers within a Region. Availability Zones are located tens of miles apart from each other. This helps them to provide interconnectivity to support the services and applications that run within a Region. The other response options are incorrect because: * A separate geographical location with multiple locations that are isolated from each other - This response option describes a Region. * The server from which Amazon CloudFront gets files - This response option describes an origin. * A site that Amazon CloudFront uses to cache copies of content for faster delivery to users at any location - This response option describes an Edge location. Learn more: * AWS global infrastructure(opens in a new tab) * Regions and Availability Zones
80
Which migration strategy involves changing how an application is architected and developed, typically by using cloud-native features? A) Repurchasing B) Rehosting C) Replatforming D) Refactoring
D) Refactoring The correct response option is Refactoring. The other response options are incorrect because: * Repurchasing involves replacing an existing application with a cloud-based version, such as software found in AWS Marketplace. * Rehosting involves moving an application to the cloud with little to no modifications to the application itself. It is also known as “lift and shift.” * Replatforming involves selectively optimizing aspects of an application to achieve benefits in the cloud without changing the core architecture of the application. It is also known as “lift, tinker, and shift.” Learn more: * 6 Strategies for Migrating Applications to the Cloud
81
Which statement is TRUE for AWS Lambda? A) The first step in using AWS Lambda is provisioning a server B) Before using AWS Lambda, a business must prepay for their estimated compute time C) To use AWS Lambda, businesses must configure the servers that run their code D) Businesses pay only for compute time while their code is running
D) Businesses pay only for compute time while their code is running The correct response option is Businesses pay only for compute time while their code is running. AWS Lambda is a service that runs code without needing to provision or manage servers. While using AWS Lambda, businesses pay only for the compute time that they consume. They are charged only when their application code is running. With AWS Lambda, they can run code for virtually any type of application or backend service, all with zero administration. Learn more: * AWS Lambda
82
In the S3 Intelligent-Tiering storage class, Amazon S3 moves objects between a frequent access tier and an infrequent access tier. Which storage classes are used for these tiers? (Select TWO.) A) S3 Standard-IA B) S3 Glacier Deep Archive C) S3 One Zone-IA D) S3 Standard E) S3 Glacier Flexible Retrieval
A) S3 Standard-IA D) S3 Standard The two correct response options are: * S3 Standard * S3 Standard-IA In the S3 Intelligent-Tiering storage class, Amazon S3 monitors objects access patterns. If an object has not accessed an object for 30 consecutive days, Amazon S3 automatically moves it to the infrequent access tier, S3 Standard-IA. If an object is accessed in the infrequent access tier, Amazon S3 automatically moves it to the frequent access tier, S3 Standard. Learn more: * Amazon S3 storage classes
83
Which service consolidates and manages multiple AWS accounts from a central location? A) AWS Organizations B) AWS Artifact C) AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) D) AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
A) AWS Organizations The correct response option is AWS Organizations. In AWS Organizations, businesses centrally control permissions for their accounts by using service control policies (SCPs). Additionally, businesses can use the consolidated billing feature in AWS Organizations to combine usage and receive a single bill for multiple AWS accounts. The other response options are incorrect because: * AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) is a service that manages access to AWS services and resources. * AWS Artifact is a service that provides the capability to access AWS security and compliance reports and special online agreements. * AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) is a service that creates, manages, and uses cryptographic keys. Learn more: * AWS Organizations
84
Which actions can a person perform in Amazon Route 53? (Select TWO.) A) Manage DNS records for domain names. B) Access AWS security and compliance reports and select online agreements C) Monitor applications and respond to system-wide performance changes D) Connect user requests to infrastructure in AWS and outside of AWS E) Automate the deployment of workloads into an AWS environment
A) Manage DNS records for domain names. D) Connect user requests to infrastructure in AWS and outside of AWS The correct two response options are: * Connect user requests to infrastructure in AWS and outside of AWS. * Manage DNS records for domain names. Amazon Route 53 is a DNS web service. It gives developers and businesses a reliable way to route end users to internet applications that are hosted in AWS. Additionally, businesses can transfer DNS records for existing domain names that are currently managed by other domain registrars, or register new domain names directly within Amazon Route 53. The other response options are incorrect because: * Monitor applications and respond to system-wide performance changes - These actions can be performed in Amazon CloudWatch. * Access AWS security and compliance reports and special online agreements - This action can be performed in AWS Artifact. * Automate the deployment of workloads into an AWS environment - This action can be performed with AWS Quick Starts. Learn more: * Amazon Route 53
85
An application developer wants to send and receive messages between distributed application components. Which service should they use? A) Amazon Route 53 B) Amazon ElastiCache C) AWS Snowball D) Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS)
D) Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) The correct response option is Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS). Amazon SQS is a message queuing service. Using Amazon SQS, an application developer can send, store, and receive messages between software components at any volume size, without losing messages or requiring other services to be available. In Amazon SQS, an application sends messages into a queue. A user or service retrieves a message from the queue, processes it, and then deletes it from the queue. The other response options are incorrect because: * AWS Snowball is a device that transfers large amounts of data into and out of AWS. * Amazon ElastiCache is a service that adds caching layers on top of databases to help improve the read times of common requests. * Amazon Route 53 is a DNS web service. It gives developers and businesses a reliable way to route end users to internet applications that are hosted in AWS. Additionally, a person can transfer DNS records for existing domain names that are currently managed by other domain registrars or register new domain names directly in Amazon Route 53. Learn more: * Amazon SQS
86
Which pillar of the AWS Well-Architected Framework focuses on using computing resources in ways that meet system requirements? A) Reliability B) Operational Excellence C) Performance Efficiency D) Security
C) Performance Efficiency The correct response option is Performance Efficiency. The Performance Efficiency pillar focuses on using computing resources efficiently to meet system requirements, and to maintain that efficiency as demand changes and technologies evolve. The other responses are incorrect because: * The Operational Excellence pillar includes the ability to run workloads effectively, gain insights into their operations, and continuously improve supporting processes to deliver business value. * The Security pillar focuses on protecting data, systems, and assets. It also focuses on using cloud technologies to improve the security of your workloads. * The Reliability pillar focuses on the ability of a workload to consistently and correctly perform its intended functions. Learn more: * AWS Well-Architected Framework
87
Which service provides the capability to quickly deploy and scale applications on AWS? A) Amazon CloudFront B) AWS Outposts C) AWS Snowball D) AWS Elastic Beanstalk
D) AWS Elastic Beanstalk The correct response option is AWS Elastic Beanstalk. Businesses upload their application, and Elastic Beanstalk automatically handles the deployment details of capacity provisioning, load balancing, auto-scaling, and application health monitoring. The other response options are incorrect because: * AWS Outposts is a service that runs infrastructure in a hybrid cloud approach. * Amazon CloudFront is a content delivery service. * AWS Snowball is a device that transfers large amounts of data into and out of AWS. Learn more: * AWS Quick Starts
88
Which tasks are the responsibilities of AWS? (Select TWO.) A) Training company employees on how to use AWS services B) Maintaining virtualization infrastructure C) Creating IAM users and groups D) Configuring security groups on Amazon EC2 instances E) Configuring AWS infrastructure devices
B) Maintaining virtualization infrastructure E) Configuring AWS infrastructure devices The two correct response options are: * Maintaining virtualization infrastructure * Configuring AWS infrastructure devices The other three response options are tasks that are the responsibilities of customers. Learn more: * AWS shared responsibility model
89
Which component or service establishes a dedicated private connection between an on-premises data center and virtual private cloud (VPC)? A) Virtual private gateway B) Internet gateway C) AWS Direct Connect D) Amazon CloudFront
C) AWS Direct Connect The correct response option is AWS Direct Connect. AWS Direct Connect is a service that establishes a dedicated private connection between an on-premises data center and VPC. The private connection that AWS Direct Connect provides helps reduce network costs and increase the amount of bandwidth that can travel through a network. The other response options are incorrect because: * Amazon CloudFront is a content delivery service. It uses a network of edge locations to cache content and deliver content to customers all over the world. * A virtual private gateway establishes a virtual private network (VPN) connection between a VPC and a private network, such as an on-premises data center or internal corporate network. A virtual private gateway allows traffic into the VPC only if it is coming from an approved network. * An internet gateway is a connection between a VPC and the internet. It allows public traffic from the internet to access a VPC. Learn more: * AWS Direct Connect
90
Which virtual private cloud (VPC) component controls inbound and outbound traffic for Amazon EC2 instances? A) Internet gateway B) Network access control list C) Security group D) Subnet
C) Security group The correct response option is security group. A security group is a virtual firewall that controls inbound and outbound traffic for an Amazon EC2 instance. By default, a security group denies all inbound traffic and allows all outbound traffic. Businesses can add custom rules to configure which traffic should be allowed or denied. The other response options are incorrect because: * A subnet is a section of a VPC in which a person can group resources based on security or operational needs. * A network access control list (ACL) is a virtual firewall that controls inbound and outbound traffic at the subnet level. * An internet gateway is a connection between a VPC and the internet. It allows public traffic from the internet to access a VPC. Learn more: * Security groups for your VPC
91
Which service runs containerized applications on AWS? A) Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) B) Amazon Redshift C) Amazon Aurora D) Amazon SageMaker
A) Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) The correct response option is Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS). Amazon EKS is a fully managed service that runs Kubernetes on AWS. Kubernetes is open-source software that deploys and manages containerized applications at scale. Containers provide a standard way to package an application's code and dependencies into a single object. Containers are frequently used for processes and workflows in which there are essential requirements for security, reliability, and scalability. The other response options are incorrect because: * Amazon SageMaker is a service that provides the capability to quickly build, train, and deploy machine learning models. * Amazon Aurora is an enterprise-class relational database. * Amazon Redshift is a data warehousing service for big data analytics. Learn more: * Amazon EKS
92
A cloud engineer wants to store data in a volume that is attached to an Amazon EC2 instance. Which service should they use? A) Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) B) AWS Lambda C) Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) D) Amazon ElastiCache
C) Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) The correct response option is Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS). Amazon EBS provides block-level storage volumes for Amazon EC2 instances. If a person stops or terminates an Amazon EC2 instance, all the data on the attached EBS volume remains available. The other response options are incorrect because: * Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) is a service that provides object-level storage. Amazon S3 stores data as objects within buckets. * AWS Lambda is a service that runs code without provisioning or managing servers. * Amazon ElastiCache is a service that adds caching layers on top of databases to help improve the read times of common requests. Learn more: * Amazon EBS
93
A cloud engineer is running an Amazon EC2 instance and wants to store data in an attached resource. Their data is temporary and will not be kept long term. Which resource should they use? A) Amazon S3 bucket B) Subnet C) Instance store D) Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume
C) Instance store The correct response option is instance store. Instance stores are ideal for temporary data that does not need to be kept long term. When an Amazon EC2 instance is stopped or terminated, all the data that has been written to the attached instance store is deleted. The other response options are incorrect because: * Amazon EBS volumes are ideal for data that needs to be retained. When an Amazon EC2 instance is stopped or terminated, all of the data on the attached EBS volume is still available. * Amazon S3 buckets cannot be attached to Amazon EC2 instances. * A subnet is a section of a virtual private cloud (VPC) in which you can group resources based on security or operational needs. Learn more: * Amazon EC2 instance store
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Which action can you perform with consolidated billing? A) Review how much cost your predicted AWS usage will incur by the end of the month. B) Create an estimate for the cost of your use cases on AWS. C) Combine usage across accounts to receive volume pricing discounts. D) Visualize and manage your AWS costs and usage over time.
C) Combine usage across accounts to receive volume pricing discounts. The correct response option is: Combine usage across accounts to receive volume pricing discounts. The other response options are incorrect because: * Review how much cost your predicted AWS usage will incur by the end of the month - You can perform this action in AWS Budgets. * Create an estimate for the cost of your use cases on AWS - You can perform this action in AWS Pricing Calculator. * Visualize and manage your AWS costs and usage over time - You can perform this action in AWS Cost Explorer. Learn more: * Consolidated billing for AWS Organizations
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Which pricing tool is used to visualize, understand, and manage your AWS costs and usage over time? A) AWS Pricing Calculator B) AWS Budgets C) AWS Cost Explorer D) AWS Free Tier
C) AWS Cost Explorer The correct response option is AWS Cost Explorer. AWS Cost Explorer includes a default report of the costs and usage for your top five cost-accruing AWS services. You can apply custom filters and groups to analyze your data. For example, you can view resource usage at the hourly level. The other response options are incorrect because: * AWS Pricing Calculator enables you to create an estimate for the cost of your use cases on AWS. * AWS Budgets enables you to create budgets to plan your service usage, service costs, and instance reservations. In AWS Budgets, you can also set custom alerts when your usage exceeds (or is forecasted to exceed) the budgeted amount. * The AWS Free Tier is a program that consists of three types of offers that allow customers to use AWS services without incurring costs: Always free, 12 months free, and Trials. Learn more: * AWS Cost Explorer
96
Which pricing tool enables you to receive alerts when your service usage exceeds a threshold that you have defined? A) Billing dashboard in the AWS Management Console B) AWS Budgets C) AWS Free Tier D) AWS Cost Explorer
B) AWS Budgets The correct response option is AWS Budgets. In AWS Budgets, you can set custom alerts that will notify you when your service usage exceeds (or is forecasted to exceed) the amount that you have budgeted. Your budget can be based on costs or usage. For example, you can set an alert that will notify you when you have incurred $100.00 of costs in Amazon EC2 or 500,000 requests in AWS Lambda. The other response options are incorrect because: * From the billing dashboard in the AWS Management Console, you can view details on your AWS bill, such as service costs by Region, month to date spend, and more. However, you cannot set alerts from the billing dashboard. * The AWS Free Tier is a program that consists of three types of offers that allow customers to use AWS services without incurring costs: Always free, 12 months free, and Trials. * AWS Cost Explorer is a tool that enables you to visualize, understand, and manage your AWS costs and usage over time. Learn more: * AWS Budgets
97
Your company wants to receive support from an AWS Technical Account Manager (TAM). Which support plan should you choose? A) Developer B) Enterprise C) Basic D) Business
B) Enterprise The correct response option is Enterprise. A Technical Account Manager (TAM) is available only to AWS customers with the Enterprise On-Ramp and Enterprise Support plans. A TAM provides guidance, architectural reviews, and ongoing communication with your company as you plan, deploy, and optimize your applications. Learn more: * Compare AWS Support plans
98
Which service or resource is used to find third-party software that runs on AWS? A) AWS Marketplace B) AWS Free Tier C) AWS Support D) Billing dashboard in the AWS Management Console
A) AWS Marketplace The correct response option is AWS Marketplace. AWS Marketplace is a digital catalog that includes thousands of software listings from independent software vendors. You can use AWS Marketplace to find, test, and buy software that runs on AWS. The other response options are incorrect because: * The AWS Free Tier consists of offers that allow customers to use AWS services without incurring costs. These offers are related to AWS services, not third-party software that can be used on AWS. * AWS Support is a resource that can answer questions about best practices, assist with troubleshooting issues, help you to identify ways to optimize your use of AWS services, and so on. * You can use the billing dashboard in the AWS Management Console to view details such as service costs by Region, the top services being used by your account, and forecasted billing costs. From the billing dashboard, you can also access other AWS billing tools, such as AWS Cost Explorer, AWS Budgets, and AWS Budgets Reports. Learn more: * AWS Marketplace
99
What does the Snowball Edge Storage Optimized provide
* Snowball Edge Storage Optimized devices are well suited for large-scale data migrations and recurring transfer workflows, in addition to local computing with higher capacity needs. ○ Storage: 80 TB of hard disk drive (HDD) capacity for block volumes and Amazon S3 compatible object storage, and 1 TB of SATA solid state drive (SSD) for block volumes. Compute: 40 vCPUs, and 80 GiB of memory to support Amazon EC2 sbe1 instances (equivalent to C5).
100
What does the Snowball Edge Compute Optimized provide?
* Snowball Edge Compute Optimized provides powerful computing resources for use cases such as machine learning, full motion video analysis, analytics, and local computing stacks. ○ Storage: 80-TB usable HDD capacity for Amazon S3 compatible object storage or Amazon EBS compatible block volumes and 28 TB of usable NVMe SSD capacity for Amazon EBS compatible block volumes. Compute: 104 vCPUs, 416 GiB of memory, and an optional NVIDIA Tesla V100 GPU. Devices run Amazon EC2 sbe-c and sbe-g instances, which are equivalent to C5, M5a, G3, and P3 instances.
101
What does the Snowmobile provide?
AWS Snowmobile is an exabyte-scale data transfer service used to move large amounts of data to AWS. You can transfer up to 100 petabytes of data per Snowmobile, a 45-foot long ruggedized shipping container, pulled by a semi trailer truck.
102
What are the advantages of using cloud computing?
By using cloud computing, you can achieve a lower variable cost than you can get on your own. Because usage from hundreds of thousands of customers aggregates in the cloud, providers such as AWS can achieve higher economies of scale. Economies of scale translate into lower pay-as-you-go prices
103
What are the 4 Domains of the Exam?
1 Cloud Concepts 2 Security and Compliance 3 Technology 4 Billing and Pricing
104
What is cloud computing? A) Backing up files that are stored on desktop and mobile devices to prevent data loss B) Deploying applications connected to on-premises infrastructure C) Running code without needing to manage or provision servers D) On-demand delivery of IT resources and applications through the internet with pay-as-you-go pricing
D) On-demand delivery of IT resources and applications through the internet with pay-as-you-go pricing
105
What is another name for on-premises deployment? A) Private cloud deployment B) Cloud-based application C) Hybrid deployment D) AWS Cloud
A) Private cloud deployment
106
How does the scale of cloud computing help you to save costs? A) You do not have to invest in technology resources before using them. B) The aggregated cloud usage from a large number of customers results in lower pay-as-you-go prices. C) Accessing services on-demand helps to prevent excess or limited capacity. D) You can quickly deploy applications to customers and provide them with low latency.
B) The aggregated cloud usage from a large number of customers results in lower pay-as-you-go prices.
107
Which Amazon EC2 instance type is suitable for data warehousing applications? A) Memory optimized B) Storage optimized C) General purpose D) Compute optimized
B) Storage optimized
108
Which Amazon EC2 instance type balances compute, memory, and networking resources? A) Memory optimized B) Storage optimized C) General purpose D) Compute optimized
C) General purpose
109
Which Amazon EC2 instance type is ideal for high-performance databases? A) Memory optimized B) Storage optimized C) General purpose D) Compute optimized
A) Memory optimized
110
Which Amazon EC2 instance type offers high-performance processors? A) Memory optimized B) Storage optimized C) General purpose D) Compute optimized
D) Compute optimized
111
Which Amazon EC2 pricing option provides a discount when you specify a number of EC2 instances to run a specific OS, instance family and size, and tenancy in one Region? A) Convertible Reserved Instances B) EC2 Instance Savings Plans C) Spot Instances D) Standard Reserved Instances
D) Standard Reserved Instances
112
Which Amazon EC2 pricing option provides a discount when you make an hourly spend commitment to an instance family and Region for a 1-year or 3-year term? A) On-demand B) EC2 Instance Savings Plans C) Spot Instances D) Reserved Instances
B) EC2 Instance Savings Plans
113
Which AWS service is the best choice for publishing messages to subscribers? A) Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) B) Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling C) Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) D) Elastic Load Balancing
C) Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
114
What is not a valid connection point for a Site-to-Site VPN to AWS? A) AWS Transit Gateway B) Application Load Balancer C) Amazon EC2 instance D) Virtual gateway
B) Application Load Balancer
115
What is NOT a valid termination point for a Direct Connect link? A) Private VIF to Direct Connect gateway B) Transit VIF from Direct Connect router to Direct Connect gateway C) Private VIF to virtual private gateway VPN over public VIF
B) Transit VIF from Direct Connect router to Direct Connect gateway
116
True or false: Using a Direct Connect private VIF, you can connect to VPCs in any Region? A) True B) False
B) False
117
True or False: You can connect to AWS Client VPN using a AWS provided client or any OpenVPN-based client? A) True B) False
A) True
118
What is NOT a default use case for private hosted zones in Rout 53? A) Route traffic in a VPC using custom domain names B) Create A or AAAA records C) Resolve private zone records from on premises D) Line the zone to multiple VPCs
C) Resolve private zone records from on premises
119
Which connection protocol does an AWS Storage Gateway device NOT support? A) NFS B) SMB C) FTP D) iSCSI
C) FTP
120
What is a valid Storage Gateway mode? A) Object B) Local C) Relational D) File
D) File
121
True or False: You can run any AWS service through AWS Outposts in a disconnected mode? A) True B) False
B) False
122
IN an AWS Wavelength deployment, what do 5G devices connect to? A) Services running in an AWS Region B) Amazon EC2, ECS, and EKS resources running in an AWS Region C) Amazon EC2, ECS, and EKS resources running in the communication service provider's data center (CSP DC) D) An AWS Outposts rack
C) Amazon EC2, ECS, and EKS resources running in the communication service provider's data center (CSP DC)
123
You need to host an application that requires low latency to multiple local offices in Boston and Chicago. You want to use cloud-managed resources. the closest AWS Region is hundreds of miles away from the offices. Which solution should you consider? A) Outposts B) Local Zones C) Wavelength D) Storage Gateway
B) Local Zones
124
What can NOT be attached to a transit gateway? A) VPC B) VPN C) Direct Connect D) Direct Connect gateway
C) Direct Connect
125
True or False: AWS PrivateLink create a bidirectional access link from the service provider to the consumer? A) True B) False
B) False
126
What is a possible reason you could be blocked from attaching a VPC to a transit gateway? A) The VPC is not from the same account as the transit gateway B) The VPC does not have the correct IAM permissions C) The VPC does not have a subnet in every Availability Zone in the Region D) the VPC is not using IPv6
A) The VPC is not from the same account as the transit gateway
127
Which statement is NOT true of transit gateways? A) Transit gateways connect to one or more subnets in a VPC B) You can peer transit gateways accross Regions C) You can peer transit gateways within the same Region D) Transit gate support routing between VPCs with indentical CIDRs
D) Transit gate support routing between VPCs with identical CIDRs
128
What is a set of instructions written in JSON to tell Amazon ECS how to run a Docker container? A) Dockerfile B) Task definition C) Container image D) Container registry
B) Task definition
129
True or False: You can run containers deployed on the ECS launch type of Fargate and containers deployed on Amazon EC2 on the same cluster? A) True B) False
A) True
130
True or False: You can use Amazon ECS API calls to launch Fargate tasks? A) True B) False
A) True
131
What are the volume storage options for Amazon ECS containers? (Select THREE) A) Amazon EC2 instance store B) Container storage C) Amazon EC2 with EBS D) Amazon EFS
A) Amazon EC2 instance store C) Amazon EC2 with EBS D) Amazon EFS
132
Which services perform orchestration operations? (Select TWO) A) Amazon ECS B) Fargate C) Amazon ECR D) Amazon EAKS
A) Amazon ECS D) Amazon EAKS
133
What are key metrics for evaluating the results of a CI/CD model? (Select THREE) A) Increased deployment frequency B) Decreased lead time C) Decreased deployment failure rate D) Number of developers required for a project
A) Increased deployment frequency B) Decreased lead time C) Decreased deployment failure rate
134
What are valid deployment targets for CodeDeploy? (Select FOUR) A) EC2 instances B) AWS Lambda C) On-permises servers D) Snowball Edge E) Amazon ECS
A) EC2 instances B) AWS Lambda C) On-permises servers E) Amazon ECS
135
Which AWS service is designed to help orchestrate events in a CI/CD model? A) CodeDeploy B) CodeBuild C) CodeCommit D) CodePipeline
D) CodePipeline
136
What are benefits of using CI/CD with infrastructure as code? (Select THREE) A) Central repository B) Version control C) Automated validation D) Eliminated need to code templates
A) Central repository B) Version control C) Automated validation
137
What is best practice with a backend database when you want to use blue/green deployments? A) Make a new copy of the database for the new version to use B) Avoid any database changes between application versions C) Make sure all database changes are backwards compatible D) Do not use blue/green if you use a backend database
C) Make sure all database changes are backwards compatible
138
Which resources can AWS WAF protect? (Select THREE) A) Kinesis Data Streams B) CloudFront distributions C) API Gateway deployments D) Application Load Balancers
B) CloudFront distributions C) API Gateway deployments D) Application Load Balancers
139
Which statements are true regarding Shield Advanced? (Select THREE) A) It offers more visibility than Shield Standard B) You pay extra for AWS WAF and Firewall Manager C) it is a subscription service D) The AWS DDos team will triage attacks and analyze policies
A) It offers more visibility than Shield Standard C) it is a subscription service D) The AWS DDos team will triage attacks and analyze policies
140
True or False: AWS firewall Manager requires AWS Organizations A) True B) False
A) True
141
Your organization encrypts a file on Amazon S3 and does not specify its own encryption key. Who manages the encryption key for the file? A) Amazon S3 B) Your organization C) IAM D) CloudWatch
A) Amazon S3
142
What are features of AWS KMS? (Select THREE) A) It installs into your VPC B) It can rotate keys automatically C) It protects KMS keys D) You can control key useage through policies E) You can route traffic between VPCs
B) It can rotate keys automatically C) It protects KMS keys D) You can control key useage through policies
143
Which statements are true regarding CloudHSM? (Select THREE) A) You can use up to 28 devices in a cluster B) You can clone clusters C) You can use it for envelopes encryption D) You can customize workflows E) You can set workflows as one-time or recurring events
A) You can use up to 28 devices in a cluster B) You can clone clusters C) You can use it for envelopes encryption
144
Which encryption type works best when a client wants to protect data at rest in Amazon S3 using server-side encryption but does not want to store encryption keys on AWS? A) SSE-S3 B) SSE-KMS C) SSE-C
C) SSE-C
145
Which statements are true regarding Secrets Manager? (Select THREE) A) Versioning is enabled by default B) the service rotates secrets annually by default C) You can use Lambda functions to automate key rotation D) The ability to rotate Amazon RDS passwords is available by default E) You can export all of your secrets to most systems
A) Versioning is enabled by default C) You can use Lambda functions to automate key rotation D) The ability to rotate Amazon RDS passwords is available by default
146
Which data formats can you use to specify a list of objects for Amazon S3 batch Operations? (Select TWO) A) CSV file B) Amazon S3 inventory report C) Zip file D) JSON file
A) CSV file B) Amazon S3 inventory report
147
Which statements are true regarding Lake Formation blueprints and workflows? (Select THREE) A) You can customize workflows B) Blueprints generate AWS Glue workflows C) No blueprints are available by default D) You can set workflows as one-time or recurring events
A) You can customize workflows B) Blueprints generate AWS Glue workflows D) You can set workflows as one-time or recurring events
148
What is the minimum charged storage duration on S3 Standard-IA storage class? A) There is on minimum B) 30 days C) 90 days D) 180 days
B) 30 days
149
Which tool can you use to dynamically apply policies to impact spending? A) AWS Budgets B) AWS Cost and Usage Report C) Tags D) AWS Cost Explorer
A) AWS Budgets
150
What is a primary tool for cost allocation enablement? A) AWS Budgets B) AWS Cost Explorer C) AWS Cost and Usage Report D) Tags
D) Tags
151
What uses a multi-layered machine learning model that learns you unique, historical spend patterns to detect one-time cost spikes and continuous cost increases without requiring you to define you thresholds? A) Cost Anomaly Detection B) AWS Budgets C) AWS Cost Explorer D) AWS Cost and Usage Report
A) Cost Anomaly Detection
152
Which tool provides optimization recommendations? A) AWS Budgets B) AWS Cost and Usage Report C) Tags D) AWS Cost Explorer
D) AWS Cost Explorer
153
What are potential benefits to using CloudFront? (Select THREE) A) Increased security against DDos attacks B) Decreased latency for application end users C) Decreased data transfer costs for origin retrieval D) Decreased latency from load balancers to EC2 origins
A) Increased security against DDos attacks B) Decreased latency for application end users C) Decreased data transfer costs for origin retrieval
154
True or False: You can use a CloudFront distribution to enhance both origin data downloads and uploads? A) True B) False
A) True
155
Your team has been tasked to design solutions for A/B testing and remote authorization for CloudFront distributions. Which soloution should you choose? A) Global Accelerator B) Lambda C) Lambda@Edge D) Rout 53
C) Lambda@Edge
156
Which component in global Accelerator sends the client to the closest point of presence location? A) Route 53 B) Lambda@Edge C) Edge locations D) Anycast IP
D) Anycast IP
157
What are potential uses of CloudFront behaviors? (Select THREE) A) Use signed URLs to restrict content access B) Restrict users from certain countries C) Set different TTLs for different file types D) Enforce HTTPS only connections
A) Use signed URLs to restrict content access C) Set different TTLs for different file types D) Enforce HTTPS only connections
158
Which migration type is used to rearchitect an application into cloud-based mode? A) Rehost B) Replatform C) Repurchase D) Refactor
D) Refactor
159
Which migration type is used to move from a perpetual license too a software as a service model? A) Rehost B) Replatform C) repurchase D) refactor
C) repurchase
160
Which services could you use to migrate your on-premises MySQL database to PostgreSQL on Amazon RDS? (Select TWO) A) Application Discovery Service B) AWS SCT C) AWS DMS D) Snowball
B) AWS SCT C) AWS DMS