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AWS Cloud Architect, 8/16/21 > AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner Sample Questions > Flashcards

AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner Sample Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Why is AWS more economical than traditional data centers for applications with varying compute
workloads?

A) Amazon EC2 costs are billed on a monthly basis.
B) Users retain full administrative access to their Amazon EC2 instances.
C) Amazon EC2 instances can be launched on demand when needed.
D) Users can permanently run enough instances to handle peak workloads.

A

Amazon EC2 instances can be launched on demand when needed.

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2
Q

Which AWS service would simplify the migration of a database to AWS?

A) AWS Storage Gateway
B) AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS)
C) Amazon EC2
D) Amazon AppStream 2.0

A

AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS)

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3
Q 
Which AWS offering enables users to find, buy, and immediately start using software solutions in their 
AWS environment?
A) AWS Config
B) AWS OpsWorks
C) AWS SDK
D) AWS Marketplace
A

AWS Marketplace

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4
Q

Which AWS networking service enables a company to create a virtual network within AWS?
A) AWS Config
B) Amazon Route 53
C) AWS Direct Connect
D) Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC)

A

Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC)

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5
Q 
Which of the following is an AWS responsibility under the AWS shared responsibility model?
A) Configuring third-party applications
B) Maintaining physical hardware 
C) Securing application access and data
D) Managing guest operating systems
A

Maintaining physical hardware

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6
Q 
Which component of the AWS global infrastructure does Amazon CloudFront use to ensure low-latency 
delivery?
A) AWS Regions
B) Edge locations
C) Availability Zones 
D) Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)
A

Edge locations

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7
Q

How would a system administrator add an additional layer of login security to a user’s AWS
Management Console?
A) Use Amazon Cloud Directory
B) Audit AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) roles
C) Enable multi-factor authentication
D) Enable AWS CloudTrail

A

Enable multi-factor authentication

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8
Q

Which service can identify the user that made the API call when an Amazon EC2 instance is
terminated?
A) AWS Trusted Advisor
B) AWS CloudTrail
C) AWS X-Ray
D) AWS Identity and Access Management (AWS IAM)

A

AWS CloudTrail

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9
Q

Which service would be used to send alerts based on Amazon CloudWatch alarms?
A) Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)
B) AWS CloudTrail
C) AWS Trusted Advisor
D) Amazon Route 53

A

Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)

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10
Q

Where can a user find information about prohibited actions on the AWS infrastructure?
A) AWS Trusted Advisor
B) AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
C) AWS Billing Console
D) AWS Acceptable Use Policy

A

AWS Acceptable Use Policy

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11
Q

What advantages does a database administrator obtain by using the Amazon Relational Database Service (RDS)?

A. RDS provides 99.99999999999% reliability and durability
B. RDS databases automatically scale based on load
C. RDS enables users to dynamically adjust CPU and RAM resources
D. RDS simplifies relational database administration tasks

A

D. RDS simplifies relational database administration tasks

Amazon RDS is a managed relational database service on which you can run several types of database software. The service is managed so this reduces the database administration tasks an administrator would normally undertake. The managed service includes hardware provisioning, database setup, patching and backups.

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12
Q

A large company is interested in avoiding long-term contracts and moving from fixed costs to variable costs. What is the value proposition of AWS for this company?

A. Economies of scale
B. Pay-as-you-go pricing
C. Volume pricing discounts
D. Automated cost optimization

A

B. Pay-as-you-go pricing

Pay-as-you-go pricing helps companies move away from fixed costs to variable costs in a model in which they only pay for what they actually use. There are no fixed term contracts with AWS so that requirement is also met.

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13
Q

A customer needs to determine Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) for a workload that requires physical isolation. Which hosting model should be used?

A. Dedicated Hosts
B. Reserved Instances
C. On-Demand Instances
D. Spot Instances

A

A. Dedicated Hosts

An Amazon EC2 Dedicated Host is a physical server with EC2 instance capacity fully dedicated to your use.

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14
Q

Which design principles are enabled by the AWS Cloud to improve the operation of workloads? (Select TWO)

A. Minimize platform design
B. Loose coupling
C. Customized hardware
D. Remove single points of failure
E. Minimum viable product
A

B. Loose coupling
D. Remove single points of failure

Loose coupling is when you break systems down into smaller components that are loosely coupled together. This reduces interdependencies between systems components. This is achieved in the cloud using messages buses, notification and messaging services.

Removing single points of failure ensures fault tolerance and high availability. This is easily achieved in the cloud as the architecture and features of the cloud support the implementation of highly available and fault tolerant systems.

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15
Q

A user is planning to launch three EC2 instances behind a single Elastic Load Balancer. The deployment should be highly available.

A. Launch the instances across multiple Availability Zones in a single AWS Region.
B. Launch the instances as EC2 Spot Instances in the same AWS Region and the same Availability Zone.
C. Launch the instances in multiple AWS Regions, and use Elastic IP addresses.
D. Launch the instances as EC2 Reserved Instances in the same AWS Region, but in different Availability Zones.

A

A. “Launch the instances across multiple Availability Zones in a single AWS Region.”

Explanation:

To make the deployment highly available the user should launch the instances across multiple Availability Zones in a single AWS Region. Elastic Load Balancers can only serve targets in a single Region so it is not possible to deploy across Regions.

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16
Q

A company needs to host a database for at least 1 year.

Which of the following options would be the most cost-effective solution?

A. On-Demand
B. Partial Upfront - Reserved
C. Spot Instances
D. No Upfront - Reserved

A

Partial Upfront - Reserved

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17
Q

What does Amazon Elastic Beanstalk provide?
A. A scalable storage appliance on top of Amazon Web Services.
B. A scalable cluster of EC2 instances.
C. An application container on top of Amazon Web Services.
D. A service by this name doesn’t exist.

A

An application container on top of Amazon Web Services.

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18
Q

You work for a large consulting firm that has just hired a junior consultant named Nina, who will be working on a large AWS project. She will be working remotely. You create a new IAM user for her in your company’s AWS account.

On Nina’s first day, you ask her to make a change to a CloudWatch alarm in an Auto Scaling group.

Nina reports back that she does not have access to CloudWatch or auto scaling in the AWS console.

What might be the reason for this?

A. There is a non-explicit deny to all new users.
B. When you created the new user you forgot to assign access keys.
C. Because she is working remotely, she cannot modify anything in the Auto Scaling group via her terminal.
D. Only IAM account sys-admins can make changes to the AutoScaling groups.

A

There is a non-explicit deny to all new users.

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19
Q 
Where does one go to find and download AWS SOC& PCI reports?
 A. AWS Glue
 B. AWS Artifact
 C. AWS Polly
 D. AWS Chime
A

AWS Artifact

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20
Q

Where can a customer locate information of the prohibited actions on AWS infrastructure ?
A. AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
B. AWS Trusted Advisor
C. AWS Billing Console
D. AWS Acceptable Use Policy

A

AWS Acceptable Use Policy

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21
Q

Your CTO has asked you to contact the AWS support using the chat feature to ask for guidance related to EBS.

However, when you open the AWS support center you can’t see a way to contact support via Chat.

What should you do?

A. Upgrade from Basic plan to Developer plan
B. At a minimum, upgrade to Business support plan.
C. There is no chat feature in AWS support.
D. The chat feature is available for all plans for additional fee, but you have to request it first.

A

At a minimum, upgrade to Business support plan.

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22
Q 
Which of the following AWS offering allows customers to find, buy, and immediately start using software solutions in their AWS environment?
 A. AWS Config
 B. AWS Marketplace
 C. AWS SDK
 D. AWS OpsWorks
A

AWS Marketplace

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23
Q 
You want to run a questionnaire application for only one day (without interruption), which AWS EC2 purchase option would you choose?
 A. Reserved instances
 B. Dedicated instances
 C. Spot instances
 D. On-demand instances
A

On-demand instances

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24
Q

What does the term “Economies of scale” mean?
A. It means that you have the ability to pay as you go.
B. It means as more time passes using AWS, you pay more for its services.
C. It means that AWS will continuously lower costs as it grows.
D. It means that you save more when you consume more.

A

It means that AWS will continuously lower costs as it grows.

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25
Q

You have just set up a brand-new AWS account. You want to keep monthly billing under $100, but you are worried about going over that limit.

What can you use in order to be notified when the monthly bill approaches $100?

A. A CloudWatch billing alarm that triggers an SNS notification to your email address.
B. A SNS billing alarm that triggers a CloudWatch notification to your email address.
C. A CloudWatch billing alarm that triggers a CloudTrail notification to your email address.
D. A CloudTrail billing alarm that triggers an SNS notification to your email address.

A

A CloudWatch billing alarm that triggers an SNS notification to your email address.

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26
Q 
In which of the given increment is an Amazon EC2 instance running the Amazon Linux 2 AMI billed?
 A. Per CPU
 B. Per GB
 C. Per second
 D. Per hour
A

C. Per second

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27
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the AWS shared controls?
A. Controls which are solely the responsibility of the customer based on the application they are deploying within AWS services.
B. Controls which the customer and AWS use to secure the infrastructure
C. Controls which a customer fully inherits from AWS.
D. Controls which apply to both the infrastructure layer and customer layers.

A

D. Controls which apply to both the infrastructure layer and customer layers.

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28
Q

An organization has 500 employees. The organization wants to set up AWS access for each department.

Which of the below-mentioned options is a possible solution?

A. Create IAM users and provide individual permission for each one of them.
B. It is not possible to manage more than 100 IAM users with AWS
C. Create an IAM group for each department and assign IAM users to the groups.
D. Create IAM roles based on the permission and assign users to each role.

A

C. Create an IAM group for each department and assign IAM users to the groups.

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29
Q

AWS allows you to create a “Golden Environment”, where you can capture your security policies (such as firewall rules, network access controls, internal/external subnets, and operating system hardening), reuse it among multiple projects, and have it become part of your continuous integration pipeline.

Which of the following AWS services is most involved in creating such an environment?

A. AWS Config
B. AWS Auto Scaling
C. AWS CloudFormation
D. AWS CloudTrail

A

C. AWS CloudFormation

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30
Q

A company has decided to migrate to the AWS Cloud. AWS offers a wide range of services and instance types.They want to reduce costs as much as possible.

Which of the following is the main factor to consider when choosing the instance type of services like Amazon RDS and Amazon Redshift?

A. Your team experience with these services.
B. The type of your current on-premise database.
C. Sources of traffic.
D. Workload utilization of CPU & RAM.

A

D. Workload utilization of CPU & RAM.

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31
Q 
Which of the following Cloud Computing models assists in removing the need to manage operating systems on its own by an organization?
 A. IaaS
 B. PaaS
 C. GaaS
 D. SaaS
A

B. PaaS

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32
Q

What should you do in order to keep the data on EBS volumes safe?
A. Create EBS snapshots
B. Attach the volumes to EC2 Instances
C. Create copies of EBS Volumes
D. Store a backup daily in an external drive.

A

A. Create EBS snapshots

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33
Q

A company created a solution that will help AWS customers improve their architectures on AWS.

Which AWS program may support this company?

A. AWS Professional Services
B. AWS TAM
C. APN Technology Partners
D. APN Consulting Partners

A

D. APN Consulting Partners

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34
Q 
Which of the following AWS services would you use to register a new domain name in the AWS Platform?
 A. AWS Config
 B. Amazon ECR
 C. Amazon Route 53
 D. AWS KMS
A

C. Amazon Route 53

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35
Q

Miller is working with a large data set, and he needs to import it into a relational database service.

What AWS service will meet his needs?

A. RDS
B. Neptune
C. DynamoDB
D. ElastiCache

A

A. RDS

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36
Q 
Which of the following options is suitable for connecting to Amazon EC2 instances?
 A. Key pairs
 B. Route Tables
 C. MFA
 D. Instance Password
A

A. Key pairs

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37
Q 
Which of the following services can be used to process images uploaded to S3?
 A. Amazon Athena
 B. Amazon PinPoint.
 C. AWS Lambda
 D. AWS Artifact
A

C. AWS Lambda

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38
Q 
Where can AWS customers find their historical billing information?
 A. AWS Simple Monthly calculator
 B. AWS Billing History
 C. Billing and Cost Management console
 D. AWS TCO
A

C. Billing and Cost Management console

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39
Q 
How does AWS notify customers about the latest security and privacy events within AWS services?
 A. Using Security Bulletins
 B. Using Compliance Resources
 C. Using the AWS ACM service
 D. Using the AWS Management Console
A

A. Using Security Bulletins

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40
Q

While working with Amazon S3, you found that six of your S3 buckets were deleted, but no one is taking responsibility.

You decide to open an investigation in order to find out who deleted the S3 buckets.

Which of the following may help you in your investigation?

A. None of these
B. SNS logs.
C. CloudTrail logs.
D. CloudWatch Logs.

A

C. CloudTrail logs.

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41
Q 
Which DynamoDB feature can be used to reduce the latency of requests to a database from milliseconds to microseconds?
 A. Read Replica
 B. Memcached.
 C. DAX
 D. Multi-AZ
A

C. DAX

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42
Q

Your organization heavily uses Chef to operate their configuration management systems.

Which AWS Cloud service provides integration with Chef recipes to automate the configuration of servers across Amazon EC2 Instances?

A. AWS Config
B. AWS CloudFormation
C. AWS OpsWorks
D. AutoScaling

A

C. AWS OpsWorks

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43
Q 
Which of the following AWS offering allows customers to find, buy, and immediately start using software solutions in their AWS environment?
 A. AWS Marketplace
 B. AWS Config
 C. AWS SDK
 D. AWS OpsWorks
A

A. AWS Marketplace

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44
Q

Which S3 storage class has the lowest object availability rating?
A. Infrequent Access
B. Standard
C. All of them have the same availability rating
D. S3 One Zone-IA

A

D. S3 One Zone-IA

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45
Q

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using AWS Lambda?
A. There is no charge when your AWS Lambda code is not running.
B. AWS Lambda can be called directly from any mobile app.
C. AWS Lambda runs code without provisioning or managing servers.
D. AWS Lambda provides a scalable data warehouse solution.

A

D. AWS Lambda provides a scalable data warehouse solution.

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46
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is the IAM entity associated with an access key ID and secret access key.
 A. IAM Group
 B. IAM User
 C. IAM Policy
 D. IAM Role
A

B. IAM User

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47
Q 
Which of the following makes it easier for you to manage and filter your resources?
 A. AWS Service Catalog
 B. Amazon CloudWatch
 C. AWS Tagging
 D. AWS Directory Service
A

C. AWS Tagging

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48
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding Availability Zones?
A. An Availability Zone is a distinct location within a region that is insulated from failures in other Availability Zones.
B. A collection of regions make up an Availability Zone.
C. The timeframe a particular service is available for use by authorized users is an Availability Zone.
D. “Availability Zone” is another name for an entire region which contains AWS instances.

A

A. An Availability Zone is a distinct location within a region that is insulated from failures in other Availability Zones.

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49
Q 
Which of the given options is an example of the architectural benefit of moving to the cloud?
 A. Monolithic services
 B. Elasticity
 C. Proprietary hardware
 D. Vertical scalability
A

B. Elasticity

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50
Q 
What is the maximum amount of data that can be stored in S3?
 A. 5 TB
 B. 1 PB
 C. Virtually unlimited storage
 D. 1 TB
A

C. Virtually unlimited storage

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51
Q 
What can you use as a common file system for multiple EC2 instances?
 A. AWS Storage Gateway
 B. Simple Storage Service
 C. Amazon Elastic File Manager.
 D. Amazon Elastic File System.
A

D. Amazon Elastic File System.

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52
Q

What best describes the “Principle of Least Privilege”?
A. Users should submit all access request in written so that there is a paper trail of who needs access to different AWS resources.
B. All users should have the same baseline permissions granted to them to use basic AWS services.
C. Users should always have a little more permissions granted to them, just in case they end up needed them in the future.
D. Users should be granted permissions to access only the resources they need to do their assigned job.

A

D. Users should be granted permissions to access only the resources they need to do their assigned job.

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53
Q

Your web application currently faces performance issues and suffers from long delays.

Which of the following could help you in this situation?

A. AWS Shield
B. AWS X-Ray
C. Amazon Aurora
D. AWS OpsWorks

A

B. AWS X-Ray

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54
Q 
Which of the following AWS services use Edge Locations for the purpose of caching content?
 A. AWS CloudFront
 B. AWS KMS
 C. AWS Glacier
 D. AWS Inspector
A

A. AWS CloudFront

55
Q

A company has a web application that is running on a number of Amazon EC2 instances.

The app is approaching 100% CPU Utilization on one of them.

How can they reduce the load on that instance?

A. Recreate the app to handle such huge traffic.
B. Use a CloudFront distribution.
C. Create a load balancer, and register the Amazon EC2 instances with it.
D. Terminate the instance and recreate new one.

A

C. Create a load balancer, and register the Amazon EC2 instances with it.

56
Q

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using Amazon VPC?
A. Amazon VPC allows you to control user interactions with various AWS resources.
B. You have complete control over your virtual networking environment.
C. Subnets and IP ranges are automatically created for you.
D. You can select your own IP address range.

A

A. Amazon VPC allows you to control user interactions with various AWS resources.

57
Q 
Which AWS service must you use if you want to configure an AWS billing alarm?
 A. AWS Cost Explorer
 B. CloudWatch
 C. Consolidated billing
 D. CloudTrail
A

B. CloudWatch

58
Q 
When giving permission to users via the AWS Identity and Access Management tool, which of the following principles should be applied when granting permissions?
 A. Principle of greatest privilege
 B. Principle of lower privilege
 C. Principle of least privilege
 D. Principle of most privilege
A

C. Principle of least privilege

59
Q 
You decide to buy one reserved instance for one year. Which of the following options provides the largest discount?
 A. No up-front.
 B. All up-front.
 C. Partial up-front.
 D. None of these
A

B. All up-front.

60
Q 
Which of the following services can help protect your web applications from SQL injection and other vulnerabilities in your application code?
 A. Amazon Aurora
 B. AWS WAF
 C. IAM
 D. Amazon Cognito
A

B. AWS WAF

61
Q 
Which IAM entity is associated with an access key ID and secret access key?
 A. IAM Role
 B. IAM User
 C. IAM Policy
 D. IAM Group
A

B. IAM User

62
Q 
Which of the following services can be used to process images uploaded to S3?
 A. Amazon PinPoint.
 B. AWS Artifact
 C. AWS Lambda
 D. Amazon Athena
A

D. Amazon Athena

63
Q 
Which of the following support plans include the AWS Support Concierge Service?
 A. Basic
 B. Enterprise
 C. Business
 D. Developer
A

B. Enterprise

64
Q

Your logs show that one or more AWS-owned IP addresses are sending packets to multiple ports on your server, and you believe this is an attempt to discover unsecured ports.

What should you do?

A. Contact the AWS Security team.
B. Contact the AWS Abuse team.
C. Contact the AWS Concierge team.
D. Contact the AWS Customer Service team.

A

B. Contact the AWS Abuse team.

65
Q 
Which of the following storage classes is most appropriate to be used for dynamic websites with predictable access patterns?
 A. S3 Standard
 B. S3 Intelligent-Tiering
 C. S3 Glacier
 D. S3 Standard-IA
A

A. S3 Standard

66
Q

A company needs to track resource changes using the API call history.

Which AWS service can help the company achieve this goal?

A. AWS CloudFormation
B. AWS CloudTrail
C. AWS Config
D. AWS CloudWatch

A

B. AWS CloudTrail

67
Q

What should you do in order to keep the data on EBS volumes safe?
A. Attach the volumes to EC2 Instances
B. Create copies of EBS Volumes
C. Create EBS snapshots
D. Store a backup daily in an external drive.

A

C. Create EBS snapshots

68
Q 
Who can help your organization achieve their desired business outcomes with AWS?
 A. AWS Professional Services
 B. None of these
 C. AWS Trusted Advisor.
 D. AWS Concierge.
A

A. AWS Professional Services

69
Q

Your company has just started using resources in the AWS Cloud.

They want to get an idea about the costs being incurred so far for the resources being used.

How can this be achieved?

A. By using the AWS Cost & Usage reports where they can see the current and the forecast costs.
B. By using the AWS Trusted Advisor dashboard which gives them all the financial information they need.
C. By opening the AWS Cloud Trail logs.
D. By going to the Amazon EC2 dashboard where they can see the total costs.

A

A. By using the AWS Cost & Usage reports where they can see the current and the forecast costs.

70
Q

What best describes penetration testing?
A. Testing your applications ability to penetrate other applications.
B. None of these
C. Testing your own network/application for vulnerabilities.
D. Testing your IAM users’ access to AWS services.

A

C. Testing your own network/application for vulnerabilities.

71
Q

Before moving and/or storing an object in AWS Glacier, what considerations should be taken into account regarding the data you want to store?
A. It is faster to upload your data using the console.
B. Be aware that it takes at least few minutes to retrieve the data once stored on Glacier.
C. Determine frequently accessed data and data archives.
D. Attach Glacier to an EC2 Instance to be able to store data.

A

B. Be aware that it takes at least few minutes to retrieve the data once stored on Glacier.

72
Q 
Which of the following AWS services uses tiered pricing?
 A. VPC
 B. S3
 C. lightsail
 D. AWS Cost Explorer
A

B. S3

73
Q 
Which of the following is not a supported database engine in the AWS RDS service?
 A. Aurora
 B. MySQL
 C. MariaDB
 D. DB2
A

D. DB2

74
Q

Which of the given components of AWS global infrastructure should Amazon CloudFront use, to ensure low-latency delivery?
A. AWS edge locations
B. Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC)
C. AWS Availability Zones
D. AWS Regions

A

A. AWS edge locations

75
Q 
What service helps you to aggregate log files from your EC2 instances?
 A. CloudWatch Logs
 B. CloudTrail
 C. SQS
 D. S3
A

A. CloudWatch Logs

76
Q 
Which of the following services can be used to monitor the HTTP and HTTPS requests that are forwarded to Amazon CloudFront?
 A. AWS CloudTrail
 B. NAT Gateways
 C. AWS WAF
 D. AWS CloudWatch
A

C. AWS WAF

77
Q

Once again your customers are concerned about the security of their sensitive data, and now ask you, ”What happens to old storage devices on AWS?”

What would be the best answer to this Question?

A. AWS uses their own proprietary software to destroy data as part of the decommissioning process.
B. AWS uses a 3rd party security organization to destroy data as part of the decommissioning process.
C. AWS uses the techniques detailed in DoD 5220.22-M to destroy data as part of the decommissioning process.
D. AWS reformats the disks and uses them again.

A

C. AWS uses the techniques detailed in DoD 5220.22-M to destroy data as part of the decommissioning process.

78
Q

A company needs to host a database for at least 1 year.

Which of the following options would be the most cost-effective solution?

A. Spot Instances
B. No Upfront - Reserved
C. Partial Upfront - Reserved
D. On-Demand

A

C. Partial Upfront - Reserved

79
Q 
Which of the following services can be used to build video analytics applications?
 A. Amazon Athena
 B. Amazon QuickSight
 C. Amazon Kinesis
 D. Amazon S3
A

C. Amazon Kinesis

80
Q

You are working on a project that involves creating thumbnails of millions of images; however, consistent uptime is not really an issue, and continuous processing is not required.

Which type of EC2 buying option would be the most cost-effective?

A. Spot instances
B. On-demand instances
C. Reserved instances
D. Dedicated instances

A

A. Spot instances

81
Q

You manage a blog on AWS that has different stages such as development, testing, and production.

How can you create a custom console in each stage to view and manage your resources easily?

A. AWS Tag Editor
B. AWS Resource Groups
C. AWS Service Groups
D. AWS Management Console

A

B. AWS Resource Groups

82
Q

A company has developed an eCommerce web application and the application needs an uptime of at least 99.5%.

Which of the following deployment strategies should they use?

A. Deploying the application across Edge locations
B. Deploying the application across multiple subnets
C. Deploying the application across multiple Regions
D. Deploying the application across multiple VPC’s

A

C. Deploying the application across multiple Regions

83
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ service offers on-demand downloads of AWS security and compliance reports.
 A. AWS Directory Service
 B. AWS Artifact
 C. AWS Trusted Advisor
 D. Amazon Inspector
A

B. AWS Artifact

84
Q

An organization has been using AWS for a few months.

Which of the below AWS tools will help the finance team visualize the organization’s AWS spending?

A. AWS Consolidated Billing
B. AWS CloudWatch
C. AWS Cost Explorer
D. AWS Cost Manager

A

C. AWS Cost Explorer

85
Q 
Which AWS network feature can establish a private network connection between AWS and your datacenter?
 A. AWS Snowball
 B. Amazon CloudFront
 C. AWS Route 53
 D. AWS Direct Connect
A

D. AWS Direct Connect

86
Q

You need to select an EC2 Instance type to service your workloads. If you have flexibility about the availability of the Amazon EC2 Instances, which of the following EC2 Instances would be most cost-effective?

A. Dedicated instances
B. Reserved Instances.
C. On-demand instances
D. Spot instances

A

D. Spot instances

87
Q 
How are S3 storage classes rated?
 A. Availability & Durability.
 B. Scalability & Accessibility.
 C. Durability & Accessibility.
 D. Availability & Scalability.
A

A. Availability & Durability.

88
Q 
Which of the following Cloud Computing models assists in removing the need to manage operating systems on its own by an organization?
 A. PaaS
 B. GaaS
 C. IaaS
 D. SaaS
A

A. PaaS

89
Q

A company has decided to migrate to AWS.

What design principles should they consider to facilitate good design in the cloud?

A. Spend more time and effort when architecting your environment, it is not easy to change your decisions later.
B. Analyze your on-premises usage to guess your capacity needs on AWS.
C. Use AWS reservations to reduce costs when testing your production environment.
D. Automate to make architectural experimentation easier.

A

D. Automate to make architectural experimentation easier.

90
Q

Your company experiences fluctuations in traffic patterns to their e-commerce website when running flash sales.

What service can help your company dynamically match the required compute capacity to handle spikes in traffic during flash sales?

A. Amazon ElastiCache
B. Amazon Elastic Container Service.
C. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud.
D. Auto Scaling

A

D. Auto Scaling

91
Q 
Which of the following services allows you to install and run your custom relational database software?
 A. Amazon Inspector
 B. Amazon Cognito
 C. Amazon RDS
 D. Amazon EC2
A

D. Amazon EC2

92
Q 
Which AWS service uses Edge Locations to cache content?
 A. AWS Inspector
 B. AWS Glacier
 C. AWS KMS
 D. AWS CloudFront
A

D. AWS CloudFront

93
Q

There are performance issues with your under-development application, being built using microservices architecture.

Which of the following AWS services would help you analyze these issues?

a. AWS Config
b. AWS CodePipeline
c. X-Ray
d. AWS Inspector

A

c. X-Ray

94
Q 
Which of the following services help reduce the complexity and time needed to plan your application migration to the AWS Cloud?
 A. AWS Snowball Migration Service.
 B. AWS Migration Planner Service.
 C. AWS Application Discovery Service.
 D. None of these
A

C. AWS Application Discovery Service.

95
Q 
What service helps you to aggregate log files from your EC2 instances?
 A. S3
 B. CloudTrail
 C. SQS
 D. CloudWatch Logs
A

D. CloudWatch Logs

96
Q 
Which database should you use if your application requires joins or complex transactions?
 A. Amazon ElastiCache
 B. Amazon DynamoDB
 C. Amazon DocumentDB
 D. Amazon RDS
A

D. Amazon RDS

97
Q

Which of the given options is a part of the AWS’s responsibility, with reference to the AWS shared responsibility model?
A. Securing application access and data
B. Infrastructure that runs all of the services offered
C. Managing custom Amazon Machine Images (AMIs)
D. Configuring third-party applications

A

B. Infrastructure that runs all of the services offered

98
Q 
Which of the following can be used to control access to your Amazon EC2 instances?
 A. DB security groups
 B. EC2 security groups
 C. None of these
 D. IAM policies
A

B. EC2 security groups

99
Q

Who from the following will get the largest discount?
A. A user who chooses to buy Reserved, Convertible, All upfront instances
B. A user who chooses to buy Reserved, Standard, All upfront instances
C. A user who chooses to buy On-demand, Convertible, Partial upfront instances
D. A user who chooses to buy Reserved, Standard, No upfront instances

A

B. A user who chooses to buy Reserved, Standard, All upfront instances

100
Q

A company is currently using the Enterprise Support plan. They want quick and efficient guidance with their billing and account inquiries.

Which of the following included services could assist them?

A. AWS Support Concierge
B. AWS Support API
C. None of these.
D. AWS Advisor

A

A. AWS Support Concierge

101
Q 
What technology enables compute capacity to adjust as loads change?
 A. Load balancing
 B. Round robin
 C. Auto Scaling
 D. Automatic failover
A

C. Auto Scaling

102
Q 
A security operations engineer needs to implement threat detection and monitoring for malicious or unauthorized behavior. Which service should be used?
 A. Amazon GuardDuty
 B. AWS Shield
 C. AWS KMS
 D. AWS CloudHSM
A

A. Amazon GuardDuty

103
Q

A developer wants to quickly deploy and manage his application in the AWS Cloud, but he doesn’t have any experience with cloud computing.

Which of the following AWS services would help him achieve his goal?

A. AWS Batch
B. AWS X-Ray
C. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
D. AWS Fargate

A

C. AWS Elastic Beanstalk

104
Q 
Which service can you use to route traffic to the endpoint that provides the best application performance for your users worldwide?
 A. None of these.
 B. AWS Transfer Acceleration.
 C. AWS DAX Accelerator.
 D. AWS Global Accelerator.
A

D. AWS Global Accelerator.

105
Q 
Which of the following is not an AWS reservation model?
 A. ElastiCache Reserved Nodes
 B. Redshift Reserved Nodes
 C. S3 Reserved Capacity
 D. DynamoDB Reserved Capacity
A

C. S3 Reserved Capacity

106
Q

When using on-demand instances in AWS, which of the following is a false statement about its cost?
A. You have to pay the termination fees if you terminate the instance
B. You are charged per second based on an hourly rate
C. You pay only for what you use.
D. There are no upfront costs for the instance

A

A. You have to pay the termination fees if you terminate the instance

107
Q

You need to migrate a large number of on-premises workloads to AWS.

Which of the following is the fastest way to achieve your goal?

A. Use the AWS Server Migration Service.
B. Use the AWS Database Migration Service.
C. Use the AWS Application Discovery Service.
D. None of these

A

A. Use the AWS Server Migration Service.

108
Q 
Which of the following services allows you to manage your agreements with AWS?
 A. AWS Certificate Manager.
 B. AWS Systems Manager.
 C. AWS Artifact.
 D. AWS Organization.
A

C. AWS Artifact.

109
Q 
What is the DynamoDB replication technology that provides fast, local, read/write performance for globally-deployed applications?
 A. Global PITR
 B. DynamoDB DAX
 C. Global Tables
 D. Point-in-time recovery
A

C. Global Tables

110
Q 
Which of the following is not a supported database engine in the AWS RDS service?
 A. MariaDB
 B. DB2
 C. MySQL
 D. Aurora
A

B. DB2

111
Q

One of the most important AWS best practices to follow is the cloud architecture principle of elasticity.

How does following this principle improve your architecture’s design?

A. By reducing interdependencies between application components wherever possible

  1. None of these
  2. By automatically scaling your on-premises resources based on changes in demand
  3. By automatically provisioning the required AWS resources based on changes in demand.
A
  1. By automatically provisioning the required AWS resources based on changes in demand
112
Q

You have developed a web application that has a “.NET layer” that connects to a MySQL database.

Which of the following AWS database deployments would provide automated backups to your application?

A. An EC2 instance with MySQL installed.
B. DynamoDB
C. Aurora
D. An EC2 instance with Aurora installed.

A

C. Aurora

113
Q 
Which service can be used to monitor the health of your web server?
 A. Amazon Chime
 B. Amazon Aurora
 C. None of the above.
 D. Amazon Route 53
A

D. Amazon Route 53

114
Q 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ service offers on-demand downloads of AWS security and compliance reports.
 A. AWS Trusted Advisor
 B. AWS Artifact
 C. Amazon Inspector
 D. AWS Directory Service
A

B. AWS Artifact

115
Q

You have bought 4 Amazon EC2 reserved instances for a 1 year term.

After 7 months you decide to sell 2 of your instances on the Amazon EC2 Reserved Instance Marketplace.

Which of the following is true regarding this scenario?

A. You cannot sell your reserved instances as there are only 5 months remaining in the term of the Reserved Instances you are listing.
B. Each Reserved Instance sold on the Amazon EC2 Reserved Instance Marketplace will be charged a service fee of 12% monthly.
C. The buyer can modify the instance type, Availability Zone, platform and the other configurations at any time.
D. You can set only the upfront price for your reserved instances.

A

D. You can set only the upfront price for your reserved instances.

116
Q 
Which of the following services can help protect your web applications from SQL injection and other vulnerabilities in your application code?
 A. Amazon Aurora
 B. Amazon Cognito
 C. IAM
 D. AWS WAF
A

D. AWS WAF

117
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a factor when estimating the cost of Amazon EC2? 
 A. Number of instances
 B. Clock hours of server time
 C. Elastic Load Balancing.
 D. Number of security groups
 E. Elastic IP Addresses
A

D. Number of security groups

118
Q 
Which Amazon EC2 Reserved Instance type enables you to match your capacity reservation to predictable recurring dates and times?
 A. Convertible RI
 B. Scheduled RI
 C. Standard RI
 D. Customized RI
A

B. Scheduled RI

119
Q

One of the aspects to consider monitoring is CPU usage. The application tends to slow down when CPU usage is greater than 60%.

How can they track down when CPU usage goes above 60% for any of the EC2 Instances?

A. Use AWS CPU tracker.
B. Use CloudFront to monitor the CPU usage.
C. Use SNS to monitor the utilization of the server.
D. Use CloudWatch Alarms.

A

D. Use CloudWatch Alarms.

120
Q

Which S3 storage class has the lowest object availability rating?
A. Infrequent Access
B. All of them have the same availability rating
C. Standard
D. S3 One Zone-IA

A

D. S3 One Zone-IA

121
Q

An organization needs to build a financial application that requires support for ACID transactions.

Which AWS database service is most appropriate in this case?

A. DMS
B. RedShift
C. RDS
D. Cassandra

A

C. RDS

122
Q 
Which of the following tools can be used to estimate your monthly bill?
 A. Advanced Monthly Calculator
 B. Simple Monthly Calculator
 C. AWS Advanced Monthly Cost Explorer
 D. AWS Monthly Cost Explorer
A

B. Simple Monthly Calculator

123
Q

In order to keep your data safe, you need to take a backup of your database regularly.

What is the most cost-effective storage option that provides immediate retrieval of your backups?

A. Amazon S3
B. Amazon Glacier
C. Instance Store
D. Amazon EBS

A

A. Amazon S3

124
Q

A company is deploying a new two-tier web application in AWS.

Where should the most frequently accessed data be stored so that the application’s response time is optimal?

A. Amazon Cache Accelerator.
B. Amazon RDS for MySQL with Multi-AZ
C. MySQL Installed on two Amazon EC2 Instances in a single Availability Zone
D. Amazon ElastiCache

A

D. Amazon ElastiCache

125
Q 
What technology enables compute capacity to adjust as loads change?
 A. Round robin
 B. Automatic failover
 C. Load balancing
 D. Auto Scaling
A

D. Auto Scaling

126
Q 
Which AWS network feature can establish a private network connection between AWS and your datacenter?
 A. AWS Route 53
 B. AWS Snowball
 C. Amazon CloudFront
 D. AWS Direct Connect
A

D. AWS Direct Connect

127
Q 
Which of the following services allows you to store your application assets, like images and libraries, along with your code?
A.  AWS CodeCommit
B.  None of the above.
C.  AWS CodePipeline
D.  AWS X-Ray
A

D. AWS X-Ray

128
Q

Amazon SWF is designed to help users ___________.
A. Design graphical user interface interactions.
B. Manage user identification and authorization.
C. Coordinate tasks across distributed application components.
D. Store Web content.

A

C. Coordinate tasks across distributed application components.

129
Q

You have decided to pay a low upfront fee in order to get a significantly discounted hourly rate.

What payment model are you planning to use?
A. Pay less by using more.
B. Pay as you go
C. Pay less as AWS grows
D. Save when you reserve.
A

D. Save when you reserve.

130
Q 
Which AWS service provides on-demand downloads of AWS security and compliance reports?
A. AWS Directory Service
B. Amazon Inspector
C. AWS Trusted Advisor
D. AWS Artifact
A

D. AWS Artifact

131
Q 
Which of the following AWS security features is associated with a subnet in a VPC and functions to filter incoming traffic requests?
A. AWS Inspector
B. Security Groups
C. Subnet Groups
D. NACL
A

D. NACL

132
Q 
Which of the following AWS services allows you to build a data warehouse in the cloud?
A. AWS Storage Gateway
B. AWS EMR
C. AWS Redshift
D. Amazon RDS
A

C. AWS Redshift

133
Q 
AWS provides the ability to create backups of any Amazon EC2 volume into what is known as a/an:
A. snapshot
B. instance backup
C. image
D. mirror
A

A. snapshot

AWS Cloud Architect, 8/16/21 (18 decks)

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