AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner Practice Test 5 (Bonso) Flashcards
What is the main benefit of deploying instances to multiple availability zones? A.Agility B.High Availability C.Cost Optimization D.Security
B.High Availability
Explanation:
When you launch an instance, you can select your preferred Availability Zone or let AWS choose one for you. If you distribute your instances across multiple Availability Zones and one instance fails, you can design your application so that an instance in another Availability Zone can handle requests.
High Availability (HA) describes systems that are dependable enough to operate continuously without fail. They are well-tested and sometimes equipped with redundant components.
Hence, the correct answer is: High Availability.
Agility, Cost Optimization, and Security are all incorrect because these options are not related to deploying instances to multiple availability zones.
Agility is the ability to rapidly develop, test, and launch software applications that drive business growth. Cost Optimization is the ability to avoid or eliminate unneeded cost or suboptimal resources. Security is the ability to protect information, systems, and assets while delivering business value through risk assessments and mitigation strategies.
Which of the following AWS services allows you to query data directly in Amazon S3? (Select TWO.) A.Amazon ElastiCache B.Amazon Athena C.Amazon Neptune D.Amazon MQ E.Amazon Redshift Spectrum
B.Amazon Athena
E.Amazon Redshift Spectrum
Explanation:
Amazon Athena is an interactive query service that makes it easy to analyze data in Amazon S3 using standard SQL. Athena is serverless, so there is no infrastructure to set up or manage, and you can start analyzing data immediately. You don’t even need to load your data into Athena, it works directly with data stored in S3.
Amazon Redshift Spectrum allows you to query and retrieve structured and semistructured data from files in Amazon S3 without having to load the data into Amazon Redshift tables. Much of the processing occurs in the Redshift Spectrum layer, and most of the data remain in Amazon S3. Multiple clusters can concurrently query the same dataset in Amazon S3 without the need to make copies of the data for each cluster.
Therefore, the correct options are:
- Amazon Athena
- Amazon Redshift Spectrum
Amazon MQ, Amazon Neptune, and Amazon Elasticache are all incorrect because these services are not suitable for querying data in Amazon S3. Amazon MQ is a message broker service for Apache ActiveMQ. Amazon Neptune is a fully-managed graph database service. Amazon Elasticache is an in-memory data store and caching service.
Which of the following services allows you to quickly query data in S3 using SQL without having to set up and manage any servers? A.Amazon Athena B.AWS Step Functions C.Amazon SQS D.Amazon Lambda
A.Amazon Athena
Explanation:
Amazon Athena is an interactive query service that makes it easy to analyze data in Amazon S3 using standard SQL. Athena is serverless, so there is no infrastructure to set up or manage, and you can start analyzing data immediately. You don’t even need to upload your data into Athena, as it works directly with data stored in S3.
Hence, the correct answer is: Amazon Athena.
Amazon SQS is incorrect because this is a message queue service used by distributed applications to exchange messages through a polling model, and can be used to decouple sending and receiving components. You use Amazon SQS to decouple your applications, and not for querying data in S3.
AWS Lambda and AWS Step Functions are both incorrect. These serverless services don’t have a built-in capability to analyze data in Amazon S3 using standard SQL.
Which of the following benefits do AWS Organizations provide? (Select TWO.)
A.Automate AWS account creation and management
B.Allow Active Directory Access Controls
C.Records AWS API calls
D.Ability to create IAM Roles
E.Centrally manage policies across multiple AWS accounts
A.Automate AWS account creation and management
E.Centrally manage policies across multiple AWS accounts
Explanation:
AWS Organizations helps you centrally govern your environment as you grow and scale your workloads on AWS. Using AWS Organizations, you can automate account creation, create groups of accounts to reflect your business needs, and apply policies for these groups for governance.
AWS Organizations benefits are:
- Centrally Manage Policies across Multiple AWS Accounts
- Automate AWS Account Creation and Management
- Consolidate Billing across Multiple AWS Accounts
- Govern Access to AWS Services, Resources, and Regions
- Configure AWS Services Across Multiple Accounts
Hence, the correct options that correctly describe AWS Organizations are:
- Automate AWS account creation and management
- Centrally manage policies across multiple AWS accounts
The option that says: Ability to create IAM Roles is incorrect because this is a feature of AWS IAM and not AWS Organizations. It uses roles to delegate access to users, applications, or services that don’t normally access your AWS resources.
The option that says: Allow Active Directory access controls is incorrect because it is not a benefit of AWS Organizations. This option is related to AWS Managed Microsoft AD.
The option that says: Records AWS API calls is incorrect because this function is under AWS CloudTrail, a service that provides a record of actions taken by a user, role, or an AWS service in your AWS environment. AWS Organizations do not provide an event history of your AWS account.
Which of the following AWS resources is a zonal service? (Select TWO.) A.Amazon Route 53 B.Amazon S3 C.AWS IAM D.Amazon EBS E.Amazon EC2
D.Amazon EBS
E.Amazon EC2
Explanation:
Global Services is not tied to a specific region and can be used in all regions. Regional Services are accessible by any resources within the same region. Zonal Services or Availability Zone Services are resources that are hosted in a zone and called per-zone resources. Zone-specific resources are unique to that zone and are only usable by other resources in the same zone.
Amazon EC2 is a compute capacity in the cloud and Amazon EBS is a block storage service. Both are created in a specific Availability Zone, and EBS can be attached to any instances in that same Availability Zone.
Hence, the correct options in this scenario are:
- Amazon EC2
- Amazon EBS
Amazon S3, Amazon Route 53, and AWS IAM are all incorrect because these are global services offered by AWS. These services can be used across all AWS regions and not Zone-specific.
Which of the following Amazon RDS features should you use to achieve high availability with automatic failover? A.RDS Multi-AZ Deployments B.RDS Performance Insights C.DB Snapshots D.RDS Read Replica
A.RDS Multi-AZ Deployments
Explanation:
Amazon Relational Database Service is a managed service that makes it easy to set up, operate, and scale a relational database in the cloud. It provides cost-efficient and resizable capacity while managing time-consuming database administration tasks, freeing you up to focus on your applications and business.
RDS provides high availability and failover support for DB instances using Multi-AZ deployments. Amazon RDS uses several different technologies to provide failover support. In a Multi-AZ deployment, Amazon RDS automatically provisions and maintains a synchronous standby replica in a different Availability Zone.
Amazon RDS Multi-AZ deployments provide enhanced availability for database instances within a single AWS Region. With Multi-AZ, your data is synchronously replicated to a standby in a different Availability Zone (AZ). In the event of an infrastructure failure, Amazon RDS performs an automatic failover to the standby, minimizing disruption to your applications.
Hence, the correct answer is: RDS Multi-AZ Deployments.
RDS Read Replica is incorrect because it just enables you to create one or more read-only copies of your database instance within the same AWS Region or in a different AWS Region. The updates made to the source database are then asynchronously copied to your Read Replicas. Moreover, it doesn’t provide high availability and automatic failover.
DB Snapshots is incorrect because it only creates a snapshot of your DB instance. It helps store a backup of your data but not achieve a high availability architecture.
RDS Performance Insights is incorrect because this feature does not provide enhanced availability for your database instances. RDS Performance Insights is simply a database performance tuning and monitoring feature that helps you quickly assess the load on your database, and determine when and where to take action.
Which of the following services connects VPCs and on-premises networks through a central hub? A.Amazon VPC Peering B.AWS Transit Gateway C.AWS Direct Connect D.AWS Client VPN
B.AWS Transit Gateway
Explanation:
AWS Transit Gateway connects VPCs and on-premises networks through a central hub. This simplifies your network and puts an end to complex peering relationships. It acts as a cloud router – each new connection is only made once.
Without AWS Transit Gateway:
Without a central hub, the network complexity increases with scale. You must maintain routing tables within each VPC and connect to each onsite location using separate network gateways.
With AWS Transit Gateway:
Your network is more streamlined and scalable if you use a centralized hub. AWS Transit Gateway routes all traffic to and from each VPC or VPN, and you have one place to manage and monitor it all.
Hence, the correct answer is: AWS Transit Gateway.
AWS Client VPN is incorrect because this is just a VPN service used to securely access your AWS resources and resources in your on-premises network. You can’t use AWS Client VPN to connect and manage multiple VPCs.
VPC Peering is incorrect. Although this service could connect two or more VPCs, it is not appropriate to use if you are managing multiple VPC peering connections and on-premises networks at scale.
AWS Direct Connect is incorrect because this is a dedicated network connection from your on-premises to AWS. Direct Connect doesn’t support the peering between VPCs unless it is associated with Transit Gateway.
Which of the following advantages of cloud computing describes the continual price reduction of AWS services?
A.Trade capital expense for variable expense
B.Stop guessing capacity
C.Benefit from massive economies of scale
D.Stop spending money running and maintaining data centers
C.Benefit from massive economies of scale
Explanation:
Cloud computing is the on-demand delivery of compute power, database storage, applications, and other IT resources through a cloud services platform via the Internet with pay-as-you-go pricing. Whether you are running applications that share photos to millions of mobile users or supporting your business’s critical operations, a cloud services platform provides rapid access to flexible and low-cost IT resources.
One of the benefits of using cloud computing is achieving a lower variable cost than you can get on your own. Because usage from hundreds of thousands of customers is aggregated in the cloud, providers such as AWS can achieve higher economies of scale, which translates into lower pay-as-you-go prices.
Hence, the correct answer is: Benefit from massive economies of scale.
Stop guessing capacity, Stop spending money running and maintaining data centers, and Trade capital expense for variable expense are all incorrect because these are not the appropriate advantages that describe the continual price reduction of AWS services.
Stop guessing capacity - allows you to access as much or as little capacity as you need in AWS, and scale up and down as required with only a few minutes’ notice.
Stop spending money running and maintaining data centers - lets you focus on projects that differentiate your business, not the infrastructure.
Trade capital expense for variable expense - instead of having to invest heavily in data centers and servers before you know how you’re going to use them, you can pay only when you consume computing resources, and pay only for how much you consume.
Which of the following is a benefit of using AWS Global Accelerator?
A.Accelerates server performance of your Amazon EC2 instances globally
B.provides a highly durable data store in AWS
C.Decreased latency in accessing applications hosted in AWS
D.Reducdes server costs in running AWS services
C.Decreased latency in accessing applications hosted in AWS
Explanation:
AWS Global Accelerator is a service that improves the availability and performance of your applications with local or global users. It provides you with static IP addresses that serve as a fixed entry point to your applications hosted in one or more AWS Regions. These IP addresses are anycast from AWS edge locations, so they’re announced from multiple AWS edge locations at the same time. This enables traffic to ingress onto the AWS global network as close to your users as possible.
Global Accelerator uses the AWS global network to optimize the path from your users to your applications, improving the performance of your traffic by as much as 60%.
Hence, the correct answer in this scenario is: Decreased latency in accessing applications hosted in AWS.
The following options are incorrect because these are not the benefits of using AWS Global Accelerator:
- Accelerates server performance of your Amazon EC2 instances globally
- Reduced server costs in running AWS Services
- Provides a highly durable data store in AWS
Which configuration management service in AWS helps you configure applications and manage resources in your cloud architecture by using Puppet or Chef? A.AWS Trusted Advisor B.AWS Config C.AWS OpsWorks D.AWS Management Console
C.AWS OpsWorks
Explanation:
AWS OpsWorks is a configuration management service that provides managed instances of Chef and Puppet. Chef and Puppet are automation platforms that allow you to use code to automate the configurations of your servers. OpsWorks lets you use Chef and Puppet to automate how servers are configured, deployed and managed across your Amazon EC2 instances or on-premises compute environments.
OpsWorks has three offerings:
AWS OpsWorks for Chef Automate is a fully managed configuration management service that hosts Chef Automate, a suite of automation tools from Chef for configuration management, compliance and security, and continuous deployment.
AWS OpsWorks for Puppet Enterprise is a fully managed configuration management service that hosts Puppet Enterprise, a set of automation tools from Puppet for infrastructure and application management.
AWS OpsWorks Stacks is an application and server management service. With OpsWorks Stacks, you can model your application as a stack containing different layers, such as load balancing, database, and application server.
Hence, the correct answer is: AWS OpsWorks.
AWS Trusted Advisor is incorrect because this is not a configuration management service for Chef and Puppet. Trusted Advisor is just a tool that provides you real-time guidance to help you provision your resources following AWS best practices. AWS Trusted Advisor provides recommendations for Cost Optimization, Performance, Security, Fault Tolerance, and Service Limits.
AWS Management Console is incorrect because this is only a web interface for Amazon Web Services that allows you to access and manage cloud services. This option is not related to Chef and Puppet.
AWS Config is incorrect because this is not a suitable service for automated configuration management using Chef or Puppet. Config is a service that enables you to assess, audit, and evaluate the configurations of your AWS resources. You can use AWS Config as your framework for creating and deploying governance and compliance rules across your AWS accounts and regions.
What is the cloud computing model for services like Amazon RDS and Amazon ECS? A.FaaS B.IaaS C.PaaS D.SaaS
C.PaaS
Explanation:
There are three main models for cloud computing. Each model represents a different part of the cloud computing stack, they are:
- Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
- Platform as a Service (PaaS)
- Software as a Service (SaaS)
Platform as a Service, sometimes abbreviated as PaaS, removes the need for organizations to manage the underlying infrastructure (usually hardware and operating systems) and allow you to focus on the deployment and management of your applications.
Amazon RDS and ECS are considered PaaS because you don’t need to worry about setting up servers, storage, and network. You only manage the application and the data.
IAAS, or infrastructure as a service, is incorrect. IAAS contains the basic building blocks for cloud IT and typically provides networking features, computers (virtual or on dedicated hardware), and data storage space. IAAS lets you manage your own infrastructure, but in RDS and ECS, you don’t have total control over what could be done within the instances. Therefore, it’s incorrect.
SaaS, or software as a service, is incorrect. Software as a Service provides you with a completed product that is run and managed by the service provider. With a SaaS offering, you only need to think about how you will use that particular piece of software. RDS and ECS are not a complete product since you are still managing the application and the data.
FaaS, or function as a service, is incorrect. Amazon RDS and ECS are not serverless computing services that execute modular pieces of code.
A developer needs to install their application in Docker containers. Which of the following services eliminates the need to manage containers manually? A.Amazon ECS B.AWS Fargate C.Amazon FSx D.Amazon EC2
B.AWS Fargate
Explanation:
AWS Fargate is a serverless compute engine for containers. Fargate makes it easy for you to focus on building your applications. Fargate removes the need to provision and manage servers, lets you specify and pay for resources per application, and improves security through application isolation by design.
Fargate lets you define your application content, networking, storage, and scaling requirements. There is no provisioning, patching, cluster capacity management, or any infrastructure management required.
Hence, the correct answer in this scenario is: AWS Fargate.
Amazon FSx is incorrect because this is primarily used as a file system for Windows-based applications.
Amazon ECS is incorrect because by using this service, you still need to manage your own EC2 instances where your containers are hosted.
Amazon EC2 is incorrect since you still need to provision and manage your Docker containers that are hosted in these EC2 instances.
A company needs access to the full set of monitoring checks in AWS Trusted Advisor to ensure that its cloud environment is well-architected.
What is the MOST cost-effective support plan that the company should avail of? A.Basic B.Business C.Enterprise D.Developer
B.Business
Explanation:
AWS Support Plans offers a range of plans that provide access to tools and expertise that support the success and operational health of your AWS solutions. All support plans offer 24x7 access to customer service, AWS documentation, whitepapers, and support forums. For technical support and more resources to plan, deploy, and improve your AWS environment, you can select a support plan that best aligns with your AWS use case.
In addition to what is available with Basic Support, Business Support provides:
AWS Trusted Advisor - Access to the full set of Trusted Advisor checks and guidance to provision your resources following best practices to help reduce costs, increase performance and fault tolerance, and improve security.
AWS Personal Health Dashboard - Access to the 7 core Trusted Advisor checks and guidance to provision your resources following best practices to increase performance and improve security.
Enhanced Technical Support - 24x7 access to Cloud Support Engineers via phone, chat, and email. You can have an unlimited number of contacts that can open an unlimited amount of cases.
Hence, the correct answer is: Business support plan.
The option that says: Enterprise is incorrect. Although it provides you a full set of checks, this support plan is not cost-effective compared with the Business support plan.
The option that says: Basic and Developer are both incorrect because these support plans only provide 7 Core Checks in AWS Trusted Advisor.
A team of developers needs to run hundreds of thousands of fully managed batch computing jobs on AWS. Which of the following service should they choose? A.AWS Elastic BeanStalk B.AWS Fargate C.AWS Lambda D.AWS Batch
D.AWS Batch
Explanation:
AWS Batch is a set of batch management capabilities that enables developers, scientists, and engineers to easily and efficiently run hundreds of thousands of batch computing jobs on AWS. AWS Batch dynamically provisions the optimal quantity and type of compute resources based on the volume and specific resource requirements of the batch jobs submitted.
AWS Batch manages compute environments and job queues, allowing you to easily run thousands of jobs of any scale using EC2 and Spot Instances. It carefully monitors the progress of your jobs. When capacity is no longer needed, it will be removed.
Hence, the correct answer is: AWS Batch.
AWS Lambda and AWS Fargate are both incorrect since these are just serverless computing services. Lambda lets you run code without provisioning or managing servers, while Fargate removes the need to provision and manage servers using a serverless compute engine built for containers on AWS. Therefore, these services are not suitable for the provision of thousands of computing jobs.
AWS Elastic Beanstalk is incorrect because this is simply a managed platform that supports running web applications developed for specific programming languages, frameworks, and web containers. Elastic Beanstalk is a Platform-as-a-Service cloud deployment model, and you don’t manage the underlying infrastructure of this service. It is not suitable for running hundreds of thousands of batch computing jobs on AWS.
A customer needs to establish a private connection between two virtual private clouds (VPCs) without using additional software. Which of the following should they use? A.AWS Direct Connect B.VPC Peering C.AWS Site-to-Site VPN D.Amazon Connect
B.VPC Peering
Explanation:
A VPC Peering connection is a networking connection between two VPCs that enables you to route traffic between them using private IPv4 addresses or IPv6 addresses. Instances in either VPC can communicate with each other as if they are within the same network. You can create a VPC peering connection between your own VPCs, or with a VPC in another AWS account. The VPCs can be in different regions (also known as an inter-region VPC peering connection).
VPC Peering allows VPC resources, including EC2 instances, Amazon RDS databases, and Lambda functions that run in different AWS Regions to communicate with each other using private IP addresses, without requiring gateways, VPN connections, or separate network appliances.
Hence, the correct answer in this scenario is VPC Peering.
Amazon Connect is incorrect because it is an omnichannel cloud contact center service that helps companies provide superior customer service across voice and chat at a lower cost than traditional contact center systems. This service doesn’t provide a private connection between VPCs.
Amazon Direct Connect and AWS Site-to-Site VPN are both incorrect because these are just used to establish a connection between on-premises and AWS. The scenario doesn’t need a hybrid architecture to establish a private connection between two VPCs. Therefore, these services are incorrect.
A company plans to encrypt and manage its own encryption keys using a single-tenant hardware security module. The company must also have exclusive control over how its keys are used via an authentication mechanism independent from AWS.
Which service would meet that requirement? A.AWS KMS B.Amazon GuardDuty C.AWS CloudHSM D.Amazon S3
C.AWS CloudHSM
Explanation:
AWS CloudHSM is standards-compliant and enables you to export all of your keys to most other commercially-available HSMs, subject to your configurations. It is a fully-managed service that automates time-consuming administrative tasks for you, such as hardware provisioning, software patching, high-availability, and backups. CloudHSM also enables you to scale quickly by adding and removing HSM capacity on-demand, with no up-front costs.
AWS CloudHSM provides you with a FIPS 140-2 Level 3 overall validated single-tenant HSM cluster in your Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) to store and use your keys. You have exclusive control over how your keys are used via an authentication mechanism independent from AWS. You interact with keys in your AWS CloudHSM cluster similar to the way you interact with your applications running in Amazon EC2. You can use AWS CloudHSM to support a variety of use cases, such as Digital Rights Management (DRM), Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), document signing, and cryptographic functions using PKCS#11, Java JCE, or Microsoft CNG interfaces.
Hence, the correct answer is: AWS CloudHSM.
Amazon GuardDuty is incorrect because this is just a threat detection service that continuously monitors for malicious activity and unauthorized behavior to protect your AWS accounts and workloads. This service doesn’t provide you a hardware security module.
Amazon S3 is incorrect because this is simply a storage service and not an encryption service. You can use S3 to store and retrieve any amount of data, at any time, from anywhere on the web. You can store as many objects as you want in one or more buckets, and each object can be up to 5 TB in size.
AWS KMS is incorrect because this service is primarily used to create and manage cryptographic keys, and control their use across a wide range of AWS services and in your applications. KMS CMKs are backed by multi-tenant, FIPS-validated hardware service modules (HSMs) that AWS manages. Remember that it is stated in the scenario that the company must also have exclusive control over how its keys are used via an authentication mechanism independent from AWS. To manage your own HSMs, use AWS CloudHSM.
An e-commerce company launches several EC2 instances to run their web application. Which of the following services can be used to help ensure security compliance? (Select TWO.) A.AWS Trusted Advisor B.AWS OpsWorks C.AWS CloudFormation D.Amazon Inspector E.Amazon MQ
A.AWS Trusted Advisor
D.Amazon Inspector
Explanation
Amazon Inspector is an automated security assessment service that helps improve the security and compliance of applications deployed on AWS. Amazon Inspector automatically assesses applications for exposure, vulnerabilities, and deviations from best practices.
AWS Trusted Advisor is an online resource to help you reduce cost, increase performance, and improve security by optimizing your AWS environment. AWS Trusted Advisor provides real-time guidance to help you provision your resources following AWS best practices.
Hence, the correct options are:
- Amazon Inspector
- AWS Trusted Advisor
Amazon MQ is incorrect because this is a message broker service, not a security compliance service. It supports industry-standard APIs and protocols so you can switch from any standards-based message broker to Amazon MQ without rewriting the messaging code in your applications.
AWS OpsWorks is incorrect because this is a configuration management service that helps customers configure and operate applications, both on-premises and in the AWS Cloud, using Chef, and Puppet. This service is not related to security compliance.
AWS CloudFormation is incorrect because it only helps you turn your infrastructure into code and set up your Amazon Web Services resources so that you can spend less time managing those resources and more time focusing on your applications that run in AWS. CloudFormation automates and simplifies the task of repeatedly and predictably creating groups of related resources that power your applications, and not for security compliance.
Which of the following AWS services helps you coordinate the components of distributed applications and microservices using visual workflows? A.Amazon API Gateway B.AWS batch C.Amazon Rekognition D.AWS Step Functions
D.AWS Step Functions
Explanation:
AWS Step Functions is a web service that enables you to coordinate the components of distributed applications and microservices using visual workflows. You build applications from individual components that perform a discrete function, or task, allowing you to scale and change applications quickly. Step Functions provide auditable automation of routine deployments, upgrades, installations, and migrations.
Step Functions can easily automate recurring tasks such as patch management, infrastructure selection, and data synchronization, and Step Functions will automatically scale, respond to timeouts, and retry failed tasks.
Hence, the correct answer is: AWS Step Functions.
Amazon API Gateway is incorrect because this is just a fully managed service that makes it easy for developers to create, publish, maintain, monitor, and secure APIs at any scale. This service doesn’t provide a way for you to easily coordinate workflows.
AWS Batch is incorrect because this service simply enables you to run batch computing workloads of any scale. AWS Batch automatically provisions compute resources and optimizes the workload distribution based on the quantity and scale of the workloads. This option is not related to event-driven workflows and orchestration.
Amazon Rekognition is incorrect because this is primarily used for image and video analysis. You can’t use this service for patch management and infrastructure selection.
Which of the following pricing options will automatically reduce your cost on any EC2 instance usage regardless of region, instance family, size, OS, or tenancy? A.On-Demand Instances B.Saving Plans C.Reserved Instances D.Dedicated hosts
B.Saving Plans
Explanation:
Savings Plans is a flexible pricing model that saves up to 72 percent on Amazon EC2, AWS Fargate, and AWS Lambda usage. Savings Plans provides you lower prices for your Amazon EC2 usage, Fargate, and Lambda in exchange for a commitment to a consistent usage amount (measured in $/hour) for a one or three year term.
Savings Plans Types:
Compute Savings Plans provide the most flexibility and prices of up to 66 percent off on-Demand rates. These plans automatically apply to your EC2 instance usage, regardless of instance family, instance sizes, region, operating system, or tenancy.
EC2 Instance Savings Plans provide savings up to 72 percent off On-Demand, in exchange for a commitment to a specific instance family in a chosen AWS Region.
Hence, the correct answer is: Savings Plans.
On-Demand Instances is incorrect because this pricing model lets you pay for computing capacity by the hour or second (minimum of 60 seconds) with no long-term commitments. Since you need to reduce your cost, on-demand is not the best option.
Reserved Instances is incorrect. Although it offers discounts on hourly cost, you still need to commit at least a whole year’s worth of instance cost to fully maximize the discounts. If you need to reduce your cost for AWS Fargate, this option is not suitable.
Dedicated Hosts is incorrect since this is just a type of Amazon EC2 instance that runs in a VPC on hardware that’s dedicated to a single customer. This option is the most expensive pricing model. Therefore, it is incorrect.
A high-performance computing (HPC) application needs a storage service in AWS that can be used as a centralized Windows File Server for multiple EC2 instances.
Which of the following should they use? A.Amazon EBS B.Amazon EFS C.Amazon FSx D.Amazon S3
C.Amazon FSx
Explanation:
Amazon FSx makes it easy and cost-effective to launch and run popular file systems. With Amazon FSx, you can leverage the rich feature sets and fast performance of widely-used open source and commercially-licensed file systems, while avoiding time-consuming administrative tasks like hardware provisioning, software configuration, patching, and backups. It provides cost-efficient capacity and high levels of reliability, and it integrates with other AWS services so that you can manage and use the file systems in cloud-native ways.
Amazon FSx provides you with two file systems to choose from:
Amazon FSx for Windows File Server provides fully managed file storage that is accessible over the industry-standard Server Message Block (SMB) protocol.
Amazon FSx for Lustre makes it easy and cost-effective to launch and run the world’s most popular high-performance file system, Lustre.
Hence, the correct answer in this scenario is: Amazon FSx.
Amazon S3 is incorrect because this is just an object storage service. You can’t use this as a centralized Windows File Server.
Amazon EFS is incorrect. Although it is a shared file system storage, EFS only supports Linux workloads.
Amazon EBS is incorrect. An EBS volume can only be accessed by multiple EC2 instances if it is a Provisioned IOPS EBS volume. A more suitable option here is to use Amazon FSx for Windows File Server.
A developer plans to build a serverless application with a key-value database. Which of the following AWS services can be used to fulfill this requirement? (Select TWO.) A.Amazon SageMaker B.Amazon ECR C.Amazon RDS D.Amazon DynamoDB E.AWS Lambda
D.Amazon DynamoDB
E.AWS Lambda
Explanation:
AWS Lambda is a serverless computing service. It lets you run your code without provisioning or managing servers. Serverless computing allows you to build and run applications and services without thinking about servers. With serverless computing, your application still runs on servers, but AWS does all the server management.
Amazon DynamoDB is aligned with the values of Serverless applications: automatic scaling according to your application load, pay-per-what-you-use pricing, easy to get started with, and no servers to manage. It makes DynamoDB a very popular choice for Serverless applications running in AWS.
Hence, the correct options in this scenario are:
- AWS Lambda
- Amazon DynamoDB
Amazon RDS is incorrect because it is not a key-value database. RDS is a managed service that makes it easy to set up, operate, and scale a relational database in the cloud. Also, RDS is not a suitable fit for key-value pairs.
Amazon ECR is incorrect because this is a fully-managed Docker container registry that makes it easy for developers to store, manage, and deploy Docker container images. ECR is not a serverless computing service. If you want to have a serverless container, you can use AWS Fargate.
Amazon SageMaker is incorrect because this is not a serverless service. SageMaker is primarily used to build, train, and deploy machine learning (ML) models quickly.
A startup company plans to create a user management and authentication service for its customers. The users need to sign in through an external identity provider to access their web and mobile applications. Which AWS service should they use to meet this requirement? A.AWS IAM B.AWS Artifact C.Amaon Macie D.Amazon Cognito
D.Amazon Cognito
Explanation:
Amazon Cognito lets you add user sign-up, sign-in, and access control to your web and mobile apps quickly and easily. It provides authentication, authorization, and user management for your web and mobile apps. Your users can sign in directly with a user name and password, or through a third party such as Facebook, Amazon, Google, or Apple.
The two main components of Amazon Cognito are user pools and identity pools.
User pools are user directories that provide sign-up and sign-in options for your app users.
Identity pools enable you to grant your users access to other AWS services. You can use identity pools and user pools separately or together.
Cognito is a user management and authentication service that can be integrated into your web or mobile applications. It also enables you to authenticate users through an external identity provider and provides temporary security credentials to access your app’s backend resources in AWS or any service behind Amazon API gateway.
Hence, the correct answer in this scenario is: Amazon Cognito.
AWS IAM is incorrect because this is just a service that enables you to manages users’ access only in your AWS account. AWS IAM is not a suitable service to use for authenticating users through an external identity provider. It does not provide mobile authentication as well, unlike Amazon Cognito.
Amazon Macie and AWS Artifact are both incorrect because these services are not user management services.
A company plans to use AWS to send email updates for their new products through SMTP. Which service should they use? A.Amazon SES B.Amazon SWF C.Amazon SQS D.Amazon SNS
A.Amazon SES
Explanation:
Amazon Simple Email Service is a highly scalable and cost-effective service for sending and receiving email. Amazon SES eliminates the complexity and expense of building an in-house email solution or licensing, installing, and operating a third-party email solution. You can use SMTP interface or one of the AWS SDKs to integrate Amazon SES directly into your existing applications. You can also embed the email sending capabilities of Amazon SES into the software you already use, such as ticketing systems and email clients.
SES is an excellent solution for anyone who needs a reliable, scalable, and inexpensive way to send and receive an email. AWS users include a diverse range of organizations, such as online retailers, application developers, and digital marketing organizations.
Hence, the correct answer in this scenario is: Amazon SES.
Amazon SNS, Amazon SQS, and Amazon SWF are all incorrect since the scenario asks you to send email updates through SMTP, and Amazon SES is the appropriate service to use in this question.
A customer needs to store objects that are frequently accessed. To help the customer save costs, you must select a storage service free from retrieval charges. Which of the following S3 storage classes would meet this requirement? (Select TWO.) A.S3 One Zone IA B.S3 Standard-IA C.S3 Standard D.S3 Intelligent Tiering E.S3 Glacier Archive
C.S3 Standard
D.S3 Intelligent Tiering
Explanation:
S3 Standard offers high durability, availability, and performance object storage for frequently accessed data. Because it delivers low latency and high throughput, S3 Standard is appropriate for a wide variety of use cases, including cloud applications, dynamic websites, content distribution, mobile and gaming applications, and big data analytics.
The S3 Intelligent-Tiering storage class is designed to optimize costs by automatically moving data to the most cost-effective access tier, without performance impact or operational overhead. It works by storing objects in two access tiers: one-tier optimized for frequent access and another lower-cost tier optimized for infrequent access.
The S3 Standard-IA and S3 One Zone-IA storage classes are designed for long-lived and infrequently accessed data. (IA stands for infrequent access.) S3 Standard-IA and S3 One Zone-IA objects are available for millisecond access (same as the S3 Standard storage class). Amazon S3 charges a retrieval fee for these objects, so they are most suitable for infrequently accessed data.
Both the S3 Standard and S3 Intelligent-Tiering storage classes do not have retrieval fees. Hence, the correct answers are:
S3 Standard
S3 Intelligent-Tiering
S3 Glacier Deep Archive, S3 Standard-IA, and S3 One Zone-IA are all incorrect since these storage tiers have object retrieval fees.
Which of the following provides the key concepts, design principles, and architectural best practices for designing and running workloads in the cloud? A.AWS Reference Architecture Diagrams B.AWS Well-Architected Framework C.Shared Responsibility Model D.AWS Marketplace
B.AWS Well-Architected Framework
Explanation:
AWS Well-Architected Framework has been developed to help cloud architects build secure, high-performing, resilient, and efficient infrastructure for their applications.
This is based on five pillars namely:
- Operational Excellence - The ability to run and monitor systems to deliver business value and to continually improve supporting processes and procedures.
- Security - The ability to protect information, systems, and assets while delivering business value through risk assessments and mitigation strategies.
- Reliability - The ability to recover from infrastructure or service disruptions, dynamically acquire computing resources to meet demand, and mitigate disruptions such as misconfigurations or transient network issues.
- Performance Efficiency - The ability to use computing resources efficiently to meet system requirements, and to maintain that efficiency as demand changes and technologies evolve.
- Cost Optimization - The ability to avoid or eliminate unneeded cost or suboptimal resources.
The AWS Well-Architected Framework describes the key concepts, design principles, and architectural best practices for designing and running workloads in the cloud. By answering a set of foundational questions, you learn how well your architecture aligns with cloud best practices and are provided guidance for making improvements. It provides a consistent approach for customers and partners to evaluate architectures, and implement designs that will scale over time.
Hence, the correct answer is: AWS Well-Architected Framework.
AWS Reference Architecture Diagrams is incorrect because this is simply a collection of technical resources to help you build industry-tested architectures more effectively and efficiently in the AWS Cloud. It does not provide a set of foundational questions that you can use to evaluate if your architecture is aligned with AWS best practices.
AWS Marketplace is incorrect because this is only an online software store that helps customers find, buy, and immediately start using the software and services that run on AWS. It doesn’t provide any architectural best practices in AWS.
Shared Security Model is incorrect because this just describes the specific responsibilities of AWS and the customer in managing, maintaining, and securing AWS services, including its underlying resources.
Which of the following services displays the general status of all available AWS Services and informs you if a service is experiencing availability issues? A.AWS personal Health Dashboard B.AWS Service Health Dashboard C.AWS CloudTrail D.Amazon CloudWatch
B.AWS Service Health Dashboard
Explanation:
AWS Service Health Dashboard displays the general status of AWS services. It also provides the flexibility of displaying the history of a specific service within a geographical area. It is useful for determining whether a failure has had effects that you might have never encountered inside your own network. AWS keeps this history of service interruptions for a year.
Service Health Dashboard provides a complete health check of all services in all regions.
Hence, the correct answer is: AWS Service Health Dashboard.
AWS Personal Health Dashboard is incorrect because it only gives you a personalized view of the performance and availability of the services you are using and not all of the available AWS services. You have to use the AWS Service Health Dashboard to check the current status and status history of all AWS services in various regions.
Amazon CloudWatch and AWS CloudTrail are both incorrect because these services are primarily used to monitor performance and event history of your AWS Services.
