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AWS CCP 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the options below are recommendations in the performance efficiency pillar of the well-architected framework? (choose 2)

  1. Democratize advanced technologies
  2. Go global in days
  3. Use serverless architectures
  4. Rarely experiment
  5. Mechanical complexity
A
  1. Democratize advanced technologies

3. Use serverless architectures

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2
Q

What are Edge locations used for?

  1. They are used for terminating VPN connections
  2. They host a CDN called CloudFront
  3. They are the public-facing APIs for Amazon S3
  4. They are used by regions for inter-region connectivity
A
  1. They host a CDN called CloudFront
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3
Q

What is required to enable an EC2 instance in a public subnet to access the Internet? (choose 2)

  1. A public IP address
  2. A NAT Gateway
  3. A NAT Instance
  4. A VPN connection
  5. A route to an Internet Gateway
A
  1. A public IP address

5. A route to an Internet Gateway

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4
Q

What types of origins are supported by Amazon CloudFront? (choose 2)

  1. EBS volume
  2. S3 object
  3. Elastic Load Balancer
  4. EC2 instance
  5. Elastic File System
A
  1. Elastic Load Balancer

4. EC2 instance

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5
Q

Which feature enables fast, easy, and secure transfers of files over long distances between a client and an Amazon S3 bucket?

  1. S3 Static Websites
  2. S3 Copy
  3. Multipart Upload
  4. S3 Transfer Acceleration
A
  1. S3 Transfer Acceleration
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6
Q

How is data protected by default in Amazon S3?

  1. Buckets are replicated across all regions
  2. Objects are redundantly stored on multiple devices across multiple facilities within a region
  3. Objects are redundantly stored on multiple devices across multiple facilities across all regions
  4. Objects are copied across at least two Availability Zones per region
A
  1. Objects are redundantly stored on multiple devices across multiple facilities within a region
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7
Q

Which of the options below are recommendations in the cost optimization pillar of the well-architected framework? (choose 2)

  1. Adopt a consumption model
  2. Adopt a capital expenditure model
  3. Start spending money on data center operations
  4. Analyze and attribute expenditure
  5. Manage your services independently
A
  1. Adopt a consumption model

4. Analyze and attribute expenditure

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8
Q

Which pricing options are available when using Amazon EC2 Reserved Instances? (choose 2)

  1. Capacity upfront
  2. All upfront
  3. Mainly upfront
  4. Partial upfront
  5. Enterprise upfront
A
  1. All upfront

4. Partial upfront

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9
Q

Which data consistency models are available with Amazon S3? (choose 2)

  1. Eventual consistency for PUTS of new objects
  2. Read after write consistency for PUTS of new objects
  3. Eventual consistency for overwrite PUTS and DELETES
  4. Read after write consistency for overwrites PUTS and DELETES
  5. Accelerated consistency for all PUTS and DELETES
A
  1. Read after write consistency for PUTS of new objects

3. Eventual consistency for overwrite PUTS and DELETES

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10
Q

Which Amazon EC2 Reserved Instance type enables you to match your capacity reservation to predictable recurring dates and times?

  1. Standard RI
  2. Convertible RI
  3. Scheduled RI
  4. Customized RI
A
  1. Scheduled RI
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11
Q

Which information security standard applies to entities that store, process or transmit credit cardholder data?

  1. ISO 27001
  2. HIPAA
  3. NIST
  4. PCI DSS
A
  1. PCI DSS
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12
Q

Which Amazon RDS database engines support AWS RDS Read Replicas? (choose 2)

  1. Oracle
  2. MySQL
  3. PostgreSQL
  4. Microsoft SQL Server
  5. DynamoDB
A
  1. MySQL

3. PostgreSQL

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13
Q

Which Amazon RDS feature enables disaster recovery by creating a replica in another Availability Zone and synchronously replicating data to it?

  1. Read Replica
  2. Multi-AZ
  3. DB mirroring
  4. Log shipping
A
  1. Multi-AZ
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14
Q

When deploying resources using AWS CloudFormation, what are you charged for? (choose 2)

  1. Per-usage costs for CloudFormation
  2. Provisioned EC2 instances
  3. Provisioned EBS volumes
  4. Provisioned route tables
  5. AWS Auto Scaling Groups
A
  1. Provisioned EC2 instances

3. Provisioned EBS volumes

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15
Q

Which statement best describes elasticity in the cloud?

  1. The ability to scale resources up or down and only pay for what you use
  2. The ability for a system to recover from the failure of a single component
  3. A flexible model of code development that results in faster deployment times
  4. A pricing model that allows upfront payments and term commitments to reduce cost
A
  1. The ability to scale resources up or down and only pay for what you use
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16
Q

Which statement best describes elasticity in the cloud?

  1. The ability to scale resources up or down and only pay for what you use
  2. The ability for a system to recover from the failure of a single component
  3. A flexible model of code development that results in faster deployment times
  4. A pricing model that allows upfront payments and term commitments to reduce cost
A
  1. The ability to scale resources up or down and only pay for what you use
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17
Q

Which AWS service can be used to ensure the persistence of in-flight transactions independently of any single application component?

  1. AWS CloudFormation
  2. Amazon DynamoDB
  3. AWS ElastiCache
  4. Amazon SQS
A
  1. Amazon SQS
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18
Q

Which of the below AWS services supports automated backups as a default configuration?

  1. Amazon S3
  2. Amazon RDS
  3. Amazon EC2
  4. Amazon EBS
A
  1. Amazon RDS
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19
Q

How can you ensure that the EBS volumes attached to an EC2 instance are still available after the instance is terminated?

  1. EBS volumes automatically persist after the EC2 instance is terminated
  2. EBS volumes are always deleted when an EC2 instance is terminated
  3. Ensure the “DeleteOnTermination” attribute of the EBS volume is set to false while launching the instance
  4. Take a snapshot of the EBS volume
A
  1. Ensure the “DeleteOnTermination” attribute of the EBS volume is set to false while launching the instance
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20
Q

Which EC2 tenancy model gives you visibility and control over how instances are placed on a server?

  1. Dedicated Instances
  2. Dedicated Hosts
  3. Dedicated Tenancy
  4. Dedicated EC2
A
  1. Dedicated Hosts
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21
Q

How does the consolidated billing feature of AWS Organizations treat Reserved Instances that were purchased by another account in the organization?

  1. All accounts in the organization are treated as one account so any account can receive the hourly cost benefit
  2. Only the master account can benefit from the hourly cost benefit of the reserved instances
  3. All accounts in the organization are treated as one account for volume discounts but not for reserved instances
  4. AWS Organizations does not support any volume or reserved instance benefits across accounts, it is just a method of aggregating bills
A
  1. All accounts in the organization are treated as one account so any account can receive the hourly cost benefit
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22
Q

What is the best way to apply an organizational system to EC2 instances so they can be identified by descriptors such as purpose or department?

  1. Use descriptive hostnames
  2. Organize the instances into separate subnets
  3. Apply tags
  4. Use the instance meta-data
A
  1. Apply tags
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23
Q

Which services provide protection measures against distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks? (choose 2)

  1. AWS CloudHSM
  2. Amazon CloudFront
  3. AWS WAF
  4. Internet Gateway
  5. Managed VPN
A
  1. Amazon CloudFront

3. AWS WAF

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24
Q

Which service can be used to create sophisticated, interactive graph applications?

  1. Amazon RedShift
  2. Amazon Neptune
  3. AWS X-Ray
  4. Amazon Athena
A
  1. Amazon Neptune
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25
Q

Which of the below is a fully managed Amazon search service based on open source software?

  1. Amazon Elastic Beanstalk
  2. AWS OpsWorks
  3. Amazon CloudSearch
  4. Amazon Elasticsearch
A
  1. Amazon Elasticsearch
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26
Q

Which descriptions are correct regarding cloud deployment models? (choose 2)

  1. With the public cloud the consumer organization typically owns and manages the infrastructure
  2. With the private cloud the consumer organization typically incurs OPEX costs for usage
  3. With the hybrid cloud, multiple private clouds are connected
  4. With the public cloud the consumer organization typically incurs OPEX costs for usage
  5. With the private cloud the consumer organization typically owns and manages the infrastructure
A
  1. With the public cloud the consumer organization typically incurs OPEX costs for usage
  2. With the private cloud the consumer organization typically owns and manages the infrastructure
27
Q

When using Amazon IAM, what authentication methods are available to use? (choose 2)

  1. Client certificates
  2. Access keys
  3. Amazon KMS
  4. Server certificates
  5. AES 256
A
  1. Access keys

4. Server certificates

28
Q

To ensure the security of your AWS account, what are two AWS best practices for managing access keys? (choose 2)

  1. Don’t create any access keys, use IAM roles instead
  2. Don’t generate an access key for the root account user
  3. Where possible, use IAM roles with temporary security credentials
  4. Rotate access keys daily
  5. Use MFA for access keys
A
  1. Don’t generate an access key for the root account user

3. Where possible, use IAM roles with temporary security credentials

29
Q

Which AWS database service provides a fully managed data warehouse that can be analyzed using SQL tools and business intelligence tools?

  1. Amazon RDS
  2. Amazon DynamoDB
  3. Amazon RedShift
  4. Amazon ElastiCache
A
  1. Amazon RedShift
30
Q

Which AWS service lets you use Chef and Puppet to automate how servers are configured, deployed, and managed across your Amazon EC2 instances or on-premises compute environments?

  1. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
  2. AWS CloudFormation
  3. AWS Systems Manager
  4. AWS OpsWorks
A
  1. AWS OpsWorks
31
Q

Which of the following statements are correct about the benefits of AWS Direct Connect? (choose 2)

  1. Quick to implement
  2. Increased reliability (predictable performance)
  3. Lower cost than a VPN
  4. Increased bandwidth (predictable bandwidth)
  5. Uses redundant paths across the Internet
A
  1. Increased reliability (predictable performance)

4. Increased bandwidth (predictable bandwidth)

32
Q

Which types of Amazon Kinesis services are available? (choose 2)

  1. Kinesis Video Streams
  2. Kinesis Encrypted Streams
  3. Kinesis Data Firehose
  4. Kinesis Shard Streams
  5. Kinesis Splunk Streams
A
  1. Kinesis Video Streams

3. Kinesis Data Firehose

33
Q

Where is the information stored that defines an EC2 instance such as the template for the root volume, launch permissions and block device mappings?

  1. EFS
  2. EBS
  3. AMI
  4. ARN
A
  1. AMI
34
Q

What is the best way for an organization to automate the creation, retention, and deletion of EBS snapshots?

  1. Use S3 lifecycle policies
  2. Create a script
  3. Create a CloudFormation template
  4. Use Amazon DLM
A
  1. Use Amazon DLM
35
Q

Which of the following statements are correct regarding Elastic Network Interfaces (ENIs)? (choose 2)

  1. Additional ENIs can be detached from an instance and attached to another instance
  2. The primary ENI is identified as “eth0”
  3. The primary ENI can be detached from an instance and attached to another instance
  4. The attributes of an ENI do not follow it when moved between instances
  5. The primary ENI is identified as “eth1”
A
  1. Additional ENIs can be detached from an instance and attached to another instance
  2. The primary ENI is identified as “eth0”
36
Q

What are the charges for using Amazon Glacier? (choose 2)

  1. Data transferred into Glacier
  2. Retrieval requests
  3. Data storage
  4. Enhanced networking
  5. Minimum storage fees
A
  1. Retrieval requests

3. Data storage

37
Q

Which database allows you to scale at the push of a button without incurring any downtime?

  1. Amazon RDS
  2. Amazon EMR
  3. Amazon DynamoDB
  4. Amazon RedShift
A
  1. Amazon DynamoDB
38
Q

Which feature of Amazon S3 adds a layer of additional security to prevent accidental deletion?

  1. Versioning
  2. Encryption
  3. MFA delete
  4. Lifecycle management
A
  1. MFA delete
39
Q

Which service can an organization use to track API activity within their account?

  1. AWS CloudTrail
  2. Amazon CloudWatch
  3. Amazon IAM
  4. Amazon CloudHSM
A
  1. AWS CloudTrail
40
Q

What tool provides real time guidance to help you provision your resources following best practices in the areas of cost optimization, performance, security and fault tolerance?

  1. AWS Inspector
  2. AWS Trusted Advisor
  3. AWS Personal Health Dashboard
  4. Amazon IAM
A
  1. AWS Trusted Advisor
41
Q

What is the best way for an organization to transfer hundreds of terabytes of data from their on-premise data center into Amazon S3 with limited bandwidth available?

  1. Use S3 Transfer Acceleration
  2. Apply compression before uploading
  3. Use AWS Snowball
  4. Use Amazon CloudFront
A
  1. Use AWS Snowball
42
Q

When launching an EC2 instance, where can you specify configuration tasks and scripts to run after the instance starts?

  1. Metadata
  2. User data
  3. Run command
  4. AWS config
A
  1. User data
43
Q

You need to run a production process that will use several EC2 instances and run constantly on an ongoing basis. The process cannot be interrupted or restarted without issue. What EC2 pricing model would be best for this workload?

  1. Reserved instances
  2. Spot instances
  3. On-demand instances
  4. Flexible instances
A
  1. Reserved instances
44
Q

Which Amazon RDS feature can reduce the burden on a database that is experiencing heavy read traffic?

  1. Multi AZ
  2. Read Replicas
  3. Log Shipping
  4. Global Tables
A
  1. Read Replicas
45
Q

Which of the options below are recommendations in the reliability pillar of the well-architected framework? (choose 2)

  1. Use ad-hoc recovery procedures
  2. Automatically recover from failure
  3. Scale vertically to increase aggregate system availability
  4. Attempt to accurately estimate capacity requirements
  5. Manage change in automation
A
  1. Automatically recover from failure

5. Manage change in automation

46
Q

Which AWS service does API Gateway integrate with to enable users from around the world to achieve the lowest possible latency for API requests and responses?

  1. AWS Direct Connect
  2. Amazon S3 Transfer Acceleration
  3. Amazon CloudFront
  4. AWS Lambda
A
  1. Amazon CloudFront
47
Q

Which service provides the ability to simply upload applications and have AWS handle the deployment details of capacity provisioning, load balancing, auto-scaling, and application health monitoring?

  1. Amazon EC2
  2. Amazon Elastic Beanstalk
  3. AWS Auto Scaling
  4. AWS OpsWorks
A
  1. Amazon Elastic Beanstalk
48
Q

You are concerned that you may be getting close to some of the default service limits for several AWS services. What AWS tool can be used to display current usage and limits?

  1. AWS CloudWatch
  2. AWS Personal Health Dashboard
  3. AWS Trusted Advisor
  4. AWS Systems Manager
A
  1. AWS Trusted Advisor
49
Q

Which of the following represent economic advantages of moving to the AWS cloud? (choose 2)

  1. Reduce the need to manage applications
  2. Increase efficiencies through automation
  3. Reduce the rate of change
  4. Reduce the need to manage infrastructure
  5. Increase time to market for new applications
A
  1. Increase efficiencies through automation

4. Reduce the need to manage infrastructure

50
Q

What advantages do NAT Gateways have over NAT Instances? (choose 2)

  1. Can be assigned to security groups
  2. Can be used as a bastion host
  3. Managed for you by AWS
  4. Highly available within each AZ
  5. Can be scaled up manually
A
  1. Managed for you by AWS

4. Highly available within each AZ

51
Q

What speeds is AWS Direct Connect offered at by AWS? (choose 2)

  1. 50 Mbps
  2. 100 Mbps
  3. 1 Gbps
  4. 10 Gbps
  5. 100 Gbps
A
  1. 1 Gbps

4. 10 Gbps

52
Q

Which AWS service is known as a “serverless” service and runs code as functions triggered by events?

  1. Amazon ECS
  2. AWS Lambda
  3. Amazon CodeDeploy
  4. Amazon Cognito
A
  1. AWS Lambda
53
Q

Which AWS service is used for decoupling applications components using a message queue?

  1. Amazon SWF
  2. Amazon SNS
  3. Amazon Kinesis
  4. Amazon SQS
A
  1. Amazon SQS
54
Q

At what level is an Internet Gateway attached in the AWS infrastructure?

  1. Availability Zone
  2. Subnet
  3. VPC
  4. Region
A
  1. VPC
55
Q

Which of the below are valid options for interacting with Amazon Glacier archives? (choose 2)

  1. Directly through the management console
  2. From the AWS CLI
  3. Using S3 Multipart Upload
  4. Using the REST API
  5. Through IAM
A
  1. From the AWS CLI

4. Using the REST API

56
Q

Which service provides a way to convert video and audio files from their source format into versions that will playback on devices like smartphones, tablets and PCs?

  1. Amazon Elastic Transcoder
  2. AWS Glue
  3. Amazon Rekognition
  4. Amazon Comprehend
A
  1. Amazon Elastic Transcoder
57
Q

Which AWS support plan comes with a Technical Account Manager (TAM)?

  1. Basic
  2. Developer
  3. Business
  4. Enterprise
A
  1. Enterprise
58
Q

When using AWS Organizations with consolidated billing what are two valid best practices? (choose 2)

  1. Always enable multi-factor authentication (MFA) on the root account
  2. Always use a straightforward password on the root account
  3. The paying account should be used for billing purposes only
  4. Use the paying account for deploying resources
  5. Never exceed the limit of 20 linked accounts
A
  1. Always enable multi-factor authentication (MFA) on the root account
  2. The paying account should be used for billing purposes only
59
Q

Which statement best describes Amazon Route 53?

  1. Amazon Route 53 is a service that enables routing within VPCs in an account
  2. Amazon Route 53 is a highly available and scalable Domain Name System (DNS) service
  3. Amazon Route 53 enables hybrid cloud models by extending an organization’s on-premise networks into the AWS cloud
  4. Amazon Route 53 is a service for distributing incoming connections between a fleet of registered EC2 instances
A
  1. Amazon Route 53 is a highly available and scalable Domain Name System (DNS) service
60
Q

Which type of AWS Elastic Load Balancer should be used if you want to route traffic to targets based on the content of the request such as DNS name or URL path?

  1. Application Load Balancer (ALB)
  2. Network Load Balancer (NLB)
  3. Classic Load Balancer (CLB)
  4. AWS Auto Scaling
A
  1. Application Load Balancer (ALB)
61
Q

Which data warehouse service can be used to query data in an Amazon S3 data lake without loading the data?

  1. Amazon RDS
  2. AWS Lambda
  3. Amazon RedShift
  4. Amazon EMR
A
  1. Amazon RedShift
62
Q

Under the AWS shared responsibility model what is AWS responsible for? (choose 2)

  1. Physical security of the data center
  2. Replacement and disposal of disk drives
  3. Configuration of security groups
  4. Patch management of operating systems
  5. Encryption of customer data
A
  1. Physical security of the data center

2. Replacement and disposal of disk drives

63
Q

Which feature allows customers to route traffic via private IP addresses between two VPCs?

  1. Endpoints
  2. Network Address Translation
  3. Virtual Private Gateway
  4. Peering Connections
A
  1. Peering Connections
64
Q

Which AWS services can be used to create a “stateless” application? (choose 2)

  1. Amazon DynamoDB 2. Amazon RDS
  2. Amazon SWF
  3. Load balancing with session affinity
  4. Amazon EBS
A
  1. Amazon SWF

5. Amazon EBS

AWS (7 decks)

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