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AvMed > AvMed > Flashcards

AvMed Flashcards

1
Q

By how much does gas expand at 6000ft?

A

30%

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2
Q

Where does gas expand?

A

In the hollow cavaties of our body (the sinuses, ears, stomach, dental work etc.)

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3
Q

If the expanded gas cannot escape what happens?

A

The affected area will swell, block and possibly be damaged.

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4
Q

What is barotrauma?

A

Physical damage to body tissues caused by a difference in pressure between gas space inside, or in contact with the body and surrounding gas or fluid.

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5
Q
A
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6
Q

How much does gas expand by at 6000ft

A

30%

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7
Q

Where does air expand in our bodies?

A

The hollow cavaties of our body- the ears, sinuses, stomach, recent dental work etc.

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8
Q

What is barotrauma?

A

Physical damage to body tissues caused by a difference in pressure between gas space inside, or in contact with the body and the surrounding gas or liquid.

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9
Q

How is barotrauma in the ear created?

A

When atmospheric pressure outside the air increases and the air in the middle of the ear remains the same- thus causing the ear drum to be pushed inwards and become distorted.

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10
Q

How can you relieve ear ache?

A

Swallowing, chewing, or yawning

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11
Q

What is the Valsalvar manoeuvre?

A

A short forceful expiration against a pinched nose and closed mouth.

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12
Q

How can infants relieve symptoms of ear ache?

A

Feeding or sucking a dummy

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13
Q

If an individual cannot perfom the valsalvar manouvre on the ground should they fly?

A

No, because pain and injury may result from the inability to equalise pressure differences.

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14
Q

Where are the sinuses situated?

A

Above they eyes, in the cheeks, and at the back of the nose.

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15
Q

What are the sinuses?

A

A group of hollow spaces that open out into the nose and back of the throat.

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16
Q

what are the signs of hypoxia?

A
  1. Agitated behaviour
  2. Confusion/drowsiness
  3. Slurred speech
  4. Impaired vision
  5. Abnormal pulse and breathing rates
  6. Greying or pale skin
  7. Blue tinge to extremities (cyanosis)
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17
Q

What are the steps to treating hypoxia?

A
  1. Administer PO at 4000L p/m
  2. Call MedLink
  3. Monitor pulse and breathing rate every 10 minutes
  4. Complete IIOR and investigate the cause.
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18
Q

How quickly are the signs of hypoxia reversed after administering PO?

A

15 seconds

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19
Q

Where does pressure inside the ear usually exit?

A

Eustachian tube

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20
Q

Why may having a cold and flying cause pain to the sinuses?

A

If they are blocked and air gets trapped inside them this can cause pain and even sinus trauma.

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21
Q

Why is dehydration more common when flying?

A

At altitude the air is drier.

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22
Q

What are some of the causes of dehydration?

A

Vomitting
Diarrhoea
Temperature
Heat exhaustion
Alcohol consumption

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23
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of dehydration?

A

Thirst
Headache
Tiredness
Dry mouth, lips and eyes
Concentrated urine
Passing small amounts of urine less often than usual

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24
Q

What is renal colic?

A

Kidney stones

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25
Q

What is the role of the kidney?

A

To filter waste products from the blood

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26
Q

What are the causes of renal colic?

A

Dehydration
High protein, low fibre diet
Long periods of inactivity
Several urine/kidney infections
Known family history

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27
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of renal colic?

A

Severe pain which comes and goes
Pain in the side of your abdomen/groin
High temperature
Feeling sweaty
Nausea/vomitting
Blood in urine
Possible signs of shock

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28
Q

How to treat renal colic…

A

Encourage causalty to drink lots of water
Offer appropriate pain relief
if pain severe of causalty worsening call MedLink
Treat for shock
Complete an OR
Make PA for MQV

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29
Q

What is special assistance?

A

A small team within VA who provide advice and clearance for our customers with medical conditions, medical equipment, reduced or hidden disabilities.

30
Q

Who provides our customers who require oxygen with PO?

A

Oxygen to Go

31
Q

Who requires a CPAP or BiPAP machine?

A

People suffering with sleep apnea

32
Q

What must we check when a customer boards the plane with a CPAP or BiPAP machine?

A

1.That the cusomer is using it for sleep aponea only
2. That the CPAP/BiPAP machine is listed in the SEP manual
3. That the customer has not modified the machine and the batteries are the ones from the manufaturer

33
Q

What is the rule for all medical equipment?

A

It must not be plugged into the aircraft’s power supply- it must have its own power supply

34
Q

What does WCHR mean?

A

Wheel chair assistance is needed on the ramp- the cusomer can ascend and descend stairs and make their way to their seat on their own.

35
Q

What does WCHS mean?

A

Assistance is needed on the steps- the customer cannot ascend or descend steps on their own but they can make their own way to their seat.

36
Q

What does WCHC mean?

A

Assistance is needed in the cabin. The customer may be immobile.

37
Q

What is a sefety assistant?

A

A travelling companion who assists a disabled passenger in an emergency situation

38
Q

What two types of medication are cabin crew members prohibited from taking when operating a flight? Why is this?

A

Antihistamines and travel sickness tablets as they make you drowsy.

39
Q

What is the only FAK we are allowed to use without APIC permission?

A

The GFAK.

40
Q

What are the 4 roles in a medical event drill?

A
  1. The Assessor
  2. The Runner
  3. The Co-Ordinator
  4. The Communicator
41
Q

What must the assessor do?

A
  1. Inital assessment and build rapport
  2. Introduction- who are we? what can we do?
  3. Carry out immediate first aid and call for help
  4. Gather information for the IIOR
  5. Hand over to the runner
42
Q

What must the runner do?

A
  1. Collect required equipment
  2. Gain permission for equipment to be used (if no communicator)
  3. Inform co-ordinator of the event
43
Q

What must the communicator do?

A

Phone flight crew and tell them
1. Who and where you are and the location of the medical event.
2. The source of the event
3.The severity of the event
4. Crew actions and results
5. Passenger reactions
6. Gain permission for equipment to be used and provide the flight crew with updates.

44
Q

What must the coordinator do?

A
  1. Oversee the whole event
  2. Ensure universal safety precautions are used
  3. Re-assess- do not diagnose
  4. Assess crew roles
  5. Designate a communicator
  6. Delegate to another OBM to use equipment
  7. Allocate responsibilities for other crew members
  8. Initiate communication with MedLink
  9. If required- PA for MQV
45
Q

What acronym can we use to help us gain information for an IIOR?

A

SAMPLE

46
Q

What does SAMPLE stand for?

A

S= Signs and Symptoms
A= Allergies
M= Medication
P= Past medical history/Pregnancy
L= Last meal/drink
E= External clues/Events/Environment/Emotional state

47
Q

How do you take a pulse rate?

A
  1. Place two fingers over srtery on wrist
  2. Increase pressure until you feel pulse
  3. Count pulse for 30 seconds and multiply by 2
48
Q

Where do we take a pulse rate in an infant?

A

On the inside of their arm

49
Q

How would you take a breathing rate?

A
  1. Tell the casualty that you are going to take another pulse rate.
  2. Count the number of times their chest rises and falls.
  3. Multiply by 2.
  4. Observe whether their breaths are shallow or deep.
50
Q

What is MedLink?

A

The ground-to-air medical advisory service that we call when there is a MED on board

51
Q

What does ODE stand for?

A

Operational Decision Evaluation

52
Q

Who can request an ODE?

A

Captain/ APIC or The coordinator (the FSM)

53
Q

Who is involved in the ODE?

A

The captain, The FSM, The OCC, and MedLink

54
Q

Why is the MQV not a part of the ODE?

A
  1. Security- not allowed in the flight deck
  2. Reduces pressure put on the MQV
  3. MedLink has the final say
55
Q

When there is a collapsed casualty what acronym should we use?

A

DRAB

56
Q

What does DRAB stand for?

A

D: Danger
R: Response
A: Airway
B: Breathing

57
Q

At what point is a medical certificate required for pregnancy?

A

First day of the 28th week.

58
Q

What should a pregnancy clearance letter outline?

A

Estimated due date, that there are no complications with the pregnancy, that the mother is fit to fly.

59
Q

Once a baby has been born what do we do with it?

A
  1. Wrap it in a clean blanket.
  2. Place it on mother’s chest
60
Q

Define miscarriage

A

The spontaneous loss of a foetus before 24 weeks.

61
Q

When do most miscarriages happen?

A

8-12 weeks

62
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of a miscarriage?

A
  1. History of miscarriages
  2. Casualty is distressed and anxious
  3. Cramps in lower abdomen
  4. Sudden excessive vaginal bleeding
  5. Passage of foetus and contents of uterus
  6. Signs of shock if bleeding is severe
63
Q

How do we treat a casualty who has had a miscarriage?

A
  1. Reassure them and stay with them.
  2. Protect their dignity
  3. Keep them warm and offer them a blanket
  4. Allow the casualty to choose a comfortable position- prop their knees up to ease abdominal pain
  5. Administer PO
  6. Monitor breathing and pulse rates
  7. Look out for signs of shock & monitor them
  8. Complete IIOR
64
Q

What is an ectopic pregnancy?

A

When an embryo develops outside of the womb- usually in the fallopian tube. It can be life-threatening to the mother.

65
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy?

A

The same as a miscarriage but
1. One sided pain on abdomen
2. Shoulder tip pain
3. Vaginal bleeding

66
Q

How do we treat an ectopic pregnancy?

A

The same as a miscarriage

67
Q

What is a still birth?

A

When a baby is born after the 24th week of pregnancy and shows no signs of life.

68
Q

What are the objectives of first aid?

A

Preserve life
Prevent condition from worsening
Promote recovery
Arrange necessary medical care

69
Q

What does AMC stand for?

A

Aiport Medical Clearance

70
Q

What is the average adult pulse rate?

A

60-100bpm

71
Q

What is the average adult breathing rate?

A

1-16 bpm

AvMed (1 decks)

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