AVIXA - Audiovisual Networking Professional Certification (ANP) Exam Questions Flashcards
What is the main limitation of AVB?
- Latency
- Bandwidth reservation requirements
- Security
- Clock inaccuracy
Bandwidth reservation requirements
Which is the most widely used layer 3 protocol for Audio transport in networks?
* Dante
* Audio Video Bridging (AVB)
* Ethersound
* Cobranet
Dante
A layer 2 protocol can be used to send an AV signal over the internet.
* False
* True
False
The addition of a header to a payload is called?
* Fragmentation
* Encapsulation
* Addressing
* Windowing
Encapsulation
What is the port number for an HTTP request?
* 80
* 25
* 110
* 23
80
A data payload and its header at layer 3 is called?
* Segment
* Bit
* Packet
* Frame
Packet
A socket consists of
* IP address and a MAC address
* Port number and window size
* IP address and port number
* MAC address and protocol
IP address and port number
Which of the following is a connection-oriented transport protocol with error correction and windowing
* TCP
* LLC
* UDP
* IP
TCP
TCP and UDP operate at layer
* 4
* 2
* 5
* 7
4
A session between two nodes is established at layer
* 5
* 7
* 2
* 4
5
If you don’t know the blanking region, you can best closely estimate it by multiplying the horizontal by vertical pixels by __________.
* 1
* 1.20
* 2
* .666
1.20
You need to transport 8-bit, 60 fps, 4:2:0, 1080p (SMPTE blanking of 2200 x 1125) video over your network. This data stream will not be transported over DVI or HDMI. Not factoring compression through CODECs, how much bandwidth does it require?
* 1.49 Gbps
* 1.87 Gbps
* 2.23 Gbps
* 1.78 Gbps
- 1.78 Gbps
Answer: 2200 * 1125 * 60 * 8 * 3 *.50 (4:2:0 = 50% Reduction) = 1,782,000,000 or 1.78 Gbps
You need to transport 12-bit, 25 fps, 4:4:4, 4K UHD (3840 x 2160, but SMPTE blanking of 4400 x 2250) video over your SDVoE network. Your system will transport the signal over DVI at some point. Not factoring compression through CODECs, how much bandwidth does it require?
* 3.11 Gbps
* 3.71 Gbps
* 11.1 Gbps
* 9.33 Gbps
9.33 Gbps
Answer: 3840 * 2160 * 25 * 12 * 3 * 1 * 1.25 = 9,331,200,000 or 9.33 Gbps
You need to transport 8-bit, 24 fps, 4:2:2, 1080p (VESA Reduced Blanking: 2080 x 1111) video over your network. It will be transported over HDMI. Not factoring compression through CODECs, how much bandwidth does it require?
* 1.7 Gbps
* 1.1 Gbps
* .369 Gbps
* 1 Gbps
- 1.1 Gbps
Answer: 2080 * 1111 * 24 * 8 * 3 *.666 * 1.25 = 1,108,113,178 or 1.1 Gbps
H.264 is:
* A low latency codec
* A lossy codec
* An intraframe compression codec
* A visually lossless codec
- A lossy codec
Choose all the visually lossless codecs. (Select all that apply.)
* VC2
* JPEG2000
* H.264
* H.265
VC2
JPEG2000
H264/H265 produce a signal with
* Low bandwidth, high latency
* High bandwidth, high latency
* Low bandwidth, low latency
* High bandwidth, low latency
Low bandwidth, high latency
The human eye is more sensitive to:
* Dynamic range
* Variations in brightness (Luma)
* Level of blacks
* Variations in color (chroma)
Variations in brightness (Luma)
How many pixels does a 4K(UHD) signal have?
* Almost 8.3 million
* Less than 1 million
* Over 2 million
* Over 33 million
Almost 8.3 million
Answer: 3840 * 2160 = 8294400 8,294,400 almost 8.3 millon
What percent bandwidth reduction does a 4:2:0 signal have versus a 4:4:4?
* 50%
* 75%
* 66%
* 33%
* 0%
50%
Which are the three video properties that are dependent on each other?
* Fps, color palette, HDMI
* HDR, HDCP, bandwidth
* Resolution, latency, bandwidth
* Bit depth, bandwidth, latency
* Bandwidth, latency, image quality
Bandwidth, latency, image quality
Reorder the codecs in terms of achievable bandwidth from highest to lowest.
VC2
H.264
JPEG2000
H.265
Blue River
1) Blue River (9 Gbps)
2) VC2 (900 Mbps)
3) JPEG2000 ( 200 - 900 Mbps)
4) H.264 ( 300:1 Compression Ratio)
5) H.265 ( 15 - 50 Mbps)
DHCP with reservations requires ___________.
* a Layer 2 switch
* a DNS server
* devices that support DHCP
* zero touch provisioning
devices that support DHCP
Hostnames for the internal corporate network can be associated to IP addresses with a ___________.
* DHCP with reservations system
* client static address
* DNS server
* firewall
DNS server
An “IP address conflict” occurs when ___________.
* DHCP and DHCP with reservations are used on the same subnet
* two devices are assigned the same IP address
* DHCP and static IP addresses used are on the same subnet
* devices lose their DHCP lease and get a new IP address
two devices are assigned the same IP address
“Zero touch provisioning” refers to ___________.
* Installing equipment without an IP address
* Installing network equipment without sending a technician
* Submitting a work order for DHCP with reservation assignment
* Getting a device’s MAC address without opening the box
Installing network equipment without sending a technician
To implement DHCP with reservations, IT needs ___________.
* IP address
* MAC Address
* equipment manufacturer and IP address
* device name and MAC address
MAC Address
DHCP Addresses always change ___________.
* at the end of every week
* when the lease expires
* when hardware is rebooted
* none of the above
none of the above
Static IP addresses are preferred by ___________.
* IT networking teams
* Integrators
* Project sponsors
* End users
Integrators
Enterprise IT teams will provide ___________.
* Login access to routers for you to setup IP addresses
* IP address configuration information for your devices
* Static MAC addresses
* MAC addresses of your AV equipment
IP address configuration information for your devices
A sender using IntServ QoS, requests all the necessary resources at once for all flows.
* False
* True
True
RSVP means
* Reliable Sending Video Protocol
* Resource Reservation Protocol
* Session initiation Protocol
* Please answer the invitation
Resource Reservation Protocol
Switches have only 2 queues: priority and best effort
* False
* True
False
Networks by default provide best effort delivery
* False
* True
True
Dante does not implement QoS for their Audio over IP solution
* False
* True
False
Which of the following parameters influence QoS in a network (select all that apply)
* Use of VLANs
* Jitter
* Dropped packets
* Web browser selected (Edge vs. Chrome)
Jitter
Dropped packets
DiffServ advantages are (select all that apply)
* Easy to scale
* Allows for granularity in QoS
* Uses RSVP Path
* Require many resources
Easy to scale
Allows for granularity in QoS
DiffServ in routers is implemented using
* CoS codes
* DSCP codes
* Port 80
* VLAN tags
DSCP codes
Videoconferencing has a higher QoS level than VoIP
* False
* True
False
Quality of Service in networking means
* Measuring jitter
* Best effort delivery
* User beware
* Implementing a “priority of service” system
- Implementing a “priority of service” system
The goal for the next ITU/ISO codec is _____.
* Same bandwidth of H.265, but better image quality
* 50% reduction in bandwidth versus H.265
* 75% reduction of bandwidth versus H.265
* 25% reduction of bandwidth versus H.265
50% reduction in bandwidth versus H.265
Video compression CODECs fall into which two categories?
* Statistical and intraframe
* Lossy and visually lossless
* Lossless and visually lossless
* High and low color gamut
Lossless and visually lossless
Blue River NT compression _____. (Select all that apply.)
* Produces very low latency signals
* Outputs low image quality signals
* Requires a 10G network
* Is very inexpensive
Produces very low latency signals
Requires a 10G network
JPEG2000 produces compressed signals that have _____. (Select all that apply.)
* High latency
* Good image quality
* Low bandwidth
* High bandwidth
Good image quality
High bandwidth
H.264 produces compressed signals that have _____. (Select all that apply.)
* High image quality
* High latency
* Low bandwidth
* High bandwidth
High latency
Low bandwidth
Intraframe compression _____.
* Uses each full frame in the compression process
* Selects a key frame and looks at variations in the following frames
* Is lossless compression
* Results in low bandwidth signals
Uses each full frame in the compression process
Interframe compression _____.
* Is lossless compression
* Uses each full frame in the compression process
* Results in high bandwidth signals
* Selects a key frame and looks at variations in the following frames
Selects a key frame and looks at variations in the following frames
The three interrelated parameters of compression are _____.
* Frame rate, color bit depth, and latency
* Chroma subsampling, latency, and bandwidth
* Image quality, color gamut, and latency
* Bandwidth, latency, and image quality
Bandwidth, latency, and image quality
Google VP9 codec _____. (Select all that apply.)
* Is also called AV1
* Is royalty free
* Is used in YouTube videos
* Is an intraframe codec
Is royalty free
Is used in YouTube videos
A correct traceroute response guarantees connectivity between host and destination
* False
* True
False
Ipconfig can be used to test
* Determine if a node is in the right subnet
* Identifying issues with the DHCP server
* Check if your NIC is working properly
* Finding problems with the route from host to the destination
Determine if a node is in the right subnet
Identifying issues with the DHCP server
Check if your NIC is working properly
Pinging the loopback address (127.0.0.1) is used to
* Testing the DNS server
* Determine if a mac address is in the ARP table
* Identifying issues with the DHCP server
* Check if your NIC is working properly
Check if your NIC is working properly
A data distribution method that forwards a data stream only to devices subscribed to the stream is:
* Multicast
* Unicast
* Broadcast
Multicast
A local network can have more than one IGMP querier.
* True
* False
False - In a local network, there can be multiple IGMP (Internet Group Management Protocol) queriers, but typically only one should be active at a time for a given multicast group. The IGMP querier is responsible for managing multicast group memberships and querying hosts to determine which multicast groups are active. If multiple queriers are present, they use a selection process to determine which one will take the role of the active querier.
A multicast address that follows best practices would be:
* 192.2.0.1
* 239.2.0.1
* 255.1.0.1
239.2.0.1
Addresses in the range 224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 are designated for multicast use, with 239.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255 being reserved for administratively scoped multicast (private use).
The data distribution method that forwards a single data stream to every device on a subnet is:
* Broadcast
* Unicast
* Multicast
Broadcast
The data distribution method that sends a separate data stream to each destination device is:
* Unicast
* Multicast
* Broadcast
Unicast
Which are true statements about User Datagram Protocol (UDP)? (Select all that apply.)
* Is used for multicast
* Keeps sending content even if data is lost
* Ensures no data is lost
* Is real time
Is used for multicast
Keeps sending content even if data is lost
Is real time
A connection oriented protocol that ensures that no data is lost is:
* IGMP
* TCP
* UDP
TCP
Service Level Agreements describe ______________
* Meeting times and payment schedules
* Scope of responsibilities and support response times
* System designs and equipment models
* System performance specifications, network topologies, and truck roll policies
Scope of responsibilities and support response times
“Sneakernet” describes ___________.
* Access to equipment closets
* Subnets with devices that have access to the internet
* SLA response times within the same building
* Transferring files by walking up to equipment
Transferring files by walking up to equipment
“Least Services” and “Least Permissions” do not include policies like ____________.
* Providing users with access to only the systems they need
* Having the fewest authorized users on a network
* Turning off an unused web server
* SLA response times
SLA response times
Network security teams describe integrity measures as _____________.
* Protecting information from unauthorized access or misuse
* Protecting information from changes or deletions
* Ensuring reliable and uninterrupted access to systems
* Making sure that users can’t connect to the network without permission
Protecting information from changes or deletions
Infrastructure Engineering teams deal with ____________.
* User authorization, network traversal, and physical topology
* Network routers, network traversal, and logical topology
* Network security, logical topology, and conduit
* Cabling, length of runs, and physical topology
Cabling, length of runs, and physical topology
During the IT needs analysis phase, you avoid talking about____________.
* AV project ideas
* Specific equipment
* Security requirements
* Bandwidth requirements
Specific equipment
A Key security principle for network IT teams is abbreviated with the CIA acronym. This refers to_______, __________, __________.
* coexistence, integrity, availability
* coexistence, integrity, access
* confidentiality, integrity, availability
* confidentiality, inspection, access
confidentiality, integrity, availability
Which of the following is not an option for managing traffic coexistence issues?
* Putting equipment on network without IT consent
* Isolating traffic with an airgapped network
* Putting AV traffic alongside corporate traffic
* Creating an AV subnet
Putting equipment on network without IT consent
An AV person should expect that all IT departments will provide to the AV team
* MAC information
* None of the above
* Superuser permissions to the network
* Security policies
None of the above
Security is ___________.
* Not an important concern when the AV network is airgapped from the corporate LAN.
* Always a key topic of your needs analysis.
* Outside of AV project scope.
* Considered at the end of the project.
Always a key topic of your needs analysis.
Why might AVoIP be preferable to a matrix switcher? (Select all that apply.)
* Ability to pass uncompressed video data
* Virtual Architecture
* Flexibility
* Expandability
* Remote Control
Virtual Architecture
* Flexibility
* Expandability
* Remote Control
High image quality and low latency are typically associated with
* 10G networks
* Cobranet
* 1G networks
* Any Ethernet network
10G networks
10G networks are difficult to deploy
* True
* False
False
Most point to point applications are suitable for AVoIP
* True
* False
False
What are the advantages of an AVoIP system? (Select all that apply.)
* Lack of standards
* Virtual architecture
* Remote, centralized control
* Limited distance
Virtual architecture
Remote, centralized control
One method to segregate AV traffic on a network is:
* VLAN
* Using a router
* VPN
* Trunking
VLAN
What does it mean to have a fully non-blocking switch?
* All protocol ports are open
* Ports have variable bandwidth as a function of usage
* All ports have the full bandwidth of the switch
* Switch has a 1G uplink port
All ports have the full bandwidth of the switch
Which of the following is true about subnets (select of that apply)
* /20 CIDR allows more subnets than /24 CIDR
* Subnets improve performance by reducing broadcasts domains
* You need a router to communicate between subnets
* Subnets use 802.1q trunking to communicate between switches
Subnets improve performance by reducing broadcasts domains
You need a router to communicate between subnets
Which of the following is correct (select all that apply)
* Members of the same VLAN have to be physically connected to the same switch
* Static VLAN assignment is easier than Dynamic
* Unmanaged switches are used to set up VLANs
* VLANs create virtual switches
Static VLAN assignment is easier than Dynamic
VLANs create virtual switches
Dynamic VLAN port assignment requires a
* DNS server
* VMPS server
* DHCP server
* Is not allowed
VMPS server
VMPS, or VLAN Management Policy Server, is a feature used in networking
Which of the following is a CIDR address
* 11000000101010000000101000000001
* 192.165.1.24
* 2001:0db8:3c4d:0015:0000:0000:1a2f:1a2b
* 192.168.1.58/20
192.168.1.58/20
Nodes in different VLANs can communicate without the need of a router
* False
* True
False
Which of the following is a trunking protocols used with VLANs
* 802.3
* 802.1q
* 802.1AS
* 802.11a
802.1q
Which of the following are reasons to subdivide a network (choose all that apply)
* Use of unmanaged switches
* Hardware savings
* Performance
* Security
Performance
Security
Subnetting is a ______ solution to subdivide a network
* Layer two
* Layer four
* Layer three
* Layer one
Layer three
A VLAN is a _______ solution to subdivide a network
* Layer four
* Layer three
* Layer two
* Layer one
Layer two
A 4K, 4:4:4, 10 bit color depth video at 60 fps has an approximate bandwidth of _____.
* Lower than 1G
* Higher than 10G
* Around 12 Mbps
* Between 1 and 10 G
Higher than 10G
Answer = 4400 * 2250 * 60 * 10 * 3 * 1 = 17,820,000,000 or 17.8 Gbps
Can you easily tell the difference between a 4:4:4 and 4:2:0 video signal under normal viewing conditions?
* Yes
* No
* Only if the room is dark enough
* Only for 24fps videos
No
A signal that has a 33% bandwidth reduction due to chroma subsampling is:
* 4:2:0
* 4:4:4
* 4:2:2
* 4:1:1
4:2:2
What is chroma subsampling?
* A compression CODEC
* A bandwidth reduction method based on statistical redundancy
* A bandwidth reduction method based on chroma reduction
* A subset of the Rec.2020 color space
A bandwidth reduction method based on chroma reduction
What does the first “4” in 4:4:4 mean?
* The signal has all the Luma information
* The signal has all the blue-green information
* The signal has all the red minus green information
* The bandwidth of the signal has been reduced by 4%
The signal has all the Luma information
Applications that require 4:4:4 signals are _____. (Select all that apply.)
* Display wall at a stadium
* Displays at a sports bar
* Brand color accuracy
* Medical imaging
Brand color accuracy
Medical imaging
DVDs and Blu-Ray discs are typically recorded at:
* 4:1:1
* 4:2:0
* 4:2:1
* 4:4:4
4:2:0
The components of a YCbCr signal are:
* R, G, and B
* Rec.2020
* Luma and Chroma
* Basic Color Palette
Luma and Chroma
Chroma subsampling is based on:
* Distance of the viewer to the screen
* Color Gamut being utilized
* Limitations of human hearing
* Limitations of human vision
Limitations of human vision
A 4:2:0 signal has a reduction of bandwidth relative to the original of:
* 33%
* 50%
* 66%
* 25%
50%
According to the Nyquist-Shannon Theorem, to be able to digitally reproduce an analog signal the sampling rate has to be greater than:
* Triple the frequency of the signal
* Double the frequency of the signal
* The same as the frequency of the signal
* Half the frequency of the signal
Double the frequency of the signal
Audio Video Bridging can be routed (layer 3)?
* True
* False
True
Audio requires less processing than video to transport over IP because:
* A/D converters are inexpensive
* The audio signal is less sensitive to noise
* The audio signal has a lower bandwidth than the video signal
* Audio uses less bits per sample than video
The audio signal has a lower bandwidth than the video signal
AES67 is a
* A discovery mechanism
* Interoperability standard
* A precision clock
* Codec
Interoperability standard
Which of the following are discovery protocols, mark all that apply:
* SAP
* QoS
* Bonjour
* RTP
SAP - Service Access Point - A Service Access Point is an interface that allows different layers of a network protocol stack to communicate with each other. It acts as a point of access for services provided by a particular layer, enabling higher-layer protocols to interact with lower-layer protocols. SAPs are commonly used in various networking standards, including those defined by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO).
Bonjour is a network protocol developed by Apple that enables automatic discovery of devices and services on a local area network (LAN).
The main problem of Audio transmission over IP is
* Latency
* Signal Bandwidth
* Availability of CODECs
* HDCP
Latency
Select the correct chain for transmission of an audio signal over IP
* Speakers, network, A/D,D/A, sound
* Sound, A/D, network, D/A, speakers
* Sound, D/A, network, A/D, speakers
* Sound, network, A/D,D/A, speakers
Sound, A/D, network, D/A, speakers
What is the bandwidth of an audio signal sampled at 44.1 KHz, 16 bits/sample, stereo
* 1.14 Mbps
* 1.41 Mbps
* 5.64 Mbps
* .71 Mbps
1.41 Mbps
Answer 44.1 x 16 x 2 = 1411.2 or 1.41 Mbps
Bit depth is defined as
* Sampling rate of the signal in KB/sec
* Number of channels being sampled
* Size of the file of the recording in KB
* Number of bits per audio sample
Number of bits per audio sample
Devices to be installed in an AV network need to be tested for vulnerabilities
* During the design phase, before they are installed
* When the network is turned on
* Never
* Once they are installed
During the design phase, before they are installed
Accepting trade-offs between security and latency by not using encryption is a best practice
* No
* Yes
No
Which of these protocols is secure
* SSH
* HTTP
* HIPAA
* Telnet
SSH - Secure Shell A secure protocol used for secure remote access and management of network devices and servers. It encrypts the communication, making it secure against eavesdropping.
What type of tools allow network administrators to attack their own network to check for vulnerabilities
* Packet sniffers
* Session border controllers
* Network protocol analyzers
* Vulnerability analysis tools
Vulnerability analysis tools
A firewall policy to forbid all traffic except if allowed is called
* Default deny
* Default allow
* Session border controller
* Border proxy
Default deny
What kind of attack is it when a network resource is bombarded with data packets, making it unavailable
* Man in the middle
* Phishing
* Denial of Service (DoS)
* Trojan horse
Denial of Service (DoS)
As a security best practice TCP/UDP ports should be
* Left open unless there is an attack
* Left always open
* Always disabled, except for port 80
* Disabled unless the device needs to use them
Disabled unless the device needs to use them
It is a best practice to grant users right to access on the basis of
* Access request
* Open access
* Priority access
* Least access
Least access
Security of the AV system should be discussed
* In the final testing phase
* In the design phase
* In the installation phase
* In the program (wants and needs) phase
In the program (wants and needs) phase
Security in a networked AV system is the responsibility of
* The IT department
* Everyone involved in the project
* The AV integrator
* The customer
Everyone involved in the project
An IGMP capable switch is required for:
* Unicasting
* Trunking
* Routing
* Multicasting
*Multicasting
Order the following protocols in increasing bandwidth of compressed signal: 1) VC2, 2) H264, 3) SDVoE, 4) H265
* 1,2,3,4
* 4,2,1,3
* 4,3,2,1
* 1,3,4,2
1,3,4,2
Here’s the reasoning:
VC2: Typically has the lowest bandwidth requirements among the listed protocols.
SDVoE: This is a standard for AV over IP but generally requires more bandwidth than VC2.
H265 (HEVC): Offers better compression than H264, resulting in lower bandwidth usage for the same quality, but generally requires more bandwidth than SDVoE.
H264: This generally requires more bandwidth than H265 for similar quality levels.
So the order is 1 (VC2), 3 (SDVoE), 4 (H265), 2 (H264).
RTP is a protocol for
* Layer 2 mac address resolution
* Audio transport in Layer 1
* AV signal transport in networks
* Encryption of signals
AV signal transport in networks
RTP (Real-time Transport Protocol) is a protocol used for delivering audio and video over IP networks.
HLS is a protocol
* Streaming signals
* For timing of signal
* Layer 2 transport
* To establish a session
Streaming signals
HLS (HTTP Live Streaming) is a streaming protocol developed by Apple for delivering audio and video content over the internet.
Latency in data sheets is typically measured in
* Bytes
* Frames
* Second
* Frames per sec
Second
Select the data sheet information relevant to IT (select all that apply)
* Resolution of the compressed signal
* Ethernet speed
* Color space
* Resolution of the source signal
Resolution of the compressed signal - Relevant for bandwidth and storage considerations in a networked environment.
Ethernet speed - This is crucial for network performance and compatibility.
A 4K/UHD signal has a resolution of
* 3840x2160
* 4096x2160
* 720x480
* 1920x1080
3840x2160
A non-blocking switch
* Allows any VLAN tagged signals through
* Cannot use IGMP
* Restricts the bandwidth of each port to 25% of the totally available bandwidth
* Guarantees full bandwidth in every port
Guarantees full bandwidth in every port
AVB is based on
* Time Sensitive Networking
* Layer 3 implementation
* Visually lossless codec
* Proprietary protocol
Time Sensitive Networking
AVB (Audio Video Bridging) is based on IEEE standards that provide improved audio and video streaming over Ethernet networks. Specifically, AVB encompasses several key IEEE standards, including:
IEEE 802.1AS: Time synchronization, enabling precise timing across devices to ensure that audio and video streams are synchronized.
IEEE 802.1Qav: Traffic shaping to manage and prioritize audio and video streams over the network, reducing latency and jitter.
IEEE 802.1Qat: Stream reservation, allowing applications to reserve bandwidth for time-sensitive data streams, ensuring quality of service.
IEEE 802.1Q: VLAN tagging, which allows for the separation of different types of traffic on the same network.
Together, these standards facilitate the reliable transmission of time-sensitive media, making AVB suitable for professional audio and video applications in networks.
What is VC-2
* A transport protocol
* A software controller
* A type of QoS
* A codec
A codec - VC-2 is a video compression standard that is designed for high-quality video encoding and is often used in professional video applications, including broadcasting and post-production. It provides efficient compression while maintaining visual quality, making it suitable for various video workflows.
A switch should be capable of providing ____% of the required budget.
120 (120%)
Thermal effects are an issue for PoE levels below 60 Watts.
* True
* False
False
What are the advantages of PoE? (Select all that apply.)
* Switch redundancy
* Centralized, remote control, with networking tools
* Safe and convenient
* Simple cabling and reduced installation cost
Centralized, remote control, with networking tools
Safe and convenient
Simple cabling and reduced installation cost
PoE Type 3 has a power budget per device at:
* 60 W
* 90-95 W
* 30.8 W
* 15.4 W
60 W
Wireless devices have a MAC address.
* True
* False
True
If the source device is sending a video stream, it can only send less than a hundred frames per second to the destination.
* True
* False
False
When the destination device receives an ARP request, it will recognize its IP address and ______.
* restart immediately
* send a unicast reply to the requestor
* keep its MAC address hidden from other switches
* reply to every endpoint on the local area network
send a unicast reply to the requestor
The ARP request is sent ______.
* to all the subscribed devices
* to all the devices on the local network
* only to the device with the matching IP address
* to all the devices attached to the same switch
to all the devices on the local network
ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) broadcasts a request to all devices in the local subnet to find the MAC address associated with a specific IP address. All devices receive the ARP request, but only the device with the matching IP address will respond with its MAC address.
ARP stands for _______.
* Address Record Procedure
* Address Register Protocol
* Address Resolution Protocol
* Address Repository Program
Address Resolution Protocol
What do you do if a source doesn’t know the MAC address of the destination?
* You need to restart the source and destination
* You need to perform an update on your destination device
* You need to replace the layer 2 switch
* You need to correlate the destination IP address with the unknown MAC address
You need to correlate the destination IP address with the unknown MAC address
This is typically done using ARP (Address Resolution Protocol), which broadcasts an ARP request on the local network to discover the MAC address associated with the given IP address. The device with that IP address will respond with its MAC address, allowing communication to proceed.
When might your network need to use two switches?
* If they are on two floors of a building
* To send larger frames faster
* A client is sending confidential information
* To avoid overheating
If they are on two floors of a building
Depending on the manufacturer, the active port number on a switch may light up green, yellow, or orange when a device is plugged in. A green light likely means:
* A successful connection has been made
* You need to replace the cable
* There’s a disruption in power supply
* It’s testing the connection speed
A successful connection has been made
We may refer to our source and destination as endpoints, but sometimes we refer to them as _______. (Select all that apply.)
* Nodes
* Devices
* Clients
* Hosts
All these terms can describe the endpoints in a network context:
Nodes: General term for any active device on a network.
Devices: A broad term that can refer to any hardware component connected to a network.
Clients: Typically refers to devices that request services from servers.
Hosts: Refers to any device connected to a network that has an IP address.
When devices send information to each other using layer two ethernet switches, they are sending _______.
* Endpoints
* Hosts
* Frames
* Ports
Frames
H.264 is:
* A lossy codec
* A low latency codec
* An intraframe compression codec
* A visually lossless codec
A lossy codec
Choose all the visually lossless codecs. (Select all that apply.)
* H.265
* JPEG2000
* H.264
* VC2
JPEG2000
VC2
H264/H265 produce a signal with
* Low bandwidth, low latency
* High bandwidth, high latency
* Low bandwidth, high latency
* High bandwidth, low latency
Low bandwidth, low latency
Both H.264 and H.265 (HEVC) are designed to provide high-quality video compression, which reduces the bandwidth required for streaming or transmission while maintaining good video quality. While H.265 typically offers better compression efficiency than H.264, both formats are aimed at minimizing bandwidth usage. Latency can vary based on implementation and settings, but generally, they are optimized for lower latency in real-time applications.
A higher bandwidth compressed signal has:
* Low latency, low image quality
* Low latency, high image quality
* High latency, high image quality
* High latency, low image quality
Low latency, high image quality
Higher bandwidth typically allows for more data to be transmitted, which can support higher image quality and lower latency, making it ideal for applications such as real-time video streaming and gaming.
The human eye is more sensitive to:
* Variations in brightness (Luma)
* Variations in color (chroma)
* Level of blacks
* Dynamic range
Variations in brightness (Luma)
How many pixels does a 4K(UHD) signal have?
* Almost 8.3 million
* Over 33 million
* Less than 1 million
* Over 2 million
A 4K (UHD) signal has almost 8.3 million pixels.
Specifically, the resolution for 4K UHD is typically 3840 x 2160 pixels, which results in approximately 8,294,400 pixels.
What percent bandwidth reduction does a 4:2:0 signal have versus a 4:4:4?
* 0%
* 33%
* 75%
* 50%
* 66%
50%
Which are the three video properties that are dependent on each other?
* Fps, color palette, HDMI
* Bit depth, bandwidth, latency
* Bandwidth, latency, image quality
* HDR, HDCP, bandwidth
* Resolution, latency, bandwidth
Bandwidth, latency, image quality
These properties are interconnected because:
Bandwidth: Higher bandwidth can allow for better image quality.
Latency: Increasing bandwidth can help reduce latency in real-time applications.
Image Quality: The quality of the video can be influenced by the available bandwidth and can impact latency if compression techniques are used to fit a higher quality signal within bandwidth limits.
What is a network primarily defined as?
A) A collection of data packets
B) A group of people sharing information
C) A collection of interconnected nodes that share data
D) A system of electronic devices only
A collection of interconnected nodes that share data
What are the two main parts of a network?
A) Devices and software
B) Nodes and connections
C) Users and devices
D) Hardware and protocols
Nodes and connections
What was the original purpose of ARPAnet?
A) To create the Internet
B) To allow different computers to communicate
C) To provide wireless communication
D) To establish video conferencing
To allow different computers to communicate
What is circuit switching?
A) A method that divides data into packets
B) A method establishing a dedicated communication channel
C) A method for broadcasting data
D) A system for wireless data transmission
A method establishing a dedicated communication channel
In packet switching, how is data transmitted?
A) In a continuous stream
B) In small individual units called packets
C) Only during dedicated times
D) Using a single channel only
In small individual units called packets
What is a key advantage of packet-switched networks?
A) They are always faster than circuit-switched networks
B) They require less hardware
C) They allow multiple devices to communicate simultaneously
D) They are easier to set up
They allow multiple devices to communicate simultaneously
Which type of network is typically limited to a single building?
A) Wide Area Network (WAN)
B) Local Area Network (LAN)
C) Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
D) Personal Area Network (PAN)
Local Area Network (LAN)
What unique identifier is used in Local Area Networks?
A) IP address
B) MAC address
C) Device name
D) Network address
MAC address
What is a Wide Area Network (WAN) primarily used for?
A) To connect devices within a single location
B) To connect multiple LANs
C) To provide local wireless access
D) To enhance video quality
To connect multiple LANs
Who usually owns the connection media used by a WAN?
A) Individual users
B) Internet Service Providers (ISPs)
C) Private corporations
D) Government agencies
Internet Service Providers (ISPs)
What is an enterprise network?
A) A network only for public access
B) A private WAN connecting resources at different locations
C) A network with no security features
D) A system that cannot communicate with the Internet
A private WAN connecting resources at different locations
What happens to MAC addresses when data travels over a WAN?
A) They are preserved for identification
B) They are stripped from data packets
C) They are transformed into IP addresses
D) They remain unchanged
They are stripped from data packets
What is the primary characteristic of network topology?
A) The physical location of devices
B) The path data travels to its destination
C) The types of devices connected
D) The speed of data transmission
The path data travels to its destination
What are the two basic categories of network topologies?
A) Logical and virtual
B) Physical and logical
C) Wired and wireless
D) Client and server
Physical and logical
In a bus topology, how are nodes connected?
A) All nodes connect through a single cable
B) Each node connects to every other node
C) Nodes are connected in a circular manner
D) Nodes connect to a central hub
All nodes connect through a single cable
What is a key feature of ring topology?
A) Nodes connect in a straight line
B) Data travels in a circular path
C) It is always fully meshed
D) Each node connects to a central router
Data travels in a circular path
Which topology provides the best redundancy?
A) Bus topology
B) Ring topology
C) Meshed topology
D) Star topology
Meshed topology
What is a single point of failure in a network?
A) A device that enhances performance
B) A device whose failure causes the entire network to fail
C) A backup device for redundancy
D) A redundant connection
A device whose failure causes the entire network to fail
In wireless topology, what do transmission lobes refer to?
A) The physical cables used
B) The RF signals emitted by devices
C) The distance between devices
D) The network’s security features
The RF signals emitted by devices
What defines a hybrid topology?
A) A combination of wired and wireless connections
B) Incorporating multiple topology types
C) Using only peer-to-peer connections
D) A single point of failure for redundancy
Incorporating multiple topology types
In client-server architecture, who provides services?
A) The server
B) The client
C) Both client and server equally
D) The network administrator
The server
What is a defining feature of peer-to-peer (P2P) architecture?
A) Centralized management
B) Multiple server roles
C) All nodes act as both clients and servers
D) Strict security measures
All nodes act as both clients and servers
What organization published the IEEE 802 standards for Ethernet?
A) Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE)
B) International Organization for Standards (ISO)
C) Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
D) Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)
Institute of Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE)
What is the OSI model primarily focused on?
A) Wireless communications
B) International networking standards
C) Internet usage
D) Ethernet cabling specifications
International networking standards
What is the primary focus of a needs analysis in network design?
A) Identifying the latest technology
B) Determining customer needs to meet business objectives
C) Establishing limitations and regulations
D) Planning the physical layout of the network
Establishing limitations and regulations
Which phase of the needs analysis involves data gathering?
A) Pre-assessment
B) Assessment
C) Post-assessment
D) Documentation
Assessment
What must be documented at the end of the needs analysis process?
A) An equipment list
B) A full network design
C) A list of employees
D) A summary of customer needs and system support
A summary of customer needs and system support
During which phase do you gauge the success of the network project?
A) Pre-assessment
B) Assessment
C) Post-assessment
D) Implementation
Post-assessment
What is essential for balancing system security and availability in AV and IT systems?
A) High budget allocations
B) Advanced technology
C) Customer satisfaction
D) Understanding customer needs
Understanding customer needs
What should be considered when planning the physical topology of a network?
A) The latest software updates
B) The physical characteristics of the buildings
C) The number of users only
D) Existing equipment alone
The physical characteristics of the buildings
Why is stakeholder buy-in important during the network design process?
A) To increase project costs
B) To reduce documentation needs
C) To maintain open communication and support
D) To limit the number of users
To maintain open communication and support
What should the needs analysis documentation include at a minimum?
A) A complete list of hardware
B) A budget breakdown
C) An Executive Summary
D) User manuals
An Executive Summary
What is one major factor in determining customer readiness for a new network?
A) The number of devices
B) The complexity of the network
C) The size of the building
D) The available budget and resources
The available budget and resources
In network design, what does “top-down design” focus on?
A) The physical layout of the cables
B) User needs and supported applications
C) Security policies
D) Equipment brands
User needs and supported applications
What type of documentation is essential for tracking cable runs and connections?
A) Marketing reports
B) Cable documentation schemes
C) Employee records
D) Financial audits
Cable documentation schemes
How does the network’s logical topology impact physical connectivity?
A) It determines the user roles
B) It sets the budget for the project
C) It helps identify necessary cables
D) It defines the physical location of users
It helps identify necessary cables
What is the primary goal of designing a network’s logical topology?
A) To maximize costs
B) To eliminate single points of failure
C) To ensure adequate bandwidth for all network parts
D) To minimize the number of nodes
To ensure adequate bandwidth for all network parts
Why is it beneficial to mirror an organization’s logical business units in network design?
A) It improves intra-departmental communication and productivity.
B) It complicates network maintenance.
C) It reduces the number of LANs needed.
D) It makes data transfer slower.
It improves intra-departmental communication and productivity.
Who should be consulted to determine electrical requirements for a data center?
A) HVAC engineer
B) Electrical engineer
C) Network engineer
D) IT manager
Electrical engineer
What is the main concern when addressing cooling requirements for telecommunication closets?
A) Heat dissipation and humidity
B) Cable management
C) Data transfer speed
D) Power consumption
Heat dissipation and humidity
What does a risk consist of?
A) Threat only
B) Vulnerability only
C) Threat and vulnerability combined
D) Vulnerability, threat, and likelihood
Vulnerability, threat, and likelihood
What is mitigation in the context of network security?
A) Accepting risks without action
B) Actions taken to lessen or eliminate the impact of a risk
C) Ignoring security measures
D) Documenting risks only
Actions taken to lessen or eliminate the impact of a risk
Which of the following is NOT part of the CIA triad?
A) Confidentiality
B) Integrity
C) Accountability
D) Availability
Accountability
What is fault tolerance in network design?
A) A method for increasing speed
B) A system that can be easily repaired
C) The ability to maintain operations despite failures
D) A method for reducing costs
The ability to maintain operations despite failures
What does Quality of Service (QoS) refer to?
A) Managing data traffic to preserve system usefulness
B) A measure of network speed
C) A type of network security
D) A hardware specification
Managing data traffic to preserve system usefulness
Which DiffServ class is designed for VoIP traffic?
A) Low-priority data class
B) Telephony class
C) Multimedia streaming service class
D) Standard class
Telephony class
Why is it important to build security into a network from the outset?
A) It complicates the design process.
B) It reduces long-term costs and increases security.
C) It allows for more users on the network.
D) It speeds up data transmission.
It reduces long-term costs and increases security.
What should organizations prioritize when using the DiffServ classes?
A) Equal treatment for all data types
B) Prioritizing time-sensitive traffic over less critical traffic
C) Eliminating low-priority data class
D) Increasing the number of classes used
Prioritizing time-sensitive traffic over less critical traffic
What is the primary language used by computers for data transmission?
A) Hexadecimal
B) ASCII
C) Binary
D) Decimal
Binary
What does bandwidth refer to in the context of networking?
A) The physical size of cables
B) The amount of data that can pass through a system in a given time
C) The number of devices connected to a network
D) The distance data can travel
The amount of data that can pass through a system in a given time
Which of the following describes baseband transmission?
A) Multiple signals sent simultaneously
B) One signal using the entire frequency range
C) Signals modulated into sub-frequencies
D) Used exclusively for fiber optic cables
One signal using the entire frequency range
What is a key characteristic of half-duplex communication?
A) Data can flow in both directions simultaneously
B) Only one device can transmit at a time
C) It is only used for video transmission
D) It is a type of simplex communication
Only one device can transmit at a time
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for routing and switching?
A) Application Layer
B) Network Layer
C) Transport Layer
D) Presentation Layer
Network Layer
How does the OSI model help with troubleshooting?
A) It defines hardware specifications
B) It provides a roadmap for the data transfer process
C) It shows the physical layout of devices
D) It eliminates all potential errors
It provides a roadmap for the data transfer process
What is the function of Quality of Service (QoS) in a network?
A) To increase the physical bandwidth
B) To allow multiple devices to connect
C) To prioritize certain types of data traffic
D) To convert analog signals to digital
To prioritize certain types of data traffic
Which type of transmission allows data to flow in one direction only?
A) Full Duplex
B) Simplex
C) Half-Duplex
D) Bidirectional
Simplex
What type of signal is used for Ethernet baseband transmission?
A) Light pulses
B) Pulses of DC current
C) Radio frequency signals
D) Analog waveforms
Pulses of DC current
How does broadband differ from baseband?
A) Broadband is simpler to implement
B) Broadband allows multiple signals over sub-frequency ranges
C) Baseband is limited to video signals
D) Baseband requires modems
Broadband allows multiple signals over sub-frequency ranges
What is a bandwidth bottleneck?
A) A type of high-speed connection
B) The smallest capacity segment in a network path
C) A device that increases network speed
D) A network security measure
The smallest capacity segment in a network path
Which OSI layer is responsible for ensuring that data is error-free upon arrival?
A) Application Layer
B) Transport Layer
C) Session Layer
D) Physical Layer
Transport Layer
What is the primary function of a gateway in a network?
A) To connect devices within a LAN
B) To translate data from one protocol to another
C) To store MAC addresses
D) To manage traffic within a LAN
To translate data from one protocol to another
Which device forwards data between devices not physically connected?
A) Switch
B) Hub
C) Router
D) Bridge
Router
What distinguishes a managed switch from an unmanaged switch?
A) Managed switches have fewer ports
B) Managed switches can be configured for network settings
C) Unmanaged switches can support VLANs
D) Managed switches cannot connect to multiple devices
Managed switches can be configured for network settings
Which of the following statements about hubs is true?
A) They can send and receive data simultaneously
B) They broadcast incoming frames to all ports
C) They maintain a MAC address table
D) They are faster than switches
They broadcast incoming frames to all ports
What is a Network Interface Card (NIC)?
A) A device that connects switches to the internet
B) An interface that connects a device to a network
C) A type of switch
D) A storage device for network data
An interface that connects a device to a network
What is the maximum bit length of a MAC address?
A) 32 bits
B) 64 bits
C) 48 bits
D) 56 bits
48 bits
How does a switch maintain efficiency in a network?
A) By broadcasting to all devices
B) By keeping a lookup table of MAC addresses
C) By limiting connections to two devices
D) By using half-duplex communication
By keeping a lookup table of MAC addresses
What is the main difference between a switch and a hub?
A) A switch can operate in full-duplex mode, while a hub can only use half-duplex.
B) A hub can connect to wireless devices; a switch cannot
C) Switches are more expensive than hubs
D) Hubs can connect more devices than switches
A switch can operate in full-duplex mode, while a hub can only use half-duplex.
Which of the following best describes a router?
A) A device that directs traffic between different networks
B) A device that connects devices on the same LAN
C) A storage device for network data
D) A wireless connection device
A device that directs traffic between different networks
What does a wireless access point (WAP) do?
A) Connects multiple devices with wired connections
B) Allows devices to access a wireless network
C) Serves as a router for data packets
D) Translates data between protocols
Allows devices to access a wireless network
Which type of switch can perform hardware-based routing?
A) Unmanaged switch
B) Layer 3 switch
C) Multilayer switch
D) Hubs
Layer 3 switch
What is the collision domain in a network?
A) A network segment with only one connection
B) A network segment where data collisions can occur
C) The area covered by a wireless access point
D) A private connection between two devices
A network segment where data collisions can occur
What defines a server?
A) A specific type of hardware
B) A role that hardware can play
C) A desktop computer
D) A type of software
A role that hardware can play
Which of the following is NOT typically a function of a server?
A) Providing services to other computers
B) Running high-end graphics applications
C) Storing data
D) Managing network resources
Running high-end graphics applications
What is the primary component that distinguishes servers from typical PCs?
A) Operating system
B) Power and memory capacity
C) Color and design
D) User interface peripherals
Power and memory capacity
Which of the following I/O ports is commonly found on servers?
A) Ethernet jack (RJ-45)
B) HDMI
C) VGA
D) DisplayPort
Ethernet jack (RJ-45)
What type of server handles authentication, authorization, and accounting?
A) File Server
B) Web Server
C) AAA Server
D) Email Server
AAA Server
What is the main purpose of a DHCP server?
A) To store files
B) To manage emails
C) To assign IP addresses to devices
D) To synchronize time
To assign IP addresses to devices
Which protocol is primarily used for email services?
A) HTTP
B) FTP
C) SMTP
D) SNMP
SMTP - Simple Mail Transfer Protocol. It is a protocol used for sending and receiving email over the Internet.
What type of server provides name resolution for client computers?
A) DNS Server
B) NTP Server
C) File Server
D) Database Server
DNS Server Domain Name System. It is the system that translates human-friendly domain names (like www.example.com) into IP addresses that computers use to identify each other on the network.
How are servers typically classified by hardware specifications?
A) By color and design
B) By number of users
C) By number of processors
D) By operating system
By number of processors
What is a characteristic of blade servers?
A) They are enclosed and heavy
B) They are modular and scalable
C) They require individual power supplies
D) They are typically used for personal use
They are modular and scalable
Which server type is essential for time synchronization in networks?
A) DNS Server
B) NTP Server
C) Email Server
D) File Server
NTP Server Network Time Protocol. It is used to synchronize the clocks of computers over a network.
What distinguishes a file server from a database server?
A) File servers manage data files for sharing, while database servers host database software.
B) Database servers are more powerful than file servers.
C) File servers are only for email storage.
D) Database servers are not used on networks.
File servers manage data files for sharing, while database servers host database software.
What does RAID stand for?
A) Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks
B) Redundant Array of Independent Disks
C) Random Access Independent Drives
D) Readable Array of Independent Disks
Redundant Array of Independent Disks
Which of the following is a feature of RAID systems?
A) Increased graphics processing
B) Fault tolerance
C) Single drive operation
D) Decreased data access speed
Fault tolerance
What is a “hot spare” in a RAID configuration?
A) A backup power supply
B) A drive that is inactive until needed
C) A standby drive that automatically replaces a failed drive
D) A drive used for temporary storage
A standby drive that automatically replaces a failed drive
Which RAID level is primarily known for data mirroring?
A) RAID 0
B) RAID 1
C) RAID 5
D) RAID 10
RAID 1
RAID 0:Striping without redundancy. Data is split across multiple drives, improving speed but offering no fault tolerance. If one drive fails, all data is lost.
RAID 1: Mirroring. Data is duplicated across two drives. If one drive fails, the data is still available on the other. Offers high fault tolerance but reduces total storage capacity by half.
RAID 5: Striping with parity. Data is distributed across three or more drives with parity information. It provides fault tolerance (can survive one drive failure) while maintaining better storage efficiency than RAID 1.
RAID 6: Similar to RAID 5 but with double parity. It can tolerate the failure of two drives, offering greater fault tolerance at the cost of additional storage overhead for parity.
RAID 10 (or 1+0): A combination of RAID 1 and RAID 0. Data is mirrored across pairs of drives and then striped. It provides both high performance and fault tolerance but requires a minimum of four drives.
RAID 2, 3, and 4: Less commonly used, these levels involve varying methods of striping and parity. RAID 2 uses bit-level striping, RAID 3 uses byte-level striping with dedicated parity, and RAID 4 uses block-level striping with dedicated parity.
RAID 50 and RAID 60: These are nested RAID configurations that combine RAID 5 and RAID 0, and RAID 6 and RAID 0, respectively. They offer enhanced performance and fault tolerance.
What is the main purpose of a Network Attached Storage (NAS) system?
A) To serve as a gaming server
B) To connect various networks
C) To provide optimized file management over a network
D) To replace traditional hard drives
To provide optimized file management over a network
Which network type can NAS systems be deployed on?
A) Only local area networks (LAN)
B) Only wide area networks (WAN)
C) Various network types, including VPNs
D) Only wireless networks
Various network types, including VPNs
What does a Storage Area Network (SAN) primarily focus on?
A) Connecting storage devices
B) Providing internet access
C) Data visualization
D) Connecting user workstations
Connecting storage devices
What is the primary advantage of a SAN?
A) It connects user devices
B) High-speed data transfer and low latency
C) Increased graphic performance
D) Simplicity in configuration
High-speed data transfer and low latency
Which category of twisted pair cable supports data transmission speeds of up to 10 Gbps?
A) Cat 5e
B) Cat 6A
C) Cat 6
D) Cat 7
Cat 6A
What is the most common connector type used for Cat cables?
A) USB
B) RJ-45
C) HDMI
D) DVI
RJ-45
Which of the following is a common transmission problem for copper cables?
A) Increased bandwidth
B) Electromagnetic interference (EMI)
C) Improved connectivity
D) Data compression
Electromagnetic interference (EMI)
What does the term “crosstalk” refer to?
A) Enhanced data speeds
B) Interference between adjacent circuits
C) A type of network error
D) Increased power consumption
Interference between adjacent circuits
What is the main advantage of fiber optic cables in networking?
A) Lower cost than copper
B) High bandwidth and long-distance transmission
C) Simplicity of installation
D) Flexibility in design
High bandwidth and long-distance transmission
What is the primary material used in fiber optic cables to transmit information?
A) Copper
B) Aluminum
C) Glass or plastic
D) Fiberboard
Glass or plastic
Which of the following describes single-mode fiber?
A) Uses LED light for transmission
B) Achieves high bandwidth over long distances
C) Requires more glass than multimode fiber
D) Has a larger core diameter than multimode fiber
Achieves high bandwidth over long distances
What is a key disadvantage of using fiber optic cables?
A) Limited distance capabilities
B) Higher installation cost
C) Difficult to terminate
D) Susceptibility to electromagnetic interference
Higher installation cost
Which fiber connector utilizes a “stab and twist” locking mechanism?
A) LC
B) ST
C) SC
D) MPO
ST The “ST” in ST fiber optic connector stands for “Straight Tip.” It is a type of connector commonly used in fiber optic networks, known for its bayonet-style coupling mechanism that ensures a secure connection.
What type of network does Wi-Fi typically create?
A) Point-to-point
B) Local area network (LAN)
C) Ad hoc
D) Wide area network (WAN)
Local area network (LAN)
What Standards organization created the Transmission Control Protocol / Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)?
A) The Institute for Electrical and Electronic Engineers (IEEE)
B) The International Organization for Standards (ISO)
C) The Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
D) The World Wide Web Consortium (W3C)
The Internet Engineering Yask Force (IETF) - creates standards that apply to the Internet and improving Internet usability. IETF cooperates closely with the W3C and the ISO. The IETF produced the Transmission Control Protocol / Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) and Internet Protocol (IP) suites. They also maintain the Request for Comment (RFC) repository, which defines many TCP/IP protocols.
What does PSTN stand for?
A) Public Switched Telephone Network
B) Private Switched Telephone Network
C) Public Signal Transmission Network
D) Private Signal Transmission Network
Public Switched Telephone Network
Which technology is primarily used for traditional dial-up internet access?
A) Fiber optics
B) Satellite
C) Modems
D) Cable modems
Modems
What is the maximum download speed offered by the latest dial-up modems?
A) 56 Kbps
B) 256 Kbps
C) 1 Mbps
D) 10 Mbps
1 Mbps
Which of the following uses digital telephone lines to transmit data?
A) Dial-Up Networking
B) Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
C) DSL
D) All of the above
All of the above
What type of internet access does cable internet use?
A) Telephone infrastructure
B) Cable television network infrastructure
C) Satellite connections
D) T-carrier systems
Cable television network infrastructure
What does SONET stand for?
A) Synchronous Optical Network
B) Standard Optical Network
C) Synchronous Online Network
D) Simple Optical Network
Synchronous Optical Network (SONET) is a standardized digital communication protocol used to transmit data over fiber optic networks. It enables high-speed data transfer and is widely used in telecommunications for building high-bandwidth networks.
What is a major drawback of satellite internet?
A) Slow download speeds
B) Limited availability
C) High costs and reliability issues due to weather
D) Requires fiber optics
High costs and reliability issues due to weather
What is the primary purpose of the Data Link Layer in the OSI model?
A) Transporting data over long distances
B) Managing physical network connections
C) Transporting data between nodes in a LAN
D) Encrypting network data
Transporting data between nodes in a LAN
Which Ethernet standard is capable of transmitting data at 10 Gbps?
A) 100Base-T
B) 1000Base-X
C) 10Base-T
D) 10 Gigabit Ethernet
10 Gigabit Ethernet
What is the maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) size for Ethernet frames?
A) 1,500 bytes
B) 1,542 bytes
C) 9000 bytes
D) 64 bytes
1,500 bytes
This size includes the payload data and the frame itself, excluding the headers. The Ethernet frame can have a minimum size of 64 bytes and a maximum size of 1,542 bytes; however, the standard MTU for the data payload is set at 1,500 bytes.
Additionally, Ethernet supports “Jumbo frames,” which can carry more data, usually up to 9,000 bytes, depending on the network configuration and equipment used. Jumbo frames are used to improve network efficiency in environments where large data transfers are common.
Which of the following Ethernet speeds is considered “Fast Ethernet”?
A) 10 Mbps
B) 100 Mbps
C) 1 Gbps
D) 10 Gbps
B) 100 Mbps
What does the shorthand “100Base-T” refer to?
A) 100 Mbps Ethernet over twisted pair cabling
B) 100 Kbps Ethernet over fiber optics
C) 100 Mbps over coaxial cable
D) 100 Gbps Ethernet standard
100 Mbps Ethernet over twisted pair cabling
What is a VLAN?
A) A physical network segment.
B) A logical group of devices on separate LAN segments.
C) A type of Ethernet switch.
D) A network protocol for file transfer.
A logical group of devices on separate LAN segments.
Why would a network administrator create a VLAN?
A) To increase the physical distance between devices.
B) To enable devices to communicate regardless of their physical location.
C) To reduce the number of switches in the network.
D) To eliminate the need for routers.
To enable devices to communicate regardless of their physical location.
What is a primary benefit of VLANs in terms of traffic?
A) All devices can communicate freely with one another.
B) It allows devices to receive broadcast messages from any network.
C) It reduces broadcast traffic that reaches certain groups of devices.
D) It simplifies network configurations.
It reduces broadcast traffic that reaches certain groups of devices.
What does VLAN tagging help switches identify?
A) The total number of devices in a VLAN.
B) Whether an Ethernet frame belongs to a specific VLAN.
C) The priority level of network traffic.
D) The type of switch being used.
Whether an Ethernet frame belongs to a specific VLAN.
Which field in the VLAN tag indicates the VLAN to which a frame belongs?
A) Tag Protocol ID
B) User Priority
C) Canonical Format Indicator
D) VLAN ID
VLAN ID
When requesting a VLAN, what should be clearly stated?
A) The total cost of the VLAN setup.
B) The purpose behind the request.
C) The brand of switches being used.
D) The network speed requirements.
The purpose behind the request.
What is the default VLAN for switch ports if none are configured?
A) VLAN 2
B) VLAN 10
C) VLAN 5
D) VLAN 1
VLAN 1
What step should be taken first when setting up a VLAN?
A) Assign ports to the VLANs.
B) Plan the VLAN requirements.
C) Access the switch operating system.
D) Save the configuration.
Plan the VLAN requirements.
What does the User Priority field in a VLAN tag indicate?
A) The number of VLANs.
B) The frame’s priority level.
C) The MAC address format.
D) The VLAN number.
The frame’s priority level.
If a device needs to be moved from one VLAN to another, what must be done?
A) It will automatically switch VLANs without any changes.
B) The administrator must update the VLAN configuration and port assignments.
C) The device will lose connectivity until the switch is restarted.
D) The device cannot be moved to another VLAN.
The administrator must update the VLAN configuration and port assignments.
How do VLANs enhance network security?
A) By allowing all devices unrestricted access to the network.
B) By restricting communication between devices on different VLANs.
C) By increasing the physical distance between devices.
D) By eliminating the need for routers.
By restricting communication between devices on different VLANs.
What should an administrator do when updating VLAN configurations?
A) Ignore any old configurations.
B) Ensure all details of the VLAN request are documented.
C) Delete all VLANs and recreate them from scratch.
D) Only update the device labels on the switch.
Ensure all details of the VLAN request are documented.
What does QoS stand for in networking?
A) Quality of Service
B) Quality of Signal
C) Quantity of Service
D) Quality of Speed
Quality of Service
What is the primary purpose of QoS?
A) To increase bandwidth for all applications
B) To manage data traffic and enhance user experience
C) To eliminate network congestion
D) To prioritize all network traffic equally
To manage data traffic and enhance user experience
Which QoS strategy categorizes network traffic into distinct classes?
A) VoIP
B) DiffServ
C) ARP
D) TCP/IP
DiffServ Differentiated Services, is a network architecture concept used to manage and prioritize network traffic. It allows network administrators to classify and prioritize data packets based on specific criteria, ensuring that critical applications receive the bandwidth and performance they require.
What is the lowest-priority class in DiffServ called?
A) High priority
B) Low loss
C) Best effort
D) Critical service
Best effort
How does a switch utilize ARP?
A) To route packets to different subnets
B) To resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
C) To prioritize voice traffic
D) To enhance security protocols
To resolve IP addresses to MAC addresses
Which type of delivery option is characterized by one-to-one connections?
A) Multicast
B) Broadcast
C) Unicast
D) Layer 3 Delivery
Unicast
What is a defining feature of multicast streaming?
A) Each client receives a separate stream
B) A single stream is sent to multiple clients
C) Data is sent only to a single IP address
D) It cannot be used on LANs
A single stream is sent to multiple clients
What is the role of IGMP in multicast networks?
A) It monitors IP address allocation
B) It manages multicast subscriptions
C) It provides QoS guarantees
D) It translates MAC addresses
It manages multicast subscriptions
Which protocol is essential for establishing reliable communications in a network?
A) UDP
B) FTP
C) TCP
D) DHCP
TCP Transmission Control Protocol, is one of the main protocols of the Internet Protocol Suite. It operates at the transport layer of the OSI model and is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between networked devices.
What happens during the ARP process if no device responds to an ARP request?
A) The switch will cache the request
B) The data will be sent back to the sender
C) The data will be forwarded to the router
D) The network will crash
The data will be forwarded to the router
What type of transport protocol is typically used for multicast streaming?
A) TCP
B) HTTP
C) UDP
D) ICMP
UDP User Datagram Protocol, is a communication protocol used across the Internet and in private networks. It operates at the transport layer of the OSI model and is known for its simplicity and speed.
What is Power over Ethernet (PoE)?
A) A method for wireless data transmission
B) A series of IEEE standards for delivering power and data over Ethernet cables
C) A protocol for video compression
D) A type of Ethernet switch
A series of IEEE standards for delivering power and data over Ethernet cables
Which of the following is NOT a method defined by the PoE standard for power transport?
A) Power over two pairs carrying data
B) Power over unused pairs
C) Power over four pairs carrying data
D) Power over wireless connections
Power over wireless connections
Why is the maximum power that can be delivered to a Powered Device (PD) slightly lower than the standard indicates?
A) Due to increased voltage
B) Due to voltage drop along the cable
C) Due to resistance in switches
D) Due to interference from other signals
Due to voltage drop along the cable
Which of the following is a key advantage of using PoE?
A) Requires specialized cabling
B) Simplifies cabling and reduces installation costs
C) Guarantees 100% power delivery
D) Provides high-speed data only
Simplifies cabling and reduces installation costs
What is a significant disadvantage of using PoE in a network?
A) Improved data transfer rates
B) Insufficient power if the budget is not calculated correctly
C) Enhanced safety protocols
D) Reduced cabling complexity
Insufficient power if the budget is not calculated correctly
What is AVB (Audio Video Bridging) primarily designed for?
A) To provide wireless audio solutions
B) To deliver real-time audio and video over Ethernet
C) To compress video for storage
D) To manage network security
To deliver real-time audio and video over Ethernet
Which protocol is known for being a proprietary digital audio network layer protocol?
A) AVB
B) PoE
C) Dante
D) EtherSound
Dante
What Ethernet speed is required for AVB to function effectively?
A) 10 Mbps
B) 100 Mbps or better
C) 1 Gbps only
D) 10 Gbps
100 Mbps or better
How does Dante prioritize audio data during transmission?
A) By creating separate networks for audio
B) Using proprietary switches only
C) Employing VoIP DiffServ categories for prioritization
D) Requiring dedicated bandwidth
Employing VoIP DiffServ categories for prioritization
Which of the following statements about Q-Sys is true?
A) It requires a separate network for operation
B) It primarily focuses on video transport
C) It is compatible with both AVB and Dante
D) It operates only at 10 Gbps
It is compatible with both AVB and Dante
What type of topology is typically used in Q-Sys networks?
A) Ring topology
B) Star or extended star topology
C) Mesh topology
D) Hybrid topology
Star or extended star topology
Which of the following protocols is non-routable?
A) AVB
B) Dante
C) EtherSound
D) Q-Sys
EtherSound is a proprietary digital audio protocol developed by Digigram, primarily used for transporting real-time audio and control data over local area networks (LANs).
What is the primary function of the Network Layer in the OSI model?
A) Data encryption
B) Addressing and routing of data packets
C) Physical transmission of data
D) Application-level communication
Addressing and routing of data packets
Which version of IP addresses is primarily focused on for contemporary AV purposes?
A) IPv1
B) IPv4
C) IPv5
D) IPv6
IPv4 “Internet Protocol version 4.” It is one of the core protocols of the Internet Protocol Suite and is primarily used for identifying devices on a network through an addressing system. IPv4 uses a 32-bit address scheme, allowing for approximately 4.3 billion unique addresses.
What does the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) do?
A) Encrypts data packets
B) Resolves logical IP addresses to physical MAC addresses
C) Monitors network traffic
D) Manages IP address assignments
Resolves logical IP addresses to physical MAC addresses
What happens to a packet if it exceeds the Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU)?
A) It is dropped
B) It is encrypted
C) It gets fragmented
D) It is forwarded without modification
It gets fragmented
What is the main role of routing protocols in a network?
A) To establish IP addresses
B) To decide the best paths for data packets
C) To encrypt data packets
D) To monitor bandwidth usage
To decide the best paths for data packets
Which of the following protocols sends error messages and diagnostics for network issues?
A) ARP
B) TCP
C) ICMP
D) UDP
ICMP “Internet Control Message Protocol.” It is a network layer protocol used for diagnostic and error-reporting purposes in Internet Protocol (IP) networks. ICMP is defined in RFC 792 and is primarily used to send messages about network conditions, such as when a packet fails to reach its destination. For example, if a packet’s time-to-live (TTL) expires, ICMP can send a “time-to-live exceeded” message back to the sender, indicating that the packet did not reach its intended destination. ICMP is crucial for network troubleshooting and managing connectivity issues.
What is a datagram in the context of IP?
A) A type of encryption method
B) An intact packet before fragmentation
C) A physical layer device
D) A routing protocol
An intact packet before fragmentation
Which type of routing protocol analyzes the entire WAN to determine the best path?
A) Distance-vector Routing
B) Link-State Routing
C) Static Routing
D) Dynamic Routing
Link-State Routing
What is the purpose of caching in the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)?
A) To store IP addresses permanently
B) To speed up the resolution of MAC addresses
C) To encrypt MAC addresses
D) To monitor bandwidth usage
To speed up the resolution of MAC addresses
What does the Time-to-Live (TTL) field in an IP packet do?
A) Encrypts the packet
B) Defines the packet size
C) Limits the packet’s lifespan in the network
D) Specifies the destination address
Limits the packet’s lifespan in the network
What is the role of routers in a network?
A) To physically transmit data
B) To connect to the internet
C) To decide which path packets should take
D) To monitor network traffic
To decide which path packets should take
Which two layers cooperate to transfer data across networks?
A) Application Layer and Presentation Layer
B) Transport Layer and Session Layer
C) Layer 2 (Data Link) and Layer 3 (Network)
D) Physical Layer and Application Layer
Layer 2 (Data Link) and Layer 3 (Network)
What is the primary purpose of an IP address?
A) To provide a physical address for devices
B) To identify a host and its location on a network
C) To control data packet routing
D) To encrypt network communications
To identify a host and its location on a network
Which version of IP addresses uses a 32-bit addressing scheme?
A) IPv6
B) IPv5
C) IPv4
D) IPv3
IPv4
What does the notation 192.168.1.1 represent?
A) An IPv6 address
B) A MAC address
C) An IPv4 address in dot-decimal notation
D) A network address
An IPv4 address in dot-decimal notation
In binary, how many bits are there in an IPv4 address?
A) 16 bits
B) 64 bits
C) 32 bits
D) 128 bits
32 bits
What is the main benefit of hexadecimal notation for IP addresses?
A) It is easier for machines to read
B) It allows for more compact representation of large numbers
C) It simplifies network routing
D) It enhances security
It allows for more compact representation of large numbers
What is a netmask used for?
A) To encrypt IP addresses
B) To identify which parts of an IP address represent the network and host
C) To translate IPv4 to IPv6
D) To convert binary numbers to decimal
To identify which parts of an IP address represent the network and host
How does Network Address Translation (NAT) help with IP address usage?
A) It increases the number of public IP addresses available
B) It allows multiple devices to share a single public IP address
C) It eliminates the need for IP addresses entirely
D) It restricts network access
It allows multiple devices to share a single public IP address
Which of the following is NOT a component of an IP address?
A) Host identifier
B) Network identifier
C) Broadcast identifier
D) Netmask
Broadcast identifier
What does CIDR stand for, and what is its purpose?
A) Classless Inter-Domain Routing; it allows for variable-length subnet masks
B) Classful Inter-Domain Routing; it restricts address allocation
C) Control Inter-Domain Routing; it regulates IP address assignments
D) Classful Internal Data Representation; it standardizes address formats
Classless Inter-Domain Routing; it allows for variable-length subnet masks
Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address?
A) 192.168.1.1
B) 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334
C) 255.255.255.255
D) 10.0.0.1
B) 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334
What is the maximum number of devices that can be addressed using a single IPv4 address?
A) 4.3 billion
B) 256
C) 65,536
D) 16.7 million
4.3 billion
In what notation is the netmask typically expressed?
A) Binary
B) Hexadecimal
C) Dot-decimal
D) Octal
Dot-decimal
What is the primary responsibility of the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)?
A) Allocating domain names
B) Managing social media accounts
C) Oversight of IP address distribution and reservation
D) Monitoring internet traffic
Oversight of IP address distribution and reservation
Which of the following is NOT a type of IP address managed by IANA?
A) Global addresses
B) Reserved addresses
C) Temporary addresses
D) Private addresses
emporary addresses
What is a key benefit of using private IP addresses?
A) They are always routable on the internet.
B) They allow multiple organizations to use the same address range without conflict.
C) They enhance network speed by bypassing NAT.
D) They must be unique across the entire internet.
They allow multiple organizations to use the same address range without conflict.
What does NAT stand for?
A) Network Address Translation
B) Network Address Termination
C) Network Address Transfer
D) Network Address Technology
Network Address Translation
Which of the following best describes the purpose of Port Address Translation (PAT)?
A) It allows devices to connect to multiple networks simultaneously.
B) It translates private IP addresses to public IP addresses for internet access.
C) It restricts external access to network devices.
D) It manages the broadcasting of messages within a subnet.
It translates private IP addresses to public IP addresses for internet access.
What is the function of a broadcast address in a network?
A) It identifies a specific device on the network.
B) It sends data to all devices within the same broadcast domain.
C) It serves as a unique identifier for local testing.
D) It connects devices to the internet.
It sends data to all devices within the same broadcast domain.
What is the typical loopback address used for network testing?
A) 192.168.1.1
B) 10.0.0.1
C) 127.0.0.1
D) 255.255.255.255
127.0.0.1
Why might an organization choose to subnet its network?
A) To eliminate the need for NAT
B) To increase broadcast traffic
C) To enhance network security and efficiency
D) To create more global IP addresses
To enhance network security and efficiency
What does supernetting involve?
A) Splitting a network into smaller subnets
B) Combining multiple networks into a larger one
C) Creating unique private addresses for each device
D) Allocating temporary IP addresses
Combining multiple networks into a larger one
In the context of subnetting, what does extending the subnet mask accomplish?
A) Increases the number of available public IP addresses
B) Reduces the size of the network
C) Creates additional subnets by borrowing host bits
D) Allows private addresses to access the internet
Creates additional subnets by borrowing host bits
What is a primary reason ISPs subnet classful IPv4 addresses?
A) To reduce internet speed
B) To conserve IP addresses
C) To simplify user access
D) To limit network access
To conserve IP addresses
Which of the following statements is true about NAT?
A) NAT can only be implemented on private networks.
B) NAT exposes all devices within a private network to the internet.
C) NAT helps manage public and private IP address interactions.
D) NAT eliminates the need for a firewall.
NAT helps manage public and private IP address interactions.
What is a static IP address?
A) An IP address assigned automatically by a server
B) A manually assigned permanent IP address
C) An IP address that changes periodically
D) An IP address reserved for future use
A manually assigned permanent IP address
Which of the following is a benefit of dynamic IP addressing?
A) More labor-intensive setup
B) Reduced possibility of human error
C) Permanent IP address assignments
D) Requires manual configuration
Reduced possibility of human error
What information is typically required to assign a static IP address?
A) Only the device’s name
B) Device’s MAC address and desired IP address
C) Only the subnet mask
D) Default gateway address only
Device’s MAC address and desired IP address
What does DHCP stand for?
A) Dynamic Host Control Protocol
B) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
C) Direct Host Configuration Protocol
D) Direct Host Control Protocol
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network management protocol used to automatically assign IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices on a network. This allows devices to communicate on an IP network without the need for manual configuration.
What is a benefit of using a DNS caching system?
A) It ensures all IP addresses are static
B) It prevents network congestion by reducing DNS requests
C) It allows devices to have unlimited IP addresses
D) It automatically assigns IP addresses to devices
It prevents network congestion by reducing DNS requests
In which scenario would you need to collaborate with the IT department for static IP addressing?
A) When using dynamic addressing for all devices
B) When troubleshooting connectivity issues
C) When assigning permanent addresses for critical devices
D) When renumbering the entire network
When assigning permanent addresses for critical devices
Which method of DHCP address allocation is best for devices needing a consistent IP address?
A) Automatic allocation
B) Dynamic allocation
C) Manual allocation (Reserve DHCP)
D) Lease time allocation
Manual allocation (Reserve DHCP)
What is the primary function of the Transport Layer in networking?
A) Encrypt data for security
B) Segment data for transmission
C) Monitor network performance
D) Manage physical connections
Segment data for transmission
What does packet segmentation in networking achieve?
A) Increases packet size
B) Reduces data loss and improves performance
C) Encrypts the data
D) Creates network paths
Reduces data loss and improves performance
What is the primary function of the Transport Layer in networking?
A) Encrypt data for security
B) Segment data for transmission
C) Monitor network performance
D) Manage physical connections
Segment data for transmission
What does packet segmentation in networking achieve?
A) Increases packet size
B) Reduces data loss and improves performance
C) Encrypts the data
D) Creates network paths
Reduces data loss and improves performance
Which Transport Layer protocol is connection-oriented and provides guaranteed delivery?
A) UDP
B) TCP
C) ICMP
D) HTTP
TCP (Transmission Control Protocol). It is a core protocol of the Internet Protocol Suite that provides reliable, ordered, and error-checked delivery of data between applications running on hosts communicating over an IP network.
What is a characteristic of connectionless transport protocols?
A) They require acknowledgment of data receipt
B) They operate on a two-way communication basis
C) They do not guarantee delivery
D) They are always slower than connection-oriented protocols
They do not guarantee delivery
In TCP, what is the purpose of the “handshake” process?
A) To encrypt data
B) To confirm connection and negotiate terms
C) To transmit data
D) To segment packets
To confirm connection and negotiate terms
What is the role of UDP in network communication?
A) To provide guaranteed delivery of data
B) To send data without confirming the recipient’s connection
C) To monitor the health of the network
D) To segment large packets into smaller ones
To send data without confirming the recipient’s connection
What is a socket in a TCP/IP network?
A) A physical port on a switch
B) The combination of IP address and port number
C) A layer in the OSI model
D) A type of data packet
The combination of IP address and port number
Which of the following best describes the role of the Session Layer (Layer 5) in the OSI model?
A) Encrypts data for secure transmission
B) Manages communication sessions between applications
C) Converts data formats for application compatibility
D) Segments data for transport
Manages communication sessions between applications
What is the function of the Presentation Layer (Layer 6) in the OSI model?
A) Segments data for transport
B) Ensures data is formatted for the Application Layer
C) Establishes connections between hosts
D) Manages data flow control
Ensures data is formatted for the Application Layer
Which standard is designed to ensure different audio-over-IP protocols can work together?
A) SMPTE 2110
B) AES67
C) NDI
D) RTP
AES67 is a standard developed by the Audio Engineering Society (AES) that ensures interoperability between various audio-over-IP (AoIP) systems. It defines guidelines for high-performance audio streaming, focusing on key areas such as synchronization, encoding formats, quality of service (QoS), and connection management. AES67 allows different vendors’ systems to work together seamlessly, making it easier to transmit high-quality audio over IP networks.
What is the purpose of Adaptive Bit Rate Streaming (ABR)?
A) To create multiple streams of different bit rates
B) To analyze bandwidth and adjust the stream bit rate accordingly
C) To ensure all packets are received
D) To provide a fixed bit rate for all transmissions
To analyze bandwidth and adjust the stream bit rate accordingly
What does RTP stand for, and what is its primary use?
A) Reliable Transport Protocol; used for file transfers
B) Real-Time Transport Protocol; used for streaming audio and video
C) Routing Transport Protocol; used for network routing
D) Rapid Transport Protocol; used for quick data delivery
Real-Time Transport Protocol; used for streaming audio and video
What is the primary focus of confidentiality in network security?
A) Ensuring the accuracy of information
B) Restricting access to sensitive information
C) Guaranteeing system uptime
D) Detecting intrusions
Restricting access to sensitive information
Which of the following best describes integrity in the context of IT security?
A) Ensuring data is accessible at all times
B) Maintaining the accuracy and reliability of information
C) Protecting information from unauthorized access
D) Preventing all system outages
Maintaining the accuracy and reliability of information
What does availability refer to in network security?
A) The ability to modify data
B) The degree of access to information
C) The acceptable level of information unavailability
D) The protection against data breaches
The acceptable level of information unavailability
What type of vulnerability does Zero Configuration (Zeroconf) pose in an enterprise setting?
A) Overly complex network configurations
B) Automatic device connections without manual setup
C) Insufficient user training on network access
D) Lack of encryption for data transmission
Automatic device connections without manual setup
Which of the following is a significant vulnerability related to weak authentication practices?
A) Outdated software versions
B) Strong, unique passwords
C) Insecure password management
D) Firewalls not configured properly
Insecure password management
Which network vulnerability involves allowing all users unrestricted access to a network share?
A) Unprotected Network Shares
B) Open Logical Ports
C) Weak Authentication Practices
D) Open Physical Ports
Unprotected Network Shares
What is the main purpose of threat vectors in network security?
A) To define types of software vulnerabilities
B) To identify how attackers gain access to networks
C) To measure the impact of data breaches
D) To classify network protocols
To identify how attackers gain access to networks
In a phishing attack, what does the attacker typically do?
A) Directly attack the network infrastructure
B) Manipulate individuals into revealing sensitive information
C) Exploit physical vulnerabilities in the network
D) Install malware on devices without permission
Manipulate individuals into revealing sensitive information
What type of attack involves overwhelming a server with excessive requests?
A) Malware
B) Social Engineering
C) DoS Attack
D) Spoofing
DoS Attack Denial of Service (DoS) attack is a malicious attempt to disrupt the normal functioning of a targeted server, service, or network by overwhelming it with a flood of traffic. The goal is to render the target unavailable to legitimate users, causing downtime and potential loss of revenue or reputation.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a DDoS attack?
A) Involves multiple computers attacking a single target
B) Overwhelms a system with excessive data packets
C) Requires physical access to the target system
D) Can involve the use of a botnet
Requires physical access to the target system
What is a common characteristic of malware?
A) It is always physically installed on the device
B) It is a form of malicious software that can harm devices
C) It does not require any user interaction to execute
D) It only affects network infrastructure
It is a form of malicious software that can harm devices
What is the relationship between threats and vulnerabilities in network security?
A) Vulnerabilities can exist without threats
B) Threats exploit vulnerabilities
C) Threats and vulnerabilities are the same
D) Vulnerabilities eliminate the possibility of threats
Threats exploit vulnerabilities
What are security controls primarily designed to do?
A) Increase network speed
B) Protect the network from threats
C) Enhance user experience
D) Automate network management
Protect the network from threats
Which of the following is an example of an administrative control?
A) Firewall
B) Antivirus software
C) Security awareness programs
D) Intrusion Prevention System
Security awareness programs
What does the Zero Trust Framework emphasize?
A) Trusting all internal users
B) Authentication before granting access to any resource
C) Limiting internet access to employees
D) Automatic approval of device connections
Authentication before granting access to any resource
What is the primary purpose of a firewall in network security?
A) To monitor employee productivity
B) To prevent unauthorized access and regulate traffic
C) To provide internet access to all devices
D) To store sensitive data
To prevent unauthorized access and regulate traffic
Which firewall approach is considered more secure but harder to configure?
A) Default allow
B) Default deny
C) Open access
D) Restricted access
Default deny
What does Port Address Translation (PAT) allow devices with private IP addresses to do?
A) Access the local network only
B) Communicate with external networks using a registered IP address
C) Block all incoming traffic
D) Encrypt all outgoing data
Communicate with external networks using a registered IP address
Which technique involves using rules to determine whether a data packet can pass through a firewall?
A) Packet Filtering
B) Port Forwarding
C) NAT
D) Layering
Packet Filtering is a firewall technique used to control network traffic based on predetermined security rules. It involves examining the header of data packets that are transmitted across a network to determine whether they should be allowed to pass through or be blocked.
What role do Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) play in network security?
A) Prevent unauthorized access
B) Encrypt data transmissions
C) Alert and report on suspicious activity
D) Manage user authentication
Alert and report on suspicious activity
What does an Application Layer Gateway (ALG) do?
A) Provides physical security for data centers
B) Inspects and forwards packets, converting IP addresses as needed
C) Blocks all traffic from unrecognized devices
D) Monitors employee network usage
Inspects and forwards packets, converting IP addresses as needed
What is a key function of a Session Border Controller (SBC)?
A) To tunnel videoconference calls through limited ports
B) To replace firewalls in network security
C) To analyze traffic patterns
D) To provide antivirus protection
To tunnel videoconference calls through limited ports
Which type of tool is used to collect and process audit logs from various sources?
A) Vulnerability Analysis Tool
B) Protocol Analyzer
C) Audit Tool
D) Anti-malware Software
Audit Tool
Why might IT departments restrict the use of certain security tools on their networks?
A) To improve network speed
B) To prevent potential security vulnerabilities
C) To enhance user convenience
D) To minimize costs
To prevent potential security vulnerabilities
What principle guides user access in an enterprise network?
A) Maximum Privilege
B) Least Privilege
C) Shared Privilege
D) Administrative Privilege
Least Privilege
What is Network Access Control (NAC)?
A) A type of firewall
B) A method for user authentication
C) A set of technologies and policies regulating access and permissions
D) A security protocol for wireless networks
A set of technologies and policies regulating access and permissions
Which authentication protocol encrypts user credentials during transmission?
A) Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
B) Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
C) Kerberos
D) Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)
Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
What is the main vulnerability of the Kerberos authentication system?
A) Weak encryption
B) Single point of failure at the Key Distribution Center (KDC)
C) Lack of password support
D) Complexity of implementation
Single point of failure at the Key Distribution Center (KDC)
What does an Access Control List (ACL) define?
A) Network speed limits
B) User rights within a network after access is granted
C) Firewall configurations
D) Bandwidth allocation
User rights within a network after access is granted
Which of the following is a characteristic of SSL/TLS?
A) It does not require a certificate authority
B) It is only used for local area networks
C) It encrypts communication over the Internet
D) It provides no security features
It encrypts communication over the Internet
What is the purpose of hashing in password security?
A) To encrypt passwords for storage
B) To convert passwords into a unique, irreversible string
C) To make passwords easily readable
D) To compress passwords for faster transmission
To convert passwords into a unique, irreversible string
What type of encryption involves both a public key and a private key?
A) Hashing
B) Digital signatures
C) Private key encryption
D) Public key encryption
Public key encryption
Which protocol is recommended for securing wireless networks?
A) Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
B) Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2)
C) Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
D) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2)
What do Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) primarily use to secure data transmission?
A) Physical cables
B) Encryption and tunneling
C) Firewalls only
D) Public networks without encryption
Encryption and tunneling
What does the acronym EAP stand for in the context of authentication?
A) Extended Access Protocol
B) Easy Access Protocol
C) Extensible Authentication Protocol
D) Encrypted Access Protocol
Extensible Authentication Protocol
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Multi-Protocol Label Switching (MPLS) VPNs?
A) Permanent connection requirement
B) User-controlled WAN topology
C) Ability to transport various data link frames
D) Use of QoS class tags
User-controlled WAN topology
