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T-1A Systems 3 > Avionics > Flashcards

Avionics Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the Integrated Avionics Processor Assembly (IAPS)?

A

the central avionics data processing and distribution system, which monitors and compares data and notifies the aircrew of potential discrepancies

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2
Q

Which avionics systems are connected to the IAPS?

A

Attitude Heading Reference Systems (AHRS), Electronic Flight Control System (EFIS), pitot static systems, Air Data Systems (ADS), Flight Management System (FMS), and Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS)

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3
Q

What sense’s the Earth’s magnetic field and provides raw data to the Attitude Heading Computer (ADC)?

A

Flux Detector Unit (FDU)

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4
Q

How long does the alignment sequence of the AHC take upon power-up?

A

70 seconds

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5
Q

What annunciator illuminates during the AHC initialization sequence?

A

AHRS ALIGNING DO NOT TAXI

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6
Q

When can the FDU’s be considered reliable?

A

Only reliable in level and unaccelerated flight conditions

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7
Q

What provides attitude and heading data to the EFIS?

A

AHRS

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8
Q

What does the EFIS consist of?

A

EADI (Electronic Attitude Director Indicator) and EHSI (Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator)
DPU (Display Processor United)
DSP (Display Select Panel)

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9
Q

What provides power to the electronic flight displays?

A

Display Processor Unit

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10
Q

What provides inputs to the pilots Air Data System (ADS)?

A

The left pitot static system

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11
Q

What provides input to the copilots Air Data System?

A

The right pitot static system

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12
Q

Which pitot static system is connected to the standby altimeter, standby airspeed, and cabin pressure differential indicator?

A

The right side (copilot)

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13
Q

What does the ADS (Air Data System) consist of?

A

Air Data Computer (ADC), Mach Speed Indicator (MSI), altimeter, and Resolution Advisory/ Vertical Speed Indicator (RA/VSI)

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14
Q

What does the ADC get data from?

A

The ADC uses air pressure from the pitot static system and temperature from the Outside Air Temperature (OAT) probe to provide air data to the instruments

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15
Q

What provides data to the pilot’s instruments?

A

ADC #1

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16
Q

Does the ADC allow data to be displayed on both sets of instruments in the even one fails?

A

Yes, through reversion (IAPS)

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17
Q

What does the FMS allow the aircrew to do and how is it controlled?

A

The FMS provides the means for the aircrew to manage flight data including airfield data, SIDs, high & low enroute structure, STARs, IAPs, controlled through the Control Display Unit (CDU)

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18
Q

Which standby instrument requires electrical power from the standby bus to operate?

A

Attitude indicator

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19
Q

Where is the AOA computed by the pilot’s system displayed?

A

AOA indicator, speed deviation display on both EADIs, and AOA indexer

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20
Q

What is the difference between independent and integrated avionics systems?

A

Integrated avionics interface with each other, while independent avionics do not.

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21
Q

What are some independent avionics systems?

A

Standby instruments, AOA/Stall Warning, Flight Data Recorder

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22
Q

What drives each flight director system?

A

Flight Control Computer (FCC)

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23
Q

How can you disengage the autopilot?

A

AP lever, by manually trimming, or by pressing the AP DISENGAG button on the yoke

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24
Q

The avionics equipment Line Replaceable Units (LRUs) are located where?

A

in the avionics rack across from the latrine

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25
Q

The T-1A integrated avionics systems interface through what?

A

IAPS (Integrated Avionics Processor Assembly)

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26
Q

The IAPS provides what?

A

Central avionics data processing and diagnostic functions

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27
Q

The pitot static system provides input primarily to what?

A

ADS (Air Data System)

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28
Q

What systems receive input from the copilot’s pitot static system?

A

Standby altimeter, standby airspeed, cabin pressure differential, ADC #2/ADS # 2

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29
Q

Instrument panel components of the ADS are what?

A

altimeter, MSI, and RA/VSI

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30
Q

In the ADS, the _____ uses pitot static pressure and OAT to compute altitude, airspeed, and vertical speed.

A

ADC

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31
Q

The flux detector unit (FDU) is a component of the____?

A

AHRS

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32
Q

What action do you take if you see the “AHRS ALIGNING DO NOT TAXI” lights illuminated?

A

Do not taxi until both light extinguish

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33
Q

Instrument panel components of the EFIS are what?

A

EADI and EHSI

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34
Q

The AHRS provides input primarily to the ____?

A

EFIS

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35
Q

The EFIS displays are controlled through the___?

A

DSP (Display processor unit)

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36
Q

How many DPUs are in the EFIS?

A

Two: one each for the pilot and copilot’s EFIS

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37
Q

How are the EFDs and MFD turned on?

A

Place the left and right Radio Master switches to the on (L/R) position

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38
Q

The AOA gauge and indexer are inoperative if?

A

the pilot’s AOA system fails.

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39
Q

How does the stall warning system alert you to an impending stall?

A

The control column shakes

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40
Q

Which system stores data to help determine the cause of an aircraft accident for future mishap prevention?

A

FDRS (Flight Data Recording System)

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41
Q

Where does the AOA indicator, EADI speed deviation displays, and AOA indexer get data from?

A

Left AOA system (pilot’s side)

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42
Q

Where is the AOA indicator installed and what does it provide?

A

Pilots instrument panel, provides continuous display of AOA of the values between zero lift AOA (0) to maximum life AOA (1.0)

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43
Q

What position on the AOA indicator represent L/Dmax (max endurance)?

A

0.45

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44
Q

Where is the AOA indexer installed and what does it provide?

A

On top of the shroud panel and provides a three-color, three-symbol display of AOA deviation–correlates the difference between indicated AOA ad reference AOA

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45
Q

When the aircraft is on speed, what will the AOA indexer indicate?

A

Green donut

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46
Q

When the aircraft approach is slow, what will the AOA indexer indicate?

A

Green donut and red chevron on top

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47
Q

When the aircraft approach is very slow, what will the AOA indexer indicate?

A

Red Chevron on top only

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48
Q

When the aircraft approach speed is fast, what will the AOA indexer indicate?

A

Green donut and yellow chevron on bottom

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49
Q

When the aircraft approach speed is too high, what will the AOA indexer indicate?

A

Yellow chevron on bottom

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50
Q

How many audio control panels are installed on the T-1A?

A

4-pilot, copilot, jump, passenger

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51
Q

What switch enables you to hear the radio selected on the transmit selector switch even if that radio’s individual on/off/volume switch is not pulled out?

A

AUTO COMM

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52
Q

What does the audio mute normal/override switch on the audio panel control?

A

Allows you to enable (NORM) or disable (ORIDE) the audio mute function

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53
Q

What does the audio mute switch all you to do?

A

Silence all transmissions except for interphone

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54
Q

Where are the audio mute switches located?

A

One on each yoke and one on the observer’s panel

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55
Q

What does the voice-both-ident switch allow you to do?

A

allows you to select audio output from a NAVAID. VOICE position quits morse code identification code making ATIS clearer, IDENT position quiets voice transmission, BOTH position presents both voice and ident at same volume

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56
Q

What is displayed on the RTU main pages?

A

Pilots RTU: Active UHF, Preset UHF, VHF Navigation Frequency (VOR 1), ADF frequency, TACAN channel
Copilots RTU: Active VHF, Preset VHF, VHF nav (VOR 2), transponder code

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57
Q

How many UHF presets are there?

A

20

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58
Q

Which RTU contains presets?

A

The pilot’s RTU

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59
Q

What does pushing the “GND COMM PUSH” button located to the right of the copilot’s RTU enable?

A

Allows UHF, VHF, and interphone communication during ground operations with the radio masters off during engine start.

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60
Q

What switch allows the operating RTU to control the functions of an inoperative RTU (RTU switch to DSABL on reversion panel)

A

1/2 switch

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61
Q

How do you momentarily disable the squelch on VHF?

A

Push COMM SQ on #2 RTU

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62
Q

How do you ident your transponder?

A

ATC ID on #2 RTU or buttons on either yoke

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63
Q

What is the primary indication of an impending stall?

A

L or R stick shaker

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64
Q

What normally toggles the transponder?

A

ATB STBY on RTU #2

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65
Q

What allows you to talk with other crew members without using a mic switch on the audio panel?

A

INTPH switch

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66
Q

Which switch on the Audio Control Panel allows you to hear the primary (selected) communications radio without pulling out the associated on/off/volume switch?

A

AUTO COMM

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67
Q

Which switch on the audio panel allows you to hear audio without using a headset?

A

SPKR switch

68
Q

Under normal operations, it is possible to assign frequencies to any of 20 channels using?

A

the pilot’s RTU

69
Q

Under normal operations, the ATC transponder code is set using?

A

the copilots RTU or the CDU

70
Q

Under normal operations, the ADF and TACAN are tuned using?

A

the pilot’s RTU or the CDU

71
Q

Under normal operations pressing the 1/2 key on the RTU…?

A

simply shows the display from the other unit

72
Q

The GND COMM PUSH button next to the copilot’s RTU allows what?

A

allows intercom and radio communication with the radio masters in the OFF position

73
Q

Placing the RTU NORM/DSABL switch to DSABL does what?

A

disables a malfunctioning RTU

74
Q

What button should you press to access the radio tuning pages on the CDU?

A

TUN

75
Q

On the CDU radio tuning page, the AUTO setting for NAV1 or NAV2 MODE does what?

A

Automatically tunes nearby VOR/DME stations, used to assist in maintaining a valid present position, is cancelled if the NAV source is selected for display on the EHSI

76
Q

What does the BRG knob control?

A

The bearing pointer source displayed on the EHSI

77
Q

T or F. The BRG and CRS knobs are completely independent from each other.

A

True

78
Q

What color is the bearing pointer on the EHSI?

A

always magenta

79
Q

What does the CRS knob control?

A

determines the source for both course and DME

80
Q

What color are the course arrow, CDI and DME on the EHSI?

A

Green (except when nav source is FMS (GPS)-white)

81
Q

What color is the second course on the EHSI?

A

Always cyan double-dashed shaft

82
Q

What does the NAV DTA button on the DSP do?

A

cycles through time-to-go, groundspeed, relative velocity (TACAN), relative wind speed which is displayed in the lower right corner of the EHSI

83
Q

How many degree do the arc and map mode display on the EHSI?

A

70 degrees

84
Q

What does the decision height knob on the dsp do?

A

sets the decision height on the radio altitude dislay in the lower right corner of the EADI

85
Q

What altitudes does radio altitude appear?

A

Between 0 and 2500 feet AGL.

86
Q

When does the DH display flash?

A

50 feet above the selected DH

87
Q

What symbol does the head of the bearing pointer display when ADG is the source?

A

Closed cross

88
Q

When is Mach displayed on the MSI?

A

Above 0.45 and below 0.99

89
Q

What does the magenta arc on the IAS pointer mean?

A

Trend vector at the tip that extends to indicate the expected speed 10 seconds in the future if the current rate of acceleration is maintained.

90
Q

What does pressing the TEMP button on the MSI do?

A

changes the temperature display between RAT, SAT, and deviation from ISA (international standard atmosphere)

91
Q

When passing a PIREP to a weather station, which temperature should you read off?

A

SAT

92
Q

The EFIS displays include what?

A

EADI, EHSI, and MFD

93
Q

How is the bearing pointer source indicated on the EHSI?

A

the bearing pointer head changes to the NAVAID’s chart symbol, the bearing pointer is magenta for ground-based naiads (white for FMS), the selected bearing NAVAID is annunciated in the lower left corner under BRG

94
Q

What bearing source is indicated when the magenta bearing pointer has a head shaped like a cross?

A

ADF

95
Q

What bearing source is indicated when the white bearing pointer is shaped like an open cross?

A

FMS

96
Q

Pressing the top of the HDG knob does what?

A

slews the heading bug to the current heading

97
Q

How is the selected bearing pointer NAVAID indicated on the MFD in normal MAP mode?

A

The selected NAVAID for bearing is annunciated in the lower left corner

98
Q

What is the proper CRS setting for an ILS/DME approach with an unpaired TACAN channel for DME?

A

TCN LOC

99
Q

What is the proper CRS setting for an ILS/DME approach with paired DME LOC channel for DME?

A

VOR LOC

100
Q

What is the proper procedure for displaying a secondary course?

A

Press 2nd CRS, PRESS CRS CTL, and then use the CRS select knob to set the desired course

101
Q

With the VOR LOC set on the CRS knob and a localizer frequency tuned, when does “B/C” appear on the EHSI?

A

When the difference between the actual heading and selected course is greater than 105 degrees

102
Q

Pressing the WX button on the DSP displays weather radar on the

A

EHSI in ARC or MAP format

103
Q

In order to see EFIS displays such as heading and bearing on the MFD in normal MAP mode you must what?

A

select ON or VNAV under WINDOW on the MFD MENu page of the CDU

104
Q

The reference speed on the MSI is turned on by?

A

pressing the top of the reference set knob, rotating the reference set knob, selected a speed mode on the AFCS

105
Q

How does the ADS indicate an overspeed?

A

the digital IAS and MACH on the MSI flash red and a warning horn sounds

106
Q

What does it mean if the preselect altitude flashes yellow?

A

once the preselect altitude is captured, if the altitude deviates more than 200 feet

107
Q

What does the display indicate when the actual altitude is within 1000 feet of the preselect?

A

Display flashes and alert tone is activated

108
Q

What AOA corresponds to max range?

A

0.2 in level flight

109
Q

What AOA corresponds to L/D max?

A

~0.45

110
Q

When does approach to stall warning begin when below 20,000 feet?

A

0.8

111
Q

What does V/Vs on the left side of the AOA indicator represent?

A

The velocity to stall speed ratio

112
Q

How many aircraft can the TCAS detect and track simultaneously?

A

30

113
Q

What is the maximum surveillance range of the TCAS?

A

~14 NM

114
Q

What is general traffic identified by on the TCAS?

A

open cyan diamond

115
Q

What is close traffic identified by on the TCAS?

A

Closed cyan diamond

116
Q

What is alert traffic identified by on the TCAS?

A

Closed yellow circle

117
Q

What is resolution traffic identified by on the TCAS?

A

Closed red square

118
Q

When does the trend arrow next to the icon appear?

A

Traffic is climbing/descending at more than 500 feet per minute

119
Q

What audio advisory annunciates if nearby traffic that is not classified as a threat but has the potential to become a threat if conditions change sound like?

A

“TRAFFIC TRAFFIC” for a Traffic Advisory

120
Q

What does a preventative resolution sound advisory indicate?

A

Do not change what you are doing ex “MONITOR VERTICAL SPEED, MONITOR VERTICAL SPEED”

121
Q

How fast must the pilot react to RA guidance for it to be effective?

A

5 seconds (2.5 for an increase,decrease, or reversal)

122
Q

Are pilots expected to follow RA guidance even if it deviates from an ATC clearence?

A

yes

123
Q

When may you deviate from RA guidacne?

A

Safety of flight

124
Q

What is the accuracy of bearing on traffic of the TCAS system?

A

+-10 degrees and +-45 degrees

125
Q

T or F. GPWS and Stall warning alters take precedence and inhibit TCAs alerts.

A

True

126
Q

When are all RA’s inhibited?

A

Below 1000 feet AGL

127
Q

At what altitude are all TAs inhibited?

A

Below 500 feet AGL

128
Q

When does the TCAS computer issue a TA?

A

20 seconds prior to an RA

129
Q

When does the TCAS computer issue a RA?

A

15-35 seconds before reaching the closest point between the two aircraft

130
Q

When the standby battery is exhausted, how long does the standby atittude indicator remain accurate?

A

(+-6 deg) for 9 minutes

131
Q

When does the ELT automatically beg transmitting a tone on UHF/VHF guard?

A

5 G impact or greater

132
Q

When are the AOA indexer lights on the shroud panel operational?

A

When the landing gear are down

133
Q

Can the TCAS track aircraft without an operating transponder?

A

No

134
Q

The RA aural alert CLIMB CLIMB NOW means what?

A

The initial DESCEND, DESCEN RA is reversed and you must now climb

135
Q

You may get a TA but not an RA if what?

A

Below 1000’ AGL, TCAS mode is TA ONLY, the other aircraft is not Mode C or Mode S equipped

136
Q

What normally provides airspeed, altitude, and vertical speed data to the GPWS?

A

ADS # 1

137
Q

T or F. The standby magnetic compass is unreliable when the defog fans or high windshield heat are in use.

A

True

138
Q

How is the clock’s elapsed flight time function reset?

A

by moving the Elapsed Time Switch to zero while pressing the FLIGHT TIME RESET button

139
Q

What navigation information is available on the EADI?

A

Lateral deviation indicator and Vertical deviation indicator

140
Q

What instrument displays Ram Air Temperature?

A

Mach Speed Indicator (MSI)

141
Q

What is the solid cyan arrowhead with dual dashed shaft on the EHSI?

A

Secondary course data

142
Q

What provides data to the AOA indicator and indexer?

A

Left stall warning computer (pilots side)

143
Q

What happens if you push the 1/2 button with both RTUs in NORM?

A

Cross-side freqs are displayed but cannot be tuned with that RMU

144
Q

What controls EHSI format (HSI, ARC, MAP)?

A

FORMAT switch on the DSO

145
Q

Where can you look for the status of the WX radar?

A

Upper left corner of the MFD

146
Q

What are the ELT Guard frequencies?

A

243.0 UHF and 121.5 VHF

147
Q

What indicates valid self test of WX?

A

6 evenly displayed arcs on the MFD

148
Q

What is the purpose of the gpws?

A

warn of potential ground impact situations

149
Q

What displays FLY TO commands?

A

RA/VSI

150
Q

A message displayed on an EFD in red usually indicates what?

A

Associated system has failed

151
Q

A message displayed on an EFD in yellow usually indicates

A

associated system is in reversion (cross-side) or left and right associated systems disagree (comparator)

152
Q

A message displayed on an EFD in white usually indicates

A

a noncritical system notification

153
Q

With a dual RTU failure, which radio(s) can be tuned using the CDU?

A

VHF NAV 1

154
Q

According to the procedure for dual RTU failure, pulling the VHF circuit breaker does what?

A

returns VHF Comm to 121.5

155
Q

T or F. You are unable to change any radios other than VHF Nav 1 and VHF Comm in the event of a dual RTU failure?

A

True

156
Q

What should you do if comm and or nav modes change frequencies without crew input?

A

Select RMT TUNE to disable ON THE REVERSION PANEL

157
Q

With a complete DC electrical failure, approximately how long is the standby attitude indicator reliable after the aircraft battery is depleted (assume stby battery is fully charged and available at time of failure)?

A

39 minutes

158
Q

How does the EHSI indicate an AHRS failure?

A

Red HDG annunciation

159
Q

What radios can you tune if both RTUs fail?

A

VHF NAV #1, and VHF Comm/Guard (by pulling VHF CB)

160
Q

What does a yellow, boxed HDG on both EHSIs mean?

A

They disagree with hdg presented (comparer)

161
Q

What should the AOA be set to for t/o?

A

1.2

162
Q

What should the AOA be set to for landing?

A

1.3

163
Q

What provides data to the AOA indicator and AOA indexer?

A

Left stall warning computer (pilots side)

164
Q

What provides ambient and ram air pressure to the standby altimeter and standby airspeed indicators?

A

The copilot’s pitot static system

165
Q

With the RTU selector star on the preselect line, pressing any other LSK moves the star to the selected line for a maximum of how many seconds?

A

15 seconds

166
Q

What will happen if you place the #1 RTU Disable switch to DSABL?

A

The pilot’s RTU display will go blank

167
Q

What normally toggles the transponder between ON and STBY?

A

The ATC STBY function key on RTU #2

T-1A Systems 3 (1 decks)

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