Aviation Missed Questions Flashcards
The elevator controls movement around which axis?
O A Vertical.
O B Lateral.
O C Longitudinal.
B
The minimum flight visibility required for VR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than
1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is?
O A 1 mile.
O B 3 miles.
O 5 miles.
C
All operations within Class C airspace must be in?
A accordance with instrument flight rules.
B an aircraft equipped with a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability.
C compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.
B
Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is
A 3 miles.
B 1 mile.
C 5 miles.
B
A special VR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is
A at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
B at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
C less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.
A
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VR flight is
A 5 miles.
B 3 miles.
C 1 mile.
C
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?
A An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
B An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
C An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
A
Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?
A Repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams.
B Replenishing hydraulic fluid.
C Repair of landing gear brace struts.
B
Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
A The corrected density altitude of the departure airport.
B The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.
C The corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport.
B
With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?
A Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.
B Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.
C Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
C
Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include
A a study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use.
B the designation of an alternate airport.
C an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
C
Figure 40. Airplane Takeoff Distance Graph.
1) Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle.
OAT = Std
Pressure altitude = 4,000 ft
Takeoff weight = 2,800 lb
Headwind component = Calm
A 1,750 feet.
B 2,000 feet.
C 1,500 feet.
A
Figure 34. Airplane Weight and Balance Graphs.
10) Determine the aircraft loaded moment and the aircraft category.
Empty weight
Pilot and front passenger
Fuel, 48 gal
Oil, 8 at.
WEIGHT (LB)
1.350
380
288
MOM/1000
51.5
A 80.4, utility category.
B 79.2, normal category.
C 78.2, normal category.
C
Figure 37. Airplane Landing Distance Graph.
11) Determine the total distance required to land.
OAT = 32°F
Pressure altitude = 8,000 ft
Weight = 2,600 lb
Headwind component = 20 kts
Obstacle = 50 ft
A 1.750 feet.
B 850 feet.
C 1,400 feet.
C
Figure 15. Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAF).
7) In the TAF from KOKC, the clear sky becomes
• A overcast at 200 feet with the probability of becoming overcast at 400 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.
• B overcast at 2,000 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.
• C overcast at 200 feet with a 40 percent probability of becoming overcast at 600 feet during the forecast period between 2200Z and 2400Z.
B
Figure 14. Pilot Weather Report.
17) The base and tops of the overcast layer reported by a pilot are
A 5,500 feet AGL and 7,200 feet MSL.
B 7,200 feet MSL and 8,900 feet MSL.
C 1,800 feet MSL and 5,500 feet MSL.
B
Figure 21. Sectional Chart Excerpt.
4) The terrain elevation of the light tan (light colored) area between Minot (Area 1) and Audubon Lake (Area 2) varies from
A 2,000 feet to 2,700 feet MSL.
B 2,000 feet to 2.500 feet MSL.
C sea level to 2,000 feet MSL.
B
Figure 52. Chart Supplement.
6) What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation?
A Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on 118.5 MHz.
B Contact UNICOM on 122.95 MHz for traffic advisories.
C Monitor ATIS for airport conditions, then announce your position on 122.95 MHz.
A
Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?
O A Lines of longitude cross the Equator at right angles.
O B The 0° line of latitude passes through Greenwich, England.
O C Lines of longitude are parallel to the Equator.
A
Figure 26. Sectional Chart Excerpt.
10) (Refer to east of Area 5.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is
O A Class E airspace from the surface to 1,200 feet MSL.
O B Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying Class E airspace.
C Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL.
C
Figure 69. Sectional Chart Excerpt.
15) The controlled airspace located at the Corpus Christi VORTAC (Area 5) begins at
A 1,200 feet MSL.
B 700 feet AGL.
C the surface.
B
Figure 70. Sectional Chart Excerpt.
17) When are two-way radio communications required on a flight from Gnoss Airport (DO) (Area 4) to Livermore Airport (LVK) (Area 5) at an altitude of 3,500 ft. MSL? When entering
A the Class B airspace.
B both the Class B airspace and the Livermore Airport Class D airspace.
C the Livermore Airport Class D airspace.
C
Figure 78. Sectional Chart Excerpt.
19) What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day?
A 0 statute miles, clear of clouds.
B 3 statute miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds, 1,000 feet above the clouds, and 2,000 feet horizontally from the clouds.
C 1 statute mile, clear of clouds.
C
Figure 78. Sectional Chart Excerpt.
19) What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day?
A 0 statute miles, clear of clouds.
B 3 statute miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds, 1,000 feet above the clouds, and 2,000 feet horizontally from the clouds.
C 1 statute mile, clear of clouds.
C
Figure 22. Sectional Chart Excerpt.
1) (Refer to Area 3.) The vertical limits of that portion of Class E airspace designated as a Federal
Airway over Magee Airport are
A 700 feet MSL to 12,500 feet MSL.
B 1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL.
C 7,500 feet MSL to 17,999 feet MSL.
B
Figure 25. Sectional Chart Excerpt.
4) (Refer to area 5.) The VOR is tuned to the Dallas/Fort Worth VOR. The omnibearing selector (OBS) is set on 253°, with a TO indication, and a right course deviation indicator (CDI) deflection. What is the aircraft’s position from the VOR?
A North-northeast.
B East-northeast.
C West-southwest.
B
Figure 20. Sectional Chart Excerpt.
11) The VOR is tuned to Elizabeth City VOR/DME (area 3 in Figure 20), and the aircraft is positioned over Shawboro, a small town 3 NM west of Currituck County Regional (ONX). Which VOR indication is correct?
A 8
B 5
C 2
B
Figure 28. VOR.
16) (Refer to illustration 5.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What radial is the aircraft crossing?
A 300°.
B 030°.
C 210°.
B
Figure 22. Sectional Chart Excerpt.
1) Determine the estimated time en route for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone
County Airport (area 3). The wind is from 030 at 12 knots and the true airspeed is 95 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out.
A 27 minutes.
B 31 minutes.
C 29 minutes.
B
Figure 22. Sectional Chart Excerpt.
2) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from St. Maries Airport (area 4) to Priest River Airport (area 1). The wind is from 340° at 10 knots and the true airspeed is 90 knots.
O A 325°.
O B 345°.
O C 330°.
C
Figure 27. Time Conversion Table.
3) An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1515 MST for a 2-hour 30-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. What is the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport?
A 1645 PST.
B 1845 PST.
C 1745 PST.
A
Figure 23. Sectional Chart Excerpt.
4) While en route on Victor 185, a flight crosses the 248° radial of Allendale VOR at 0953 and then crosses the 216° radial of Allendale VOR at 1000. What is the estimated time of arrival at Savannah VORTAC?
O A 1028.
O B 1036.
O C 1023.
A
Figure 21. Sectional Chart Excerpt.
6) What course should be selected on the omnibearing selector (OBS) to make a direct flight from
Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to the Minot VORTAC (area 1) with a TO indication?
O A 359°.
O B 001°.
O C 179°.
A
Figure 23. Sectional Chart Excerpt.
9) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set to navigate direct from Hampton Varnville
Airport (area 1) to Savannah VORTAC (area 3)?
A 195°.
B 015°.
C 201°.
A
Figure 68. Wind Triangle.
10) The line from point A to point B of the wind triangle represents
A true heading and airspeed.
B groundspeed and true heading.
C true course and groundspeed.
A
Figure 24. Sectional Chart Excerpt.
12) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate direct from Majors
Airport (area 1) to Quitman VOR-DME (area 2)?
A 101°.
B 108°.
C 281°.
A
Figure 22. Sectional Chart Excerpt.
3) Determine the estimated time en route for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone
County Airport (area 3). The wind is from 030 at 12 knots and the true airspeed is 95 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out.
A 31 minutes.
B 27 minutes.
C 29 minutes.
A
Figure 9. Control Position for Taxi.
6) (Refer to area A.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left quartering headwind?
A Left aileron down, elevator neutral.
B Left aileron up, elevator neutral.
C Left aileron up, elevator down.
B
Figure 24. Sectional Chart Excerpt.
17) Determine the magnetic course from Airpark East Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2).
Magnetic variation is 6°30’E.
OA 082°.
O B 091°.
O C 075°.
C
Figure 27. Time Conversion Table.
20) An aircraft departs an airport in the mountain standard time zone at 1515 MST for a 2-hour 30-minute flight to an airport located in the Pacific standard time zone. What is the estimated time of arrival at the destination airport?
A 1845 PST.
B 1745 PST.
C 1645 PST.
C
Figure 40. Airplane Takeoff Distance Graph.
,000
1,000
Obstacle height
35) Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle.
OAT = Std
Pressure altitude = 4,000 ft
Takeoff weight = 2,800 lb
Headwind component= Calm
A 2,000 feet.
B 1,500 feet.
C 1,750 feet.
C
An airplane said to be inherently stable will
A be difficult to stall.
B require less effort to control.
C not spin.
B
Figure 82. Altimeter.
7) Which altimeter(s) indicate(s) more than 9,000 feet?
A 1 and 2 only.
B 1, 2, and 3.
C 3 only.
C
Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?
A Altimeter only.
B Airspeed indicator only.
C Airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator.
C
You attended a party last night, and you consumed several glasses of wine. You are planning to fly your aircraft home and have been careful to make sure 8 hours have passed since your last alcoholic drink. You can make the flight now only if you are not under the influence of alcohol and your blood alcohol level is
A below .04%.
B 0.0%.
C below .08%.
A
What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?
A 14 CFR Part 91.403
B 14 CFR Part 43.7
C 14 CFR Part 61.113
B
When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state?
A whether they intend to fly VFR only.
B that they possess a current pilot certificate.
C the full name and address of the formation commander.
A
Which is true with respect to a high - or low-pressure system?
A A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air.
B A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air.
C A low-pressure area or trough is an area of descending air.
A
When does a plastic U.S. student pilot certificate expire?
A Never
B After 60 calendar months.
C When your medical certificate expires.
A
A standard-rate turn is defined as:
A A turn rate of 6° per second.
B A turn rate of 10° per second.
C A turn rate of 3° per second.
C
FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by?
A subscribing to the Federal Register.
B distribution from the nearest FAA district office.
C ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.
C
Figure 40. Airplane Takeoff Distance Graph.
34) Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle.
OAT = Std
Pressure altitude = 4.000 ft
Takeoff weight = 2,800 lb
Headwind component = Calm
A 1,750 feet.
B 2,000 feet.
C 1,500 feet.
A
Which aircraft has the right-of way over the other aircraft listed?
O A Aircraft towing other aircraft.
O B Airship.
O C Gyroplane.
A
To maintain BasicMed privileges, you must complete a BasicMed medical education course within the preceding:
A 24 calendar months.
B 12 calendar months.
C 48 calendar months.
A
In slow flight, prior to a stalled condition:
A The controls start to feel mushy-not as responsive.
B The nose of the airplane begins to bounce around the horizon.
C The noise of the propeller increases.
A
(Refer to figure 28, illustration 6.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft’s position relative to the station?
A North
B East
C West
C
Which description below accurately describes the colors used for airports on a Sectional Chart?
A Airports with control towers are shown in blue.
B Airports with control towers are shown in magenta.
C Airports with control towers underlying Class D and E airspace are magenta.
A
On landing, your tire blows and the wheel is dented. What action is required to comply with NTSB Part 830?
A. A report must be filed with the nearest FA field office within 7 days.
B. No notification or report is required.
C. An immediate notification must be filed by the operator of the aircraft with the nearest NTSB field office.
B
What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a ‘serious injury’?
A. 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.
B. 10 days, with no other extenuating circumstances.
C. 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date of the injury.
A
The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the?
A. Dew point
B. Air temperature
C. Stability of the air
B
While on a VFR cross country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency?
A. 121.5 MHZ
B. 122.5 MHz.
C. 128.725 MHz.
A
During which phase of flight is a pilot at increased odds of experiencing a somatogravic illusion?
A. Landing
B. Takeoff
C. Steep turns
B
Figure 28. VOR,
(Refer to illustration 3.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft’s position relative to the station?
A. East.
B. Southeast.
C. West.
B
To keep a battery charged, the alternator voltage output should be
A. equal to the battery voltage.
B. less than the battery voltage.
C. higher than the battery voltage.
C
Figure 52. Chart Supplement.
57) Which type radar service is provided to VFR aircraft at Lincoln Municipal?
A Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and conflict resolution so that radar targets do not touch, or 1,000 feet vertical separation.
B Sequencing to the primary Class C airport, traffic advisories, conflict resolution, and safety alerts.
C Sequencing to the primary Class C airport and standard separation.
B
Figure 22. Sectional Chart Excerpt.
59) (Refer to Area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet AGL are
A 1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
B 3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
C 1 mile and clear of clouds.
B
What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?
O A. 14 CFR 43.3.
O B. 14 CFR 61.113.
O C. 14 CFR 91.403.
A
Figure 28. VOR.
39) (Refer to illustration 8.) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft’s position relative to the station?
A North.
B South.
C East.
B
