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B licence M10 > Aviation Legislation > Flashcards

Aviation Legislation Flashcards

1
Q

Regulation 1321/2014:

A

IR Continued Airworthiness:

Annex 1 - Part M (CAMO)
Annex 2 - Part 145 
Annex 3 - Part 66
Annex 4 - Part 147
Annex 5 - Part T (Dry Lease in a third country)
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2
Q

Regulation 748/2012:

A

IR Initial Airworthiness:

CS 23, CS 25, CS 27, CS 29, CS ETSO, CS AWO, CS 36

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3
Q

CS 23:

A

Deals with certification specifications for small aeroplanes

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4
Q

CS 25:

A

Deals with certification specifications for aircraft over 5,700kg

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5
Q

CS 27:

A

Deals with certification specifications for small helicopters less than 3175kg or 9 or less passengers

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6
Q

CS 29:

A

Deals with certification specifications for large helicopters with more than one engine

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7
Q

CS-ETSO:

A

European Technical Standard Order, deals with the design and manufacture of aircraft parts

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8
Q

CS-AWO:

A

Deals with all weather operations

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9
Q

CS 36:

A

Deals with noise requirements to be met

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10
Q

What year was the Chicago Convention formed?

A

1944

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11
Q

What year was the CAA formed?

A

1972

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12
Q

What year did the UK pass the Civil Aviation act?

A

1949

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13
Q

Air Navigation Order (ANO):

A

A book which lays down the law of the land and comprises of articles and schedules

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14
Q

Article:

A

An article of law and must be complied with.

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15
Q

Schedule:

A

Contains further information on how to comply with the associated article

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16
Q

CAA Safety Regulation Group (SRG):

A

Is responsible for making sure organisations remain compliant with the regulations by carrying out audits by surveyors.

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17
Q

British Civil Airworthiness Requirements (BCARs):

A

Documents produced by the CAA and lay down the minimum standards required for airworthiness of UK aircraft.

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18
Q

Section A of BCARs:

A

Airworthiness procedures where the CAA had primary responsibility for the type approval of the aircraft/product

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19
Q

Section B of BCARs:

A

Airworthiness procedures where the type approval for the aircraft/product is issued by a foreign agency.

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20
Q

Airworthiness Notices (AWNs):

A

Superseded in 2009 by the CAP 562 and CAP 747

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21
Q

CAP 562 Leaflet 15-2:

A

Provides information about the extent of the various licence categories

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22
Q

CAP 562 Leaflet 15-6:

A

Personal responsibility when medically unfit or under the influence of drink or drugs

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23
Q

European Civil Aviation Conference (ECAC):

A

An intergovernmental organisation established by ICAO.

  • Located in Paris
  • Founded in 1955
  • Currently has 44 members

“Promotes the continued development of a safe, efficient and sustainable European air transport system, with priorities being safety, security and the environment”

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24
Q

Joint Aviation Authorities (JAA):

A

An associated body of ECAC intended to provide high and consistent standards of safety and a level playing field for competition in Europe. Founded in 1970, disbanded in 2009.

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25
Q

European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA):

A

An agency of the EU and sets common safety standards which become law in all EU countries. Formed in 2003.

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26
Q

Hard Law:

A

Binding Regulation/Rules

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27
Q

Soft Law:

A

Flexibility through non-binding standards

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28
Q

Basic Regulation:

A

Adopted by European Parliament and the European Council, binding in all its elements

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29
Q

Implementing Rules (IR):

A

Hard law used to specify a high level of safety and uniform conformity and compliance adopted in the form of regulations.

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30
Q

Acceptable means of compliance (AMC):

A

Soft law adopted by EASA. Serves as a mean by which the requirements contained in the basic regulations and IR’s area met. The AMC states one approved method of complying but not the only method.

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31
Q

Guidance Material (GM):

A

Supplements the AMC

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32
Q

JAA Memberships

Candidate Member:

A

Will have access to meetings and documents but no voting rights and no automatic recognition of approvals issued.

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33
Q

JAA Memberships

Full Member:

A

Entitled to fuel voting rights and recognition of approvals issued by a state member.

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34
Q

Notice of Proposed Amendment (NPA):

A

The drafting of rules which is found on the EASA website.

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35
Q

Comment Response Document (CRD):

A

Parties can make comments on the NPA, which are then analysed by the comitology department.

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36
Q

Air Operations (Air Ops):

A

The regulations that airline operators have to comply with.

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37
Q

Commercial Air transport (CAT):

A

Means an aircraft operation to transport passengers, cargo or mail

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38
Q

NAA Audit Findings: What are Level 1 and Level 2 findings?

A

Level 1: Any significant non-compliance with part 145 requirements which lowers the safety standard and seriously hazards flight safety.

Level 2: Any non-compliance with part 145 requirements which could lower the safety standard and possibly hazard flight safety.

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39
Q

Category B3 Licence:

A

Piston engine, non-pressurised aircraft of 2000kg MTOM

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40
Q

A1 & B1.1:
A2 & B2.2:
A3 & B3.3:
A4 & B1.4:

A

A1 & B1.1: Turbine Aeroplane
A2 & B1.2: Piston Aeroplane
A3 & B1.3: Turbine Helicopters
A4 & B1.4: Piston Helicopters

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41
Q

Licence type rating: Aircraft group 1

A

Complex motor-power aircraft as well as multiple engine helicopters with a maximum operating altitude of 29,000ft and aircraft equipped with flyby wire.

42
Q

Licence Type Rating: Aircraft Group 2

A

Aircraft other than those is group 1 belonging to the following subgroups:
2a - Single turbo propeller aeroplanes
2b - Single turbine helicopters
2c - Single piston engine helicopters

43
Q

Licence Type Rating: Aircraft Group 3:

A

Piston engine aircraft other than those in group 1.

44
Q

Definition of a complex motor powered aeroplane:

A
  • Max take-off mass 5700kg
  • More than 19 passenger seats
  • 2 or more crew
  • Equipped with a turbojet or more than one turboprop
45
Q

Definition of a complex motor powered helicopter:

A
  • MTOM 3175kg
  • 9 or more passengers
  • at least 2 crew required
46
Q

What can a CAT A engineer sign for?

A

Minor scheduled line maintenance and simple defect rectification for which they are specifically trained for

47
Q

What can a CAT B1 sign for?

A

Authorise to certify maintenance of the aircraft structure, mechanical and electrical systems. Can also sign for simple avionics

48
Q

What can a B3 engineer sign for?

A

Structure, mechanical, electrical and power plants. Does not get CAT A privileges. (Piston engine, non-pressurise of 2,000kg MTOM and below)

49
Q

Experience required to gain a CAT A, B1.2, B1.4 or B3:

A

3 years - No technical training
2 years - Relevant technical training (Not Part 147)
1 year - Part 147 with an approved training course

50
Q

Experience required for CAT B2, B1.1 or B1.3?

A

5 years - No technical training
3 years - Relevant technical training (Not Part 147)
2 years - After a part 147 approved course

51
Q

Experience required for CAT C:

A

3 years as a B1.1, B1.3 or B2

5 years as a B1.2 or B1.4

52
Q

Experience for CAT C academic route:

A

Holding a degree with 3 years experience in civil aircraft maintenance (6 months observation of base maintenance)

53
Q

Type certificate holder:

A

The organisation who owns the type certificate and only the organisation can apply to change the type design. (EG. Airbus or Boeing)

54
Q

Definition of a minor change:

A

Does not effect mass, balance, structural strength, reliability, operational characteristics, noise, fuel venting, exhaust emissions or any other characteristics affecting airworthiness.

55
Q

Supplementary type certificate holder:

A

If an organisation receives approval to design a modification to an aircraft for which it is not the type certificate holder

56
Q

Supplementary type certificate:

A

Issued by the NAA to indicate that a modification to the aircraft is approved

57
Q

Airworthiness review certificate:

A

This non-expiring C of A is validated by issuing of Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC), EASA Form 15a, Carried out annually.

58
Q

Permit to fly:

A

Issued to aircraft that do not meet applicable airworthiness requirements but are capable of safe flight under defined conditions

59
Q

Which form should you use to register an aircraft in the UK? (Gain G registration)

A

Form CA1

60
Q

JAR 36:

A

Introduced to reproduce the ICAO standards for environmental protection under annex 16 - Aircraft noise

61
Q

Who often must aircraft be reweighed?

A

Every 4 years if individual aircraft masses area used and 9 years if fleet masses are used.

62
Q

Traffic load:

A

Total mass of passengers, baggage, cargo, specialist equipment and ballast.

63
Q

Part 21 subparts:

A 
B - Type Certificates
D -Changes to type certificate 
E - Supplemental type certificate 
H - C of A 
P - Permit to fly
I - Noise Certificates
64
Q

Part M Subparts:

A 
A - General
B - Accountability
C - Continued Airworthiness
D - Maintenance standards
E - Components
F - Maintenance Organisation
G - CAMO 
H - CRS
I - Airworthiness review certificate
65
Q

Dry Lease Agreement:

A

Aircraft is operated under the air operators certificate (AOC)

66
Q

Wet lease agreement:

A

Operated under the AOC of the lessor

67
Q

Damp Lease agreement:

A

A wet lease with partial crew

68
Q

Part ARO:

A

Authority requirements for air operations

69
Q

Part ORO:

A

Organisational requirements for air operations

70
Q

Part CAT:

A

Commercial Air transport operations

71
Q

Part SPA:

A

Specific approvals Eg. ETOPS

72
Q

Part NCC:

A

Non-commercial air operations with complex motor powered aircraft

73
Q

Part NCO:

A

Non-commercial air operations with other than complex motor powered aircraft

74
Q

Part SPO:

A

Specialised operations other than CAT. Eg. Photography

75
Q

Annex 3 (Part ORO) Subsections:

A 
General requirements 
Air operators certificate 
Manuals, logs and records
Security
Flight crew
Cabin crew
Technical crew
76
Q

Annex 4 (Part CAT) subsections:

A

General requirements
Operating procedures
Aircraft performance and operating limitations
Instruments, data and equipment

77
Q

Air operators certificate (AOC):

A

Constitutes the organisations approval to operate

78
Q

Air transport association of America (ATA):

A

Formed in 1936 in Chicago by a group of 14 airlines and played a role in the US government decisions regarding aviation matters

79
Q

ATA 100:

A

Manufactures technical data

80
Q

ATA ISPEC 2200:

A

Standard for the development management and exchange of digital manuals

81
Q

What colour pages are temporary pages printed on?

A

Yellow

82
Q

Maintenance planning document (MPD):

A

Provides maintenance planning information necessary for each aircraft operator to develop a customised scheduled maintenance programme.

83
Q

Light aircraft maintenance schedule (LAMS):

A

Used for non EASA, piston engine aeroplanes with less than 2730kg MTOM, produced and approved by the CAA.

84
Q

MMEL Rectifications Intervals:

A

Category A - No standard interval is specified
Category B - Items shall be rectified within 3 calendar days
Category C - Items shall be rectified within 10 calendar days
Category D - Items shall be rectified within 120 calendar days
(Calendar days excluding the day of discovery)

85
Q

Configuration deviation list:

A

Details any airframe component which may be missing at time of dispatch

86
Q

Airworthiness directive:

A

Released when it is decided that a particular maintenance action is required to ensure continued airworthiness

87
Q

What replaced JAR 145?

A

BCAR Section A8-13

88
Q

Threshold time for ETOPS aircraft is:

A

60 minutes

89
Q

ATA 100 Subtopics: 001-099

A

Description and operation

90
Q

ATA 100 Subtopics: 101-199

A

Troubleshooting

91
Q

ATA 100 Subtopics: 201-299

A

Maintenance practices

92
Q

ATA 100 Subtopics: 301-399

A

Servicing

93
Q

ATA 100 Subtopics: 401-499

A

Removal/Installation

94
Q

ATA Subtopics: 501-599

A

Adjustment/test

95
Q

ATA Subtopics: 601-699

A

Inspection/Check

96
Q

ATA Subtopics: 701-799

A

Cleaning/painting

97
Q

ATA Subtopics: 801-899

A

Approved repairs

98
Q

ATA Subtopics: 901-999

A

Dispatch Deviation Guide

99
Q

What is a category 3 landing?

A

A decision height of 30m (100ft) or less

100
Q

Category 2 auto land with a decision height if 100ft has a visual line up approach of …..

A

300 meters

B licence M10 (3 decks)

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