Aviation Acronyms Flashcards

1
Q

VFR Day Required Equipment

A

91.205

A TOMATO FLAMES

A – Altimeter

T – Tachometer for each engine

O – Oil temperature for each engine

M - Manifold pressure for each altitude engine

A - Airspeed indicator

T – Temperature gauge for each liquid-cooled engine

O – Oil pressure gauge for each engine

F – Fuel gauge for each tank

L – Landing gear position indicator

A – Anticollision light

M – Magnetic compass

E – ELT

S – Safety gear —floatation devices if beyond glide distance from shore, plus seat belts for each occupant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

VFR-night Required Equipment

A

91.205

A TOMATO FLAMES + FLAPS

F – Fuses (spare set or three of each type, if fuses are used)

L – Landing light (if for hire)

A – Anticollision lights

P – Position lights (AKA navigation lights)

S – Source of electrical power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

IFR Required Equipment

A

91.205

VFR Day + GRAB CARD D

G Generator or alternator

R – Radio (comms/nav) appropriate to the flight

A – Attitude indicator

B – Ball (inclinometer)

C – Clock

A – Altimeter (pressure-sensitive)

R – Rate of turn indicator

D – Directional gyro

D – DME or RNAV (flights above FL240)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Required Inspections?

A

91.409

AV1ATES

A – Annual inspection

V – VOR check (30 days)

1 – 100 hour inspection (if for hire)

A – Altimiter / pitot static (24 months)

T – Transponder check (24 months)

E – ELT (inspected every 12 months, battery replaced a half its lifespan or after one hour use)

S – Service Bullitans / ADs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Required Docs on Board

A

91.203

SPARROW

S – Supplement

P – Placcardsd

A – Airworthiness certificate

R – Registration certificate

R – Radio station license (if operating internationally)

O – Operating Limitations (usually found in POH/AFM)

W – Weight and balance sheet (specific for that aircraft, located in AFM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Are you safe to fly?

A

PHAK 2-8

I’M SAFE

I – Illness

M – Medication

S – Stress

A – Alcohol

F – Fatigue

E – Emotional health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Risk Management

A

PHAK 2-8

PAVE Checklist

P – Pilot (IM SAFE)

A – Aircraft (ARROW PDC, A TOMATO FLAMES, FLAPS, GRAB CARD D)

V – enVironment

E – External pressures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

IFR Currency

A

61.57

66HIT

6 - have completed 6 instrument approaches within the preceding 6 months

H - holding

I - intercepting

T - tracking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Flight Planning

A

91.169

NW KRAFT

N – NOTAMS

W – Weather

K – Known traffic delays

R – Runway lengths

A – Alternates

F – Fuel requirements, including to your alternate

T – Takeoff and landing distances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Clearances

A

CRAFT

C – Clearance limit

R – Route

A – Altitude

F – Frequencies

T – Transponder code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Holds

A

5Ts

T – Turn

T – Twist

T – Time

T – Throttle

T – Talk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Lost Coms Altitude

A

AIM 6-4-1

Go to the highest of these three altitudes—MEA

M – Minimum charted

E – Expected

A – Assigned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Lost Coms Route

A

AIM 6-4-1

AVEF

A – Assigned

V – Vectored

E – Expected

F – Filed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Required IFR Reporting Points

A

AIM 5-3-3

MARVELOUS VFR 500

M - Missed Approach

A - Airspeed change of 5% or 10 knots (whichever is greater)

R - Reaching clearance limit or holding fix

V - Vacating an altitude

E - ETA change of more than 2 minutes

L - Leaving assigneed altitude

O - Outer marker inbound (non radar environment only)

U - Unforecasted weather conditions

S - Safety of flight (anything that affects it)

V - VFR on top altitude change

F - Final approach fix inbound (non radar environment only)

R - Radio failure

500 fpm - unable to maintain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are TEC Routes

A

AIM 4-1-19

Tower En route Control Routes

Allows pilots to travel between airports in select metropolitan areas without leaving approach control airspace.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How long does Medical Last?

A

61.23

Under 40 yrs:

1st class - 1st class for 12 months, second class for 12 months, 3rd class for 60 months after the month of the date of examination

2nd class - 2nd class for 12 months, 3rd class for 60 months after the month of the date of examination

3rd class - 3rd class for 60 months after the month of the date of examination

Over 40 yrs:

1st class - 1st class for 6 months, 2nd class for 12 months, 3rd class for 24 months after the month of the date of examination.

2nd class - 2nd class for 12 months, 3rd class for 24 months after the month of the date of examination.

3rd class - 3rd class for 24 months after the month of the date of examination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do I get basic med?

A

AC 68-1A

  1. Hold a current and valid U.S. driver’s license.
  2. Hold or have held a medical certificate issued by the FAA at any point after
    July 14, 2006.
  3. Answer the health questions on the Comprehensive Medical Examination
    Checklist (CMEC).
  4. Get your physical examination by any State-licensed physician, and have that
    physician complete the CMEC (be sure to keep the CMEC).
  5. Take the BasicMed online medical education course. Keep the course
    completion document issued to you by the course provider.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What Are My BasicMed Privileges?

A

AC 68-1A

You can conduct any operation that you would otherwise be able to conduct using your pilot certificate and a third-class medical certificate, except you are limited to:

  1. Fly with no more than five passengers.
  2. Fly an aircraft with a maximum certificated takeoff weight of no more than 6,000 lbs.
  3. Fly an aircraft that is authorized to carry no more than 6 occupants.
  4. Flights within the United States, at an indicated airspeed of 250 knots or less, and at an altitude at or below 18,000 feet mean sea level (MSL).
  5. You may not fly for compensation or hire.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What do you need to maintain basic med privilages?

A

AC 68-1A

  1. Be sure you have a CMEC that shows that your most recent physical
    examination was within the past 48 months.
  2. Be sure you are being treated by a physician for medical conditions that may affect the safety of flight.
  3. Be sure you have a course completion certificate that was issued by a BasicMed medical training course provider within the past
    24 calendar-months.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

MEA

A

IFR Low Legend

Minimum Enroute Altitude

Guarantees obstruction clearance and adequate reception of ground based nav aids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MCA/MTA

A

IFR Low Legend

Minimum Crossing / Turning Altitude

Minimum to cross a fix when next segment MEA is higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MOCA

A

IFR Low Legend

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude

Lower than MEA, Assures obstruction clearance and adequate signal within 22nm of a VOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

MRA

A

IFR Low Legend

Minimum Reception Altitude

24
Q

MAA

A

IFR Low Legend

Maximum Authorized Altitude

Highest usable altitude on an airway.

25
COP
IFR Low Legend Change Over Point
26
OROCA
IFR Low Legend Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude
27
MSA
IFR Low Legend Minimum Safe Altitude Min altitude that provides at least 1000 feet of obstacle clearance for emergency use within a certain distance of a specified navigation facility or fix.
28
Oxygen Requirements
91.211 12,500 - 14,000: Required crew must use for the part of the flight that exceeds 30 min. Above 14,000: Required crew for the entire flight Above 15,000: Each occupant must be provided with oxygen
29
Hazardous Attitudes and Antidotes
PHAK 2-4 Anti-Authority: Follow the rules Impulsivity: Not so fast. Think first Invulnerability: It could happen to me Macho: Taking chances is foolish Resignation: Im not helpless. I can make a difference.
30
Magnetic Compass Errors
Instrument Flying Handbook 5-12 Variation: Difference between true and magnetic north Deviation: Electronic equipment magnetic fields creating deviation North South turning: UNOS Acceleration: ANDS Oscillation: combination of all errors and causes compass to swing back and fourth
31
VOR Check Options
AIM 1-1-4 VOT: Tune in, DCI to 360 or 180, acceptable deviation of 4 degrees left or right Ground Check: Tune into specific radial at specific airport location, acceptable deviation of 4 degrees left or right Airborne checkpoint and airway: Tune into specific radial on a specific airway, acceptable deviation of 6 degrees left or right Dual VOR: tune both into the same VOR, acceptable deviation of 4 degrees between the two VOR Check info in chart supplement
32
RAIM
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring - Detection: 5 satellites - Exclusion: 6 satellites
33
WAAS
Wide Area Augmentation System
34
Airspeed Indicator
PHAK 8-2 Measures Dynamic Pressure using Pitot Tube (ram air) and corrects for altitude using static pressure - Ram air exerts force on diaphragm and causes needle to move
35
Altimeter
PHAK 8-2 Measures difference between static pressure and standard pressure inside of aneroid wafers.
36
VSI
PHAK 8-2 Measures difference between static pressure and static pressure that is subject to calibrated leak - diaphragm has small hole in it that allows it to equalize to current static pressure but it is delayed which causes the needle on VSI to temporarily deflect
37
Errors when Pitot tube and Drain Hole Blocked
Airspeed: Increases with altitude gain, decreases with altitude loss. Altimeter: unaffected VSI: unaffected
38
Errors When Pitot Tube Blocked and Drain Hole is Clear
Airspeed: Displays Zero Altimeter: unaffected VSI: unaffected
39
Errors When Static Port is Blocked
Airspeed: Decreases with altitude gain, increases with altitude loss Altimeter: Does not change with altitude change VSI: Does not change with vertical speed change
40
Errors when both Pitot and static sources are fully blocked
All indications will remain constant, regardless of changes in airspeed, altitude, and vertical speed
41
VCOA
Visual Climb Over Airport
42
When is an alternate airport required?
Destination airport has ceiling of less than 2000' and 3sm of visibility between 1 hr before and 1 hr after ETA
43
Standard weather reqs for alterenate airport
Precision approach: 2sm visibility and 600' ceiling Nonprecision: 2 miles visibility and 800' ceiling
44
Can you choose an airport that doesn't have an instrument approach as an alternate?
Yes if you have VFR conditions from MEA to Landing
45
How would you know if an airport has other than standard alternate minimums?
the letter "A" inside black triangle on approach plate.
46
What airports cannot be filed as an alternate?
When the approach plate has the letter "A" in a black triangle and "NA" following. NA means alternate minimums are not authorized due to either unmonitored facility, absence of weather reporting, or inadequate navigational coverage.
47
Can an airport that only has a GPS approach be used as an alternate?
Only if the aircraft is equipped with a WAAS capable GPS.
48
What is RNP
RNP describes the course route width of an RNAV route. The aircraft's total system error must remain bounded to the appropriate level of 95% of the total flight time. En Route width: 2nm Terminal width: 1nm Approach width: .3nm
49
What is an airmet, what types exist, and how often are they issued?
Airmen's Meteorological Advisory Airmet Sierra: Denotes IFR and Mountain Obscuration Airmet Tango: Denotes turbulence, strong winds, and low level wind shear Airmet Zulu: Denotes icing and freezing levels Issued every 6 hours
50
What is a Sigmet and how often are they issued?
Significant Meteorological Advisory Concerning non convective weather that is potentially hazardous to all aircraft. Forecasts that include: - severe icing not associated with thunder storms - severe or extreme turbulence (CAT) - dust storms or sand storms - Volcanic ash They are unscheduled and valid for 4 hours unless they are issued for a hurricane which would make them valid for 6 hours
51
What is a convective Sigmet?
Convective Significant Meteorological Advisory Issued for thunderstorms with winds greater than 50 knots, hail at the surface greater than 3/4" in diameter, or tornados. Valid for 2 hours issued at 55 minutes past the hour
52
What is a Special Flight Permit used for and how do you get one?
21.197 Issued for aircraft that may not be airworthy but is capable of safe flight for the following purposes: 1. Flying to a point for maintenance or storage. 2. Delivering or exporting an aircraft 3. Production flight testing new aircraft 4. evacuating aircraft from impending danger 5. Customer demonstration flights Apply through local FSDO FAA mechanic Inspection must me made prior to flight
53
Describe AHRS
Attitude Heading Reference System - Attitude Indicator - Heading Indicator - Rate of Turn - Slip Skid Uses Gyroscopes, Accelerometers, and Magnetometers Magnetometer has a flux capacitor that measures magnetic lines of flux
54
Describe ADC
Air Data Computer - Airspeed - Altimeter - VSI - OAT converts pito static data into digital format
55
What guarantees clearance from obstacles when flying an ODP?
1. Cross departure end of runway at or above 35' AGL 2. Make first turn no earlier than 400' AGL (unless otherwise specified) 3. Maintain climb gradient of at least 200 fpnm (unless otherwise specified)