Autonomic Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

All preganglionic sympathetic neurons originate in the spinal cord from segments _____

A

T1 and L2

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2
Q

In the Parasympathetic Nervous System,
preganglionic neurons originate from the
brainstem and the sacral spinal cord and travel peripherally via

A

○ Cranial nerves III, VII, IX, and X
■ About 75% are in the Vagus Nerve
○ Pelvic splanchnic nerves

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3
Q

Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers travel a
relatively ____ distance before synapsing on the postganglionic neurons

A

long

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4
Q

Postganglionic neurons reside in ganglia and
plexuses located in the wall of the effector organ or in very close proximity to the tissue in which system?

A

Parasympathetic NS

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5
Q

Neurons that release _____ are called Cholinergic fibers

A

acetylcholine

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6
Q

Neurons that release norepinephrine are called _____

A

Adrenergic fibers

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7
Q

For both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, all
preganglionic neurons are _____

A

cholinergic

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8
Q

most of the postganglionic
sympathetic neurons are ____ fibers while most all of the postganglionic parasympathetic neurons are ____ fibers

A

adrenergic; cholinergic

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9
Q

In order for a neurotransmitter released from a postganglionic fiber to stimulate an effector organ, it must ____

A

bind to a specific receptor on the effector organ cells

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10
Q

Two types of cholinergic receptors

A

Muscarinic and Nicotinic

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11
Q

Nicotinic receptors are ligand-gated ion
channels found at the NMJ of skeletal
muscle, and all synapses of _____

A

preganglionic and postganglionic cells (all ANS)

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12
Q

Muscarinic receptors are found on effector
cells that are stimulated by _____

A

postganglionic cholinergic neurons (all parasympathetic, a few sympathetic fibers)

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13
Q

Five subtypes of cholinergic receptors

A

○ M1 - Muscarinic, sweat glands of the skin
○ M2 - Muscarinic, SA and AV nodes of the heart; involved in slowing of the heart rate and conduction.
○ M3 - Muscarinic, smooth muscles and glands of various organ systems; involved in pupil constriction, contraction of
bronchioles, increased GI motility, stimulation of glandular secretions, urethral sphincter relaxation, etc.
○ NN - Nicotinic (nerve type), located on postganglionic cells.
○ NM - Nicotinic (muscle type), located at neuromuscular junction

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14
Q

The only cholinoreceptor involved in sympathetic function is ___

A

M1

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15
Q

Two classes of Adrenergic receptors

A

Alpha receptors are of two types: Alpha-1 and Alpha-2.
Beta receptors are of three types: Beta-1, Beta-2, and Beta-3.

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16
Q

Alpha receptors

A

Both Alpha-1 and 2 are found throughout the body on many effector organs; Alpha-1 is especially prominent in blood vessels
and intestinal musculature

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17
Q

Beta receptors

A

While there is some overlap, we generally think of Beta-1 as primarily cardiac, Beta-2 primarily pulmonary, and Beta-3 as minimally involved (thermoregulation).
○ Beta-2 is also found in blood vessels, intestinal musculature, the uterus, etc

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18
Q

Norepinephrine vs. epinephrine effects on alpha and beta receptors

A

Norepinephrine excites both, but mainly alpha receptors; Epinephrine excites both adrenergic receptors equally

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19
Q

T/F Most organ systems are dominantly controlled by either the sympathetic or the parasympathetic system.

A

T

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20
Q

Cholinergic agonists - Direct acting

A

○ Bethanechol
○ Pilocarpine (Salagen, Isopto Carpine)
○ Nicotine
○ Varenicline (Chantix)

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21
Q

Cholinergic agonists - Choninesterase inhibitors

A

○ Pyridostigmine (Mestinon)
○ Donepezil (Aricept)

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22
Q

Cholinergic agonists are also known as ____

A

Cholinomimetics

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23
Q

MICSAF - Behanechol

A

MOA: Direct acting, muscarinic
Indication: Neurogenic ileus and urinary retention
Contraindication: Known GI or bladder obstruction, recent GI or bladder surgery,
Side effects: Depending on where the drug is acting, side effects can
include blurry vision, nausea/vomiting, diarrhea, salivation,
sweating, bradycardia, bronchial secretions, etc *for all CA’s

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24
Q

MICSAF - Pilocarpine (Salagen,
Isopto Carpine)

A

MOA: Direct acting, muscarinic
Indications: Glaucoma (eye drops) and Sjogren’s-related xerostomia (tabs)
Contraindications: Acute iritis (tabs and eye drops), angle-closure glaucoma (tabs)

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25
MICSAF - Nicotine
MOA: Direct acting, nicotinic Indications: Smoking cessation Contraindications: TMJ disorder (transmucosal), significant angina, recent MI Follow up: (pregnancy) Nicotine benefits outweigh risks (risk of fetal harm is not expected based on limited human data)
26
MICSAF - Varenicline (Chantix)
MOA: direct acting, nicotinic Indications: Smoking cessation Contraindication: Under the age of 18 years Follow up/monitoring: check creatinine at baseline. Watch for signs and symptoms of depression, agitation, behavior changes, and suicidality with varenicline
27
MICSAF - Pyridostigmine (Mestinon)
MOA: Cholinesterase inhibitors- Indirectly increase ACh receptor activation by inhibition of ACh breakdown in the synaptic cleft, NMJ Indications: Myasthenia gravis Contraindications: GI or GU tract obstructions Follow up/monitor: check creatinine at baseline
28
MICSAF - Donepezil (Aricept)
MOA: Cholinesterase inhibitors - Indirectly increase ACh receptor activation by inhibition of ACh breakdown in the synaptic cleft, CNS Indication: Alzheimer’s dementia Contraindication: Caution with GI and GU disorders or obstructions
29
Antimuscarinic Cholinergic Antagonists
○ Atropine ○ Ipratropium (Atrovent) ○ Tiotropium (Spiriva) ○ Oxybutynin (Ditropan) ○ Tolterodine (Detrol) ○ Tropicamide (Mydriacyl)
30
MICSAF - Succinylcholine
MOA: blocks transmission at the NMJ by agonizing the ACh receptor (antagonizing by agonizing). I: causes paralysis (neuromuscular blockade) C: Myopathy Monitor EKG, vitals, electrolytes, and neuro function when treating patients with succinylcholine
31
MICSAF - Atropine
MOA: antagonizing acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors I: Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia (ACLS drug) and as a neuromuscular blockade reversal agent. C: Atropine should be used with caution in those with CAD, recent MIs, arrhythmias, etc
32
Common side effects of Cholinergic antagonists
Constipation Urinary retention Blurred vision Flushing Dry mouth
33
Major adverse reactions of Cholinergic antagonists
○ Anticholinergic psychosis ○ Tachycardia ○ Severe anhidrosis ○ Heat stroke ○ Fever ○ Acute Angle-Closure Glaucoma
34
MICSAF - Ipratropium (Atrovent)
M: antagonizing acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors I: COPD maintenance treatment
35
Tiotropium (Spiriva)
M: antagonizing acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors I: COPD maintenance treatment C: acute bronchospasm
36
MICSAF - Oxybutynin (Ditropan)
M: antagonizing acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors I: overactive bladder C: Angle-closure glaucoma
37
MICSAF - Tolterodine (Detrol)
M: antagonizing acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors I: overactive bladder. C: Angle-closure glaucoma
38
MICSAF - Tropicamide (Mydriacyl)
M: antagonizing acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors I: to dilate pupils for some eye exams C: Angle-closure glaucoma
39
Anticholinergic side effects saying, monitor for these with all of the drugs!
Hot as a hare Dry as a bone Blind as a bat Red as a beet Mad as a hatter
40
The side effect profile of ipratropium and tiotropium are less because these are _____
inhaled and not systemically absorbed in large amounts
41
Ipratropium inhaled, tropicamide ophthalmic, and succinylcholine all appear to be _____
safe in pregnancy
42
MOA of all adrenergic agonists
agonize 𝛂 and/or β adrenergic receptors to some degree
43
At certain doses, ____ causes cardiac stimulation (β1) and increased blood pressure (𝛂1)
Dopamine
44
Direct acting Adrenergic agonists
○ Epinephrine ○ Dopamine ○ Dobutamine ○ Albuterol ○ Salmeterol (Serevent) ○ Phenylephrine (Neo-synephrine) ○ Oxymetazoline (Afrin)
45
Inderect acting and mixed adrenergic agonists
○ Amphetamine (Adderall) ○ Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed)
46
Centrally acting adrenergic agonists
Clonidine (Catapres)
47
Albuterol and Salmeterol are ____ agonists, causing ______.
β2; bronchodilation
48
Phenylephrine and Oxymetazoline both cause _____ (𝛂1) of some peripheral tissues, can increase blood pressure
vasoconstriction
49
Amphetamine indirectly agonizes adrenergic receptors by _____ release of norepinephrine, which is a general agonist (all 𝛂 and β)
increasing
50
Clonidine is a “centrally-acting” antihypertensive because it is an 𝛂2 agonist, resulting in ____ sympathetic outflow in general by decreasing NE and ACh release
decreased
51
Because of its broad adrenergic action, ____ is indicated for use in several ACLS arrhythmias, cardiac resuscitation, treatment of anaphylaxis, severe asthma, and septic shock
Epinephrine
52
____ and ____ are both for shock and heart failure
Dopamine and Dobutamine
53
Clonidine is indicated for treatment of ___
hypertension
54
Common side effects of adrenergic agonists
Tachycardia, palpitations, HTN, diaphoresis, tremor, nervousness, anxiety, restlessness, headache, nausea, vomiting, insomnia, etc
55
Because of its 𝛂2 mechanism of action, ____ can cause hypotension, bradycardia, dizziness, fatigue, somnolence, etc.
Clonidine
56
BBW of Adrenergic agonists
○ Dopamine - If extravasation occurs with IV administration, the area should be liberally infiltrated with saline with a hypodermic needle. ○ Salmeterol - Because it is a long-acting β2 agonist, is should not be used as asthma monotherapy; linked to asthma-related death. Also, can increase risk of asthma-related hospitalization in pediatric Pts. ○ Amphetamine - High abuse potential, may lead to drug dependence. ○ Clonidine - Should not be used for obstetrical-related pain as an epidural pain treatment
57
Those being treated with Epinephrine, Dopamine, and Dobutamine should be monitored with ____
EKG and vital signs
58
Those being treated with Amphetamine and Clonidine should be assessed for ____ at baseline,
cardiovascular risk, HR, and BP
59
Phenylephrine and Pseudoephedrine should not be used in _____
pregnancy, especially the first trimester
60
Adrenergic antagonists are commonly referred to as _____
Alpha Blockers and Beta Blockers
61
Alpha blockers
○ Doxazosin ○ Tamsulosin (Flomax)
62
Beta blockers
○ Nonselective: Propranolol ○ Selective β₁ (beta₁) blockers ■ Atenolol ■ Metoprolol (Toprol)
63
Mixed alpha and beta blockers
Carvedilol (Coreg)
64
Because Tamsulosin is selective to prostate and urinary 𝛂1-a receptors, it is indicated for _____
Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia and (*) Nephrolithiasis
65
Doxazosin causes general, peripheral 𝛂1 blockade and is indicated in _____
hypertension and BPH
66
Propranolol, Atenolol, Metoprolol, and Carvedilol are all indicated in _____
HTN, heart failure, and post-MI cardiovascular event prevention
67
Propranolol, Atenolol, Metoprolol, and Carvedilol are all contraindicated in ______
shock, decompensated heart failure, bradycardia, hypotension, AV heart blocks, significant asthma, and abrupt withdrawalC
68
Common side effects of adrenergic antagonists
○ Fatigue ○ Dizziness ○ Bradycardia ○ Hypotension ○ Weakness
69
Adverse reactions of adrenergic antagonists
○ Congestive heart failure ○ Cardiogenic shock ○ Bronchospasm ○ Heart blocks
70
BBW of Adrenergic antagonists
Propranolol, Atenolol and Metoprolol - All have the same BBW: Avoid abrupt cessation