Autonomic Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two main divisions of the ANS?

A

Sympathetic Nervous System (SNS) (“fight-or-flight”)
Parasympathetic Nervous System (PNS) (“rest-and-digest”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the function of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Controls involuntary bodily functions such as blood pressure, digestion, respiration, sweating, and body temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the role of the enteric nervous system?

A

A semi-independent division of the ANS that regulates the gastrointestinal tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does the baroreceptor reflex maintain blood pressure?

A

Baroreceptors (mechanoreceptors) detect changes in blood pressure and trigger compensatory autonomic responses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Where do sympathetic nerves originate?

A

Thoracolumbar (T1-L2) spinal segments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the neurotransmitter released by sympathetic postganglionic neurons?

A

Norepinephrine (NE), except in sweat glands (which release acetylcholine).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the function of the adrenal medulla in the SNS?

A

Releases 80% epinephrine and 20% norepinephrine into the bloodstream upon stimulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the rate-limiting enzyme in catecholamine synthesis?

A

Tyrosine hydroxylase converts tyrosine into L-DOPA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the IB4D acronym for sympathetic effects?

A

Increased Heart Rate
Bronchodilation
Dilation of Pupils
Decreased GI Motility & Secretions
Decreased Urination & Lacrimation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is norepinephrine action terminated?

A

Reuptake by Norepinephrine Transporter (NET)
Metabolism by COMT & MAO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the key adrenergic receptors and their functions?

A

α1: Vasoconstriction (Gq)
α2: Decreases NE release (Gi)
β1: Increases heart rate and contractility (Gs)
β2: Bronchodilation, vasodilation (Gs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where do parasympathetic nerves originate?

A

Craniosacral (CN III, VII, IX, X, and S2-S4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the primary neurotransmitter of the PNS?

A

Acetylcholine (ACh)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is acetylcholine synthesized and broken down?

A

Synthesized by choline acetyltransferase (ChAT)
Broken down by acetylcholinesterase (AChE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the SLUDD acronym for parasympathetic effects?

A

Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Digestion
Defecation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the types of cholinergic receptors?

A

Nicotinic (N1 & N2): Ionotropic, found in neuromuscular junctions and ganglia.
Muscarinic (M1-M5): Metabotropic, affecting organs.

17
Q

What are direct-acting sympathomimetic drugs?

A

Phenylephrine (α1-agonist), Albuterol (β2-agonist), Dobutamine (β1-agonist)

18
Q

What is the mechanism of indirect sympathomimetics like amphetamines?

A

Displace NE from vesicles, leading to increased NE in synapse.

19
Q

What is the function of MAO and COMT inhibitors?

A

Inhibit catecholamine breakdown, prolonging adrenergic effects.

20
Q

What are the key adrenergic antagonists (sympatholytics)?

A

Nonselective Beta-Blockers: Propranolol (β1 & β2)
Selective Beta-Blockers: Metoprolol (β1)
Alpha-Blockers: Prazosin (α1), Phentolamine (α1 & α2)

21
Q

Which drug blocks both alpha and beta receptors?

A

Labetalol & Carvedilol

22
Q

What are muscarinic agonists used for?

A

Pilocarpine & Cevimeline: Treat xerostomia
Bethanechol: Treats urinary retention
Carbachol: Treats glaucoma

23
Q

What are muscarinic antagonists (anticholinergics)?

A

Atropine: Increases HR, reduces secretions.
Scopolamine: Motion sickness.
Ipratropium: COPD treatment.

24
Q

What are acetylcholinesterase inhibitors used for?

A

Donepezil: Alzheimer’s
Neostigmine: Myasthenia gravis
Edrophonium: Myasthenia gravis diagnosis

25
Q

What is Horner’s syndrome?

A

Sympathetic denervation of the face
Symptoms: Ptosis, Miosis, Anhidrosis

26
Q

What is POTS (Postural Orthostatic Tachycardia Syndrome)?

A

Dysautonomia disorder characterized by excessive HR increase upon standing.

27
Q

What is Shy-Drager syndrome?

A

Multiple system atrophy (MSA) leading to autonomic failure.

28
Q

What is vasovagal syncope?

A

Excessive vagal stimulation causing fainting.

29
Q

What is Hirschsprung’s disease?

A

Lack of parasympathetic ganglia in colon, leading to severe constipation.

30
Q

Why is epinephrine used in anaphylaxis?

A

β2: Bronchodilation
α1: Vasoconstriction to counteract hypotension

31
Q

Why should beta-blockers be avoided in asthmatics?

A

They block β2 receptors, causing bronchoconstriction.

32
Q

What are the dangers of abrupt beta-blocker withdrawal?

A

Rebound hypertension & angina due to receptor upregulation.

33
Q

What drug is used to reverse neuromuscular blockade?

A

Neostigmine (AChE inhibitor)

34
Q

What type of autonomic drugs should be avoided together?

A

Beta-blockers + Verapamil (excess bradycardia)
MAOIs + Sympathomimetics (hypertensive crisis)

35
Q

What drug is best for orthostatic hypotension?

A

Midodrine (α1 agonist) to increase BP.