Autoimmune Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What is an Autoimmune disease?

A

an adaptive immune responses to self-antigens contribute to tissue damage

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2
Q

Give an overview selection of the adaptive immune lymphocytes

A
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3
Q

What is the outcome of too Rigorous or too Permissive Negative selection?

A

Too Rigorous

  • Low risk of autoimmunity
  • Poor repertoire pool
  • Increased susceptibility to infection

Too Permissive

  • Broad repertoire
  • Lower risk of infection
  • Higher risk of autoimmunity
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4
Q

What are the main Peripheral tolerance mechanisms?

(6)

A
  • Immunological hierarchy
    • CD4 T cell will not be activated unless antigen is presented in an ‘inflammatory’ context with TLR ligation
  • Antigen segregation
    • Physical barrier to sequestered antigen
  • Peripheral anergy
    • Weak signalling between APC/ CD4 T cell without co-stimulation causes T cells to become non-responsive
  • Regulatory T cells
    • CD25+FoxP3 positive T cells and other types of regulatory T cells actively suppress immune responses by cytokine and juxtacrine signalling
  • Cytokine deviation
    • Change in T cell phenotype Th1 to Th2 may reduce inflammation
  • Clonal exhaustion
    • Apoptosis post-activation by activation-induced cell death
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5
Q

What is the classification of Autoimmune Diseases?

(5)(3)

A

Organ-specific

  • Type 1 diabetes mellitus
  • Pemphigus, pemphigoid
  • Graves disease
  • Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
  • Autoimmune cytopenias: anaemia, thrombocytopenia

Multi-system

  • SLE: Systemic lupus erythematosis
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
  • Sjogrens syndrome
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6
Q

What is Type 2 hypersensitivity according to Gell and Coombes?

  • Criteria (3)
A
  • refers to diseases where an antibody is pathogenic
    • Disease can be transferred between experimental animals by infusion of serum, or during gestation to cause problems in fetus/ neonate
    • Removal of antibody by plasmapharesis is beneficial
    • A pathogenic antibody can be identified and characterised
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7
Q

What is Grave’s disease (autoimmune hyperthyroidism)

  • symptoms
A
  • It’s an antibody-mediated autoimmune disease
  • Symptoms of hyperthyroidism
    • (tachycardia, palpitations, tremor, anxiety, heat intolerance etc)
  • Goitre
  • Grave’s ophthalmopathy due to poorly-understood retro-orbital inflammation
  • Has all the characteristics of an antibody-mediated disease:
    • Neonatal hyperthyroidism if mother is affected
    • Serum transfers disease between experimental animals
    • Antibody detected and characterised
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8
Q

Explain the mechanism behind Graves thyroiditis

A
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9
Q

What is Myasthenia gravis?

  • symptoms
  • underlying mechanism
A
  • Muscle weakness and fatigability
  • Eyelids, facial muscles, chewing, talking and swallowing most often affected
  • Ptosis (drooping of the eyelids) at rest, becoming markedly worse after patient asked to close and open eyes repeatedly
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10
Q

What is Spontaneous Urticaria?

A
  • IgG FcεR1 antibody cross-links mast cell receptor causing degranulation, release of histamines –>
  • Manifests with hives and swelling
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11
Q

Give examples where non-pathogenic autoantibodies would be present?

  • what type of antibody is it
  • clinical relevance?
A
  • Tissue transglutaminase antibody (coeliac),
  • Islet cell antibody (diabetes),
  • Gastric parietal cell antibody (pernicious anaemia)
  • they can be useful for diagnosis
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12
Q

What is Typer 4 hypersensitivity according to Gell and Coombs?

  • criteria
A
  • Tissue damage is directly mediated by T cell-dependent mechanisms
    • T cells activate macrophages and other elements of innate immunity
    • CD8 T cells damage tissue directly
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13
Q

What is Hashimotos Thyroiditis (autoimmune hypothyroidism)?

A
  • T cell-mediated autoimmunity
  • the autoimmune destruction of thyroid
    • organ infiltrated by CD4 and CD8 T cells
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14
Q

AIRE gene

What is APCED- (Autoimmune polyglandular syndrome, candidiasis and ectodermal dystrophy)?

  • cause
  • aetiology
A
  • a rare monogenic autoimmune disorder
  • AIRE gene regulates ectopic expression of tissue-specific antigens in the thymus
  • AIRE mutations result in failure of negative selection
  • Strongly associated with organ-specific autoimmune diseases (type 1 diabetes, vitiligo, alopecia, autoimmune adrenal disease etc)
  • Candidiasis results from antibodies to IL-17 – this cytokine seems to be important in host defence against fungi at mucosal surfaces
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15
Q

What is DiGeorge syndrome?

  • cause
  • full phenotype effect
  • presentation
A
  • Failure migration 3th/ 4th branchial arches during embryogenesis
  • Microdeletions in chromosome 22 (not a pure monogenic disorder)
  • Full phenotype:
    • Absent parathyroids (low calcium –> tetany)
    • Cleft palate
    • Congenital heart defects
    • Thymic aplasia (low T cell no.–> immunodeficiency)
  • Variable presentation
    • May affect any of the above in isolation
    • Huge spectrum of immunodeficiency from mild-SCID-like
    • Autoimmunity is also common
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16
Q

What is IPEX (immune dysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, enteropathy, X-linked)

  • presentation
A
  • Exceedingly rare X Linked mutation affecting Forkhead p3 (FoxP3) gene
    • mainly found on the island of Sardinia
  • Abrogates production of CD4+CD25+FoxP3+ regulatory T cells
  • Key features:
    • Inflammatory bowel disease
    • Dermatitis
    • Organ-specific autoimmunity
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17
Q

Give an overview of the HLA System: Human Lymphocyte Antigen

(MHC)

  • role
  • genetics
  • nomenclature
A
  • APCs present processed peptide to T cells in combination with highly polymorphic MHC (HLA) molecules
  • Encoded by the HLA system on chromosome 6
    • Class I: A, B, C (presents to CD8 T cells)
    • Class II: DR, DP and DQ (presents to CD4 T cells)
  • the nomenclature used to describe the tissue type in an individual
    • Eg HLA B27=expresses serotype 27 at B locus of HLA class I
    • Eg HLA DR2=expresses serotype 2 at locus 2 of HLA class II
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18
Q

What is Coeliac disease?

  • aetiology
  • cause
  • presentation
A
  • A very common inflammatory disease of the small bowel with gastrointestinal and extra-gastrointestinal features
    • Up to 1% UK population affected
    • 30-50% of Europeans express HLA-DQ2 and/ or HLA-DQ8 – not clear which additional genetic
    • More common in women
    • Majority undiagnosed
  • Characteristics of an autoimmune disease, but unusually triggered by an exogenous antigen (gluten) in predisposed individuals
  • Main manifestations are malabsorption
    • loose stool, weight loss, vitamin deficiency, anaemia, poor growth in children
  • But can present with chronic fatigue, subfertility issues, constipation
19
Q

What is seen pathologically and genetically Coeliac disease?

A
  • Total small bowel villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia and lymphocyte infiltration in advanced disease
  • virtually all affected individuals express
    • HLA-DQ2
    • HLA-DQ8
    • or both
  • DQ = MHC class 2
20
Q

Explain how HLA causes coeliac disease

A
  • Dietary gliadin (wheat, rye and barley) is degraded by gut tissue transglutamine 2 enzyme during digestion to produce gliadin peptides
  • HLA DQ2/ 8 molecules can present these gliadin peptides to T cells if the appropriate T cell receptors are present
    • has to fit very tightly and this only occurs with the specific DQ2/8 HLA (and the right t cell receptor)
21
Q

Give an overview of Coeliac pathogenesis

A
  • The damage is mediated by T cells;
    • antibodies are produced, but do not contribute to tissue damage
  • Inflammation resolves with strict gluten avoidance
22
Q

How is infection linked with autoimmunity?

A
  • some infections linked with subsequent development of autoimmune disease
  • this could be due to Molecular mimicry
    • an epitope relevant to the pathogen are shared with host antigens
  • so the immune system produces antibodies against the pathogen epitope but also recognises the self-antigen
23
Q

Explain Molecular mimicry

A
  • Viral infection: presentation of viral peptides to a CD4 T cell via MHC 2, causing T cell activation
  • The viral peptides happen to be similar to a host-derived peptide; the T cell would normally recognise these peptides, but would not react to them
  • The activated T cell now reacts strongly to the self-peptide and initiates inflammation
  • The process depends on having the correct MHC molecules to present this critical epitope that is common to both virus and host (inherited)
  • Also depends on having the correct T cell to recognise it (mainly bad luck)
24
Q

What are examples of Molecular Mimicry?

  • disease- infection
A
  • Autoimmune haemolysis after Mycoplasma pneumoniae
    • _​_mycoplasma antigen has homology to ‘I’ antigen on red blood cells
    • IgM antibody to mycoplasma may cause transient haemolysis
  • Rheumatic fever after streptococcal infection
    • an inflammatory disease affecting the heart, joints, skin and brain
    • anti-streptococcal antibodies cross-react with connective tissue
25
What is Type 1 diabetes? - cause - presentation/effect - aetiology - treatment
* caused by autoimmune destruction of insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas * leads to a lack of insulin * Causes: polyuria, polydypsia, polyphagia and weight loss * Onset at any age, but typically childhood * Disease prevalence around 0.8%; rising by around 5% per anum * Treatment by injection of insulin and diet
26
What is the progression of type 1 diabetes?
* there is a genetic susceptibility * then an environmental trigger which results in autoantibodies INsulitis * by the time overt diabetes had developed over 90% of the pancreas has been destroyed * Pre-diabetic pancreatic biopsy can show infiltration of CD8 T cells against the beta cells
27
What are the Genetic factors of Type 1 diabetes?
* HLA Class II alleles are the major defined genetic risk factors * DR3 _or_ DR4 relative risk is 6 * DR3 _and_ DR4 relative risk is 15 * like in coeliac disease HLA molecules need to present relevant islet cell antigens to CD4 T cells * autoimmune response may occur if the appropriate T cell receptors are present, along with other genetic and environmental co-factors
28
What are the precipitating events before autoantibody insulitis occurs?
* autoantibodies to islet cell antigens are present month- yeas before the onset of clinical disease * the gap between the initiation of disease and its presents makes it difficult to identify the triggers * some evidence of **Coxsackie virus** * Stronger immune response to the virus in cases compared to controls * Viral infection can cause pancreatitis in mice and humans, and precipitate autoimmune diabetes in mouse models * Protein 2C from Coxsackie virus has homology with islet cell antigen glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD) (?molecular mimicry mechanism)
29
Where does Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) affect? - locations and symptoms
* Skin * Butterfly (‘lupine’ rash) * Photosensitivity * Hives * Serositis (inflammation of the serous membrane) * Pleurisy, pleural effusion * Pericarditis * Renal * Nephritis * Pulmonary fibrosis * Joint pain * Autoimmune cytopenias
30
What is Systemic Erythematosis (SLE)? - aetiology - cause/ common co- foundaries
* A true multi-system autoimmune disorder * Mostly women of reproductive age, rare in men * More common in people of Asian and African decent * Associated with the presence of anti-nuclear antibodies * a collection of antibodies that react with cell nuclei and cell division apparatus; * however, these don’t seem to directly cause disease and are probably an epi-phenomenon * Some elements of disease probably caused by immune complex deposition; * others may be explained by disordered apoptosis * Some patients have a deficiency of _classical complement components (C1, C4, C2)_
31
What is the link between Classical Complement deficiency and SLE?
* Immune complexes are cleared by phagocytes; process enhanced by phagocyte Fc receptors and C3b receptors * Deficiency of C1q/ C2/ C4 predispose to lupus, presumably because immune complexes cannot be cleared effectively
32
What are the 3 Broad methods of detecting autoantibodies?
* Indirect immunofluorescence * Solid-phase immunoassay * Direct immunofluorescence
33
How are antibodies in the blood detected through **Indirect immunofluorescence** (3)
* Incubate * Detect * Read
34
How is indirect immunofluorescence useful in Type 1 diabetes? - why is it important to identify them - critique of method?
* Important to identify type 1 DM as: * Risk of ketoacidosis * Requires insulin * Monongenic diabetes and type 2 diabetes require a different approach * Distinction between type 1/ type 2 and monogenic diabetes not as straightforward as once thought on clinical grounds * This method now being replaced by immunoassays for specific islet cell antigens (GAD, IA2, insulin)
35
How are antibodies in blood detected by Solid Phase Immunoassay - example - critique of the method
* ELISA test: Enzyme-linked peroxidase is the secondary antigen that binds to the antibody * substrate to the enzyme is added, the rate of colour formation is proportional to the amount of specific antibody present * washing has to be done between each stage to remove any unbound antibodies/enzymes - very labour intensive and need to be done as runs (so batches together) - being replaced by more automated methods - particle bead suspension
36
How are antibodies bound to tissue detected via **direct immunofluorescence** (3)
* Prepare tissue biopsy/slide * Detect Read
37
Give an example of when direct immunofluorescence would be used?
* In Bullous skin disease: _Pemphigoid_ * Thick-walled bullae, rarely on mucus membranes * Target antigen is at the dermo-epidermal junction which can be seen on fluorescence * In Bullous skin disease: _Pemphigus_ * Thin-walled bullae on skin and mucus membranes rupture easily * Target is the intercellular cement protein desmoglein 3 in superficial skin layers
38
What are the different type of Bullous Skin disease? - where do they present - what symptoms do they produce - severity?
* Pemphigoid * Thick-walled bullae, rarely on mucus membranes * linear deposition of antibody: activates complement _producing dehiscence and tense blisters_ * Target antigen is at the dermo-epidermal junction which can be seen on fluorescence * Pemphigus (more serious disease) * Thin-walled bullae on skin and mucus membranes rupture easily * more serious as it affects the mucous membranes which make nutrition and hydration difficult * large areas of open skin so high risk of infection dehydration and electrolyte abnormalities * Target is the intercellular cement protein desmoglein 3 in superficial skin layers
39
What factors are used to diagnose Coeliac disease?
* Subsequently target antigen found to be **tissue transglutaminase (tTG),** which is now expressed in recombinant systems to provide antigen for _modern immunoassays_ * HLA typing also increasing utilised – absence of HLA DQ-2/ 8 makes coeliac disease very unlikely (ie high negative predictive value)
40
What is Pernicious Anaemia? - how does it manifest itself (3)
* Vitamin B12 malabsorption in the _terminal ileum_ * caused by **autoimmune destruction** of **gastric parietal cells** resulting in lack of co-factor **intrinsic factor** which is needed for absorption * Manifests as * anaemia * neurological presentation * subfertility
41
Why is the treatment of Autoimmune diseases through managing the disease consequences preferable? - give examples (4)
* Immunosuppressive drugs are toxic * By the time the disease is overt, the damage may already have been done and immunosuppression may be unhelpful * Examples: * **Thyroxine** for an _under-active thyroid_ * **Carbimazole**, **surgery or drugs** for _thyrotoxicosis_ * **Insulin** for _diabetes_ * **B12** for _pernicious anaemia_
42
When is the treatment of Autoimmune diseases through drugs preferable? - give examples
* when it is a 'multi-system' AID - Systemic corticosteroids - Small molecule immunosuppressive drugs (eg methotrexate, azathioprine, ciclosporin)
43
What is Plasmapheresis - when is it indicated?
* Plasmapharesis removes antibodies from the bloodstream * useful in antibody-mediated diseases