Autoimmune and Demyelinating Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two ways in which we typically develop auto-antibodies in neurologic autoimmune disease?

A

Both are ways of exposing normally “hidden” epitopes

  1. Release of nervous system antigens into circulation
  2. Allowing immunologic cells access in to the nervous system which they don’t usually have
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2
Q

If auto-antibodies are present, is this always a cause of disease?

A

No. Oftentimes, autoantibodies are simply used as a marker of autoimmune disease, but may not be directly pathogenic. They should correlate with disease severity, however.

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3
Q

How are corticosteroids effective in myasthenia gravis? How should you give them?

A

In addition to having immunosuppressive activity, they are also thought to upregulate the synthesis of acetylcholine receptors.

Start low and go slow to avoid acute exacerbation

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4
Q

Is plasmapheresis highly selective for the antibody you want to remove? Why or why not?

A

No -> it is similar in principle to dialysis, and uses filtration by molecular weight. Many things other than antibodies are removed from the serum, and it’s fairly nonspecific

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5
Q

How does giving pooled IVIg thought to work?

A
  1. Suppressed endogenous antibody production by over-loading the system with antibodies
  2. Giving human IVIg is thought to add exogenous antibodies which can bind the idiotypes causing autoimmune disease (it is normal to produce anti-antibodies)
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6
Q

What are the Kock-Witebsky Postulates of autoimmune disease?

A
  1. Circulating antibodies are present and titers are related to disease activity
  2. Passive transfer of antibodies should reproduce all major pathogenic effects (reproduce in animal models)
  3. Immunization with putative antigen should produce the disease in healthy animals
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7
Q

What causes myasthenia gravis and what groups of people tend to get it?

A

Autoantibodies to acetylcholine receptors at the NMJ

Older men and younger women get it

Newborns can also get it via passive immunization by mother, but resolves quickly after birth

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8
Q

What is the pattern of muscle weakness and daily change in MG?

A

Eye muscles are usually affected first because they are constantly moving

Muscle weakness is worse as the day progresses -> due to ACh depletion

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9
Q

Give three tests which can be used in the bedside diagnosis of MG?

A
  1. Arm abduction time - patient holds arms out as long as possible, MG holds usually <2 min
  2. Edrophonium test
  3. Ice pack test - cooling inhibits AChE, will improve ptosis if present
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10
Q

How does the Edrophonium test work and what is the best way to measure response?

A

Response to edrophonium occurs in 30-60 seconds and subsides in 4-5 minutes. Make sure to have atropine incase dangerous bradycardia occurs.

Typically works better if patient has diplopia -> improvement of diplopia. Weakness improvement is subjective and nonspecific

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11
Q

What other antibody than anti-AChR commonly occurs in MG patients who are negative for that antibody?

A

anti-muscle specific tyrosine kinase (MuSK)

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12
Q

What finding is seen for repetitive stimulation EMG in MG and why?

A

Decrement of signal is >10% between 1st and 5th compound motor AP at 3 Hz

-> repeat stimulation causes depletion of ACh in neuromuscular junction (normal). Decreased AChR concentration (pathologic) leads to some muscles not firing, so that compound active potential is decremented over repeat stimulations.

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13
Q

What is the most sensitive EMG test for neuromuscular junction disease in general and how does it work?

A

Single fiber electromyography (SFEMG)

  • hook up electrodes to a single motor unit with two fibers coming from it.
  • healthy individuals will have a normal delay based on the distance apart between two motor fibers
  • diseased individuals will have varying delay times between firing of 1 & 2 because the response is unpredictable
  • > “jitter pattern” on EMG
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14
Q

Are anti-AChR antibodies common, and is there any genetic control over who gets MG?

A

Yes - anti-AChR happens in many elderly patients without any myasthenic disease

Genetic control is proprosed to some extent because anti-AChR antibodies are associated with several HLA types.

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15
Q

What two things are thought to induce anti-AChR antibodies?

A
  1. Thymoma - thymus has many similar antibodies to NMJ

2. Penicillamine

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16
Q

What drugs are first-line in the treatment of MG?

A
  1. Pyridostigimine - AChE which is a quaternary amine and does not cross BBB
  2. Prednisone +/- azathioprine, giving azathioprine to reduce required prednisone dosage
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17
Q

What surgical and hematologic treatments are useful for MG? When is the surgical treatment done?

A
  1. Thymectomy - done when thymoma is present or patient is <45 years (thymus antigens probably contributing, and it involutes in older patients)
  2. Plasmapheresis / IVIg
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18
Q

What causes Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome (LEMS) and what is usually associated?

A

anti-VGCC antibodies (presynaptic voltage gated calcium channels)

Usually associated with small cell lung cancer (paraneoplastic syndrome)

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19
Q

How do the clinical symptoms of LEMS (aside from EMG studies and reflexes) differ from MG?

A
  1. Bulbar and respiratory muscles are less frequently affected than MG, and gait is more affected
  2. Associated with more autonomic dysfunction (not purely neuromuscular ACh release that’s inhibited)
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20
Q

What autonomic dysfunction is common in LEMS?

A

Dry mouth, sexual impotence, and sometimes sphincter dysfunction

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21
Q

How is reflex activity different between MG and LEMS?

A

MG - reflexes unaffected since it only requires a single twitch and muscles won’t be tired

LEMS - more severely affected, because muscle use gets better after multiple twitches

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22
Q

What EMG finding is characteristic of LEMS? Whats the pathophys behind this?

A

Repetitive stimulation increments response by >25% after 10-15 seconds of maximal effort. >100% is diagnostic.

  • > repetitive contractions lead to more calcium sequestration in mitochondria and smooth ER -> calcium release from these is not dependent on VGCC, so contraction strength will be greater with more repetitive contractions as ACh release is increased
  • > Calcium eventually lost by mitochondria / SR at rest.
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23
Q

How does treatment of LEMS differ from MG?

A

LEMS - less responsive to pyridostigmine

Add: Fampridine (3,4-diaminopyridine) -> enhances calcium entry by inhibiting K+ channels, prolonging repolarization
-> may be CNS-toxic and cause seizures

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24
Q

What is the most common subtype of Guillain-Barre snydrome? What nerve types are affected and where are they affected most?

A

Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (AIDP)

Autoimmune destruction of peripheral myelin (Schwann cells) -> affects both sensory and motor nerves -> especially proximally / distally where the blood-nerve barrier is the weakest

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25
Q

What is the CSF finding in AIDP & why was this important?

A

Albuminocytologic dissociation -> elevated CSF protein with normal WBC count. Important because it differentiated from polio which had similar clinical findings but is associated with increased WBCs as well.

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26
Q

What type of paralysis does Guillain-Barre tend to cause and why?

A

Ascending paralysis -> longest nerves are affected first because they have the most places where they could lose myelin

Longest nerves in body go to legs and distal extremities, hence paralysis tends to be ascending. But it can occur anywhere.

27
Q

What is the treatment of choice for AIDP? Are there circulating antibodies which are pathogenic? Should you use prednisone?

A

Plasmapheresis and IVIg
-> Pathogenic circulating antibodies have never been demonstrated, but intraneural injection of patient serum has produced conduction block in rats

Note: Steroid therapy is NOT helpful?

28
Q

What is thought to underlie the development of AIDP / GBS?

A

Molecular mimicry post URI or gastroenteric illness
-> development of autoimmune response

Common associated pathogens: CMV, Campylobacter jejuni

29
Q

What is the prognosis for AIDP?

A

Although most patients are paralyzed by one month into the illness, prognosis is good.

  • > recover begins within 4 weeks after progression ceases
  • > 5% die, and small % remain disabled due to axonal damage from underlying inflammation
  • > most people have some degree of residual deficits due to imperfect myelin repair post-disease
30
Q

When should treatment not be initiated for AIDP, and what is most important in the recovery phase?

A

Should not be initiated 3 weeks after onset unless there is still clear progression of disease

Most important: respiratory support, as respiratory failure is most common cause of death in these patients.

31
Q

What is Fisher syndrome?

A

Unique variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome with predominant ophthalmoplegia

32
Q

What motor neuropathy closely resembles ALS but should be caught because it responds well to IVIg and has a much better prognosis?

A

Multifocal Motor Neuropathy with Conduction Block (MMN)

33
Q

How is MMN told apart from ALS and what antibody is associated? Does it respond to plasmapheresis?

A

MMN has no UMN symptoms, only lower motor neuron

Associated with anti-GM1 ganglioside antibodies

Responds well to IVIg but not plasmapheresis

34
Q

How does CIDP differ from AIDP?

A

Chronic course -> slower onset (>8 weeks), relapsing and remitting, usually with NO antecedal illness.

Treatment and symptoms are otherwise exactly the same.

35
Q

What paraneoplastic syndrome has been associated with the development of ataxia, and what antibodies are the culprit?

A

Paraneoplastic Cerebellar Degeneration

Antibodies against Purkinje cells of cerebellum
-> i.e. anti-Yo antibodies

36
Q

What cancers are associated with anti-Yo antibodies against the cerebellum?

A

Ovarian, uterine, and breast neoplasms
(gynecologic malignancies)
-> ay-Yo baby girl how u doin, you making me swoon and fall over (cerebellar ataxia)

37
Q

What paraneoplastic syndrome is associated with neuroblastoma in children and what are the symptoms?

A

Opsoclonus-Myoclonus

“Dancing eyes, dancing feet” -> multidirectional rapid eye movements with myoclonus

38
Q

What antibodies are isolated in paraneoplastic encephalitis and sensory neuronopathy?

A

Anti-Hu antibodies, especially in small cell lung cancer patients

39
Q

What is PANDAS and what is it associated with?

A

Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal infection

  • > analogous to Sydenham’s chorea following Strept infection
  • > Associated with child onset tic disorders and obsessive-compulsive disorder
40
Q

What is the clinical course of MS and what is the absolute requirement for definitive diagnosis?

A

Extremely variable, although the classic course is relapsing / remitting

Absolute requirement: Multiple lesions (demyelination) in time and space -> produces different deficits at different times as various areas of the brain are demyelinated

41
Q

What explains the relapsing and remitting course of MS?

A

Area gets demyelinated -> active lesion causes acute neurologic deficits. When it is remyelinated, the remyelination is imperfect and there is a progressive loss of function from baseline. Overall, the disease waxes and wanes.

42
Q

What are the CSF findings in MS? What is seen on electrophoresis?

A

Increased protein (myelin basic protein) with high IgG levels. Can be mild pleocytosis during attack.

Oligoclonal bands are seen on electrophoresis -> antibodies in CNS / CSF

43
Q

How can MRI lead to a conduction block?

A

Loss of myelin by macrophages eating it = internodal segments become exposed

  • > internodal segments take time to upregulate calcium channels once myelin is lost
  • > until Na+ channels are made, saltatory conduction cannot occur
44
Q

What are Dawson’s fingers?

A

Areas of demyelination radiating from the periventricular area following blood vessels

45
Q

Where does demyelination typically occur in MS? What can thin out?

A

Typically periventricular plaques

Overtime, demyelination in corpus callosum can lead to inflammatory damage and axonal loss -> gradual thinning of corpus callosum

46
Q

What is Charcot’s triad of MS?

A

SIN
S - scanning speech (pauses between words)
I - intention tremor, incontinence (neurogenic bladder), internuclear ophthalmoplegia
N - nystagmus

47
Q

What are the possible optic manifestations of MS?

A

Optic neuritis -> can cause vision loss (Marcus Gunn pupil / RAPD)
Diplopia -> usually due to internuclear opthalmoplegia

48
Q

What are the sensory and motor systems which can occur in MS?

A

Hemisensory symptoms and hemiparesis can occur randomly due to CNS demyelination. May include paresthesias.

Also, neurogenic bladder (loss of cortical inhibition of pontine micturition center leads to neurogenic detrussor overactivity)

49
Q

Who tends to get MS?

A

Especially Caucasian women in their 20s-30s.

There is some degree of genetic predisposition probably through HLA

50
Q

How does location affect your susceptibility to MS?

A

More common farther from the equator (temperate climates)
-> depends on your geographic location prior to age 15. I.e. no increased susceptibility if you lived near equator until 15 then moved to Canada.

51
Q

Are antibodies involved in the pathogenesis of MS?

A

No specific circulating antibodies have been identified, despite intrathecal antibodies (oligoclonal bands) being present.

Disease is also not particular responsive to immunosuppressive therapy

52
Q

What is the role of methylprednisolone in MS?

A

Used to SHORTEN acute exacerbations

-> has no affect on disease progression, or SEVERITY of exacerbation, just length.

53
Q

What was the first disease modifying medication in MS and how does it work?

A

Beta-interferon, thought to interfere with actions of IFN-y, which provokes exacerbations

54
Q

What is the disease modifying medication in MS which is an analog of myelin basic protein which distracts the immune system?

A

Glatiramer

55
Q

What is mitoxantrone’s mechanism and why is it rarely used anymore?

A

Antibiotic-class antineoplastic

Rarely used now because it is cardiotoxic

56
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Natalizumab?

A

Anti-alpha4-integrin

-> blocks the WBC adhesion to vascular endothelium and thus tissue migration of WBCs

57
Q

What is the feared side effect of Natalizumab?

A

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) -> another demyelinating disease due to reactivation of latent JC virus

-> occurs because WBCs cannot migrate into brain to keep infection suppressed

58
Q

What testing must be done before natalizumab can be used? Who is at highest risk?

A

Always test for anti-JC virus antibodies.

Highest risk are patients who are positive for these antibodies and have used prior immunosuppressants.

Increased risk of PML with longterm use

59
Q

What is finglomid?

A

Oral medication, prevents lymphocytes from exixiting lymph nodes
-> MS medication

60
Q

What drug is used in MS and has the same mechanism of action as Leflunomide? What mechanism is this?

A

Teriflunomide

  • > inhibits dihydroorotate dehydrogenase which is needed for de novo pyrimidine synthesis
  • > required by actively divindg lymphocytes
61
Q

What is dimethyl fumarate?

A

MS drug, reduces exacerbation, probably through interfering with B cells

62
Q

What is the new IV medication for treatment of MS which is a large step following natalizumab? What other drug is it similar to?

A

Ocrelizumab

  • > the ogre (ocrelizumab)
  • > anti-CD20, so it is active against B cells, causing antibdoy-depending cellular cytolysis

-> like rituximab, but more humanized so fewer serum sickness reactions

63
Q

What is neuromyelitis optica?

A

A severe inflammatory demyelinating disease selectively affecting optic nerves and spinal cord
-> considered a severe variant of MS

64
Q

What antibodies are associated with neuromyelitis optica? What is the treatment?

A

IgG antibody against aquaporin-4 water channel in astrocyte foot processes

-> Treatments: plasmapheresis, rituximab