Autoflight Flashcards

1
Q

1) During an autolanding, thrust is automatically reduced to idle: [8.40.10]
A. Between 50 and 25 feet RA.
B. 100 feet RA.
C. Manually, when the runway environment is in sight.
D. Touchdown.

A

A. Between 50 and 25 feet RA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2) For automatic landings with crosswinds requiring a crab angle of between 5 and 10
degrees, runway alignment occurs: [8.40.10]
A. There is no automatic runway alignment unless crab angle exceeds 10
degrees.
B. 100 feet RA.
C. 200 feet AGL.
D. Initially at 500 feet AGL with a second alignment at 200 feet AGL.

A

D. Initially at 500 feet AGL with a second alignment at 200 feet AGL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3) Pulling the autopilot disengage bar on the MCP down: [8.40.20]
A. Disables bank angle envelope protection.
B. Generates EICAS message “AUTOPILOT DISC”.
C. Illuminates the Master Warning light and sounds the aural warning.
D. All the above.

A

D. All the above.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

4) When the autothrottles are manually or automatically disconnected: [8.40.10]
A. The Master Warning lights illuminate and the Warning Aural sounds.
B. A Caution Beeper aural sounds.
C. The EICAS caution message AUTOTHROTTLE DISC is displayed
D. Both B and C are correct

A

D. Both B and C are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

5) The Approach (APP) switch: [8.40.20]
A. When pushed, displays LOC or FAC and G/S or G/P in white (armed) prior to
capture.
B. Is used only for ILS approaches.
C. When pushed, the glideslope will capture when the intercept track is within 80
degrees of the localizer, even if localizer is not captured.
D. Both A and C.

A

A. When pushed, displays LOC or FAC and G/S or G/P in white (armed) prior to
capture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

6) Using altitude intervention during climb or descent: [8.40.20]
A. Deletes the next waypoint altitude constraint with each push of the button
if that constraint lies between the airplane altitude and the MCP altitude.
B. Never changes the FMC Cruise Altitude window value.
C. Always changes the FMC cruise altitude to the altitude window value.
D. Both A and B.

A

A. Deletes the next waypoint altitude constraint with each push of the button
if that constraint lies between the airplane altitude and the MCP altitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

7) The Bank Limit Selector has no effect when the roll mode is LNAV. [8.40.20]

A. True.
B. False.

A

A. True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

8) LNAV engages: [8.40.20]
A. If armed, engages on takeoff if the airplane is above 50 feet and is within 2.5
miles of an active leg.
B. On a missed approach, engages automatically at 50 feet with flight director
only, or 200 feet with the autopilot engaged.
C. Displays LNAV (in green) on the PFD and HUD roll FMA when engaged.
D. All the above.

A

D. All the above.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

9) Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot may be disengaged using
force applied to the control wheel or the rudder pedals: [8.40.10]
A. True.
B. False.

A

B. False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

10) A display of LAND 3 on the AFDS status annunciation indicates that the autopilot
system level of redundancy is such that a single fault cannot prevent the autopilot
system from making an automatic landing. [8.40.10]
A. True.
B. False.

A

A. True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

11) The autothrottles disconnect automatically: [8.40.10]
A. If a fault in the engaged autothrottle mode is detected.
B. When either reverse thrust lever is stowed from the idle detent.
C. If the thrust levers are overridden during a manual landing, after the
autothrottle has begun to retard the thrust levers to idle.
D. A and C are correct.

A

D. A and C are correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

12) In all cases, a green indication on the FMA indicates: [8.40.10]
A. The displayed mode is armed.
B. Only LNAV and/or VNAV can be armed.
C. The displayed mode is engaged.
D. None of the above.

A

C. The displayed mode is engaged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

13) With LOC and G/S armed, which of the following conditions must exist? [8.40.20]
A. Airplane intercept track angle must be within 80 degrees of localizer course for
G/S capture to occur.
B. The approach mode can be disarmed by selecting APP switch.
C. Airplane intercept track angle must be within 120 degrees of localizer course.
D. All the above.

A

D. All the above.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

14) During takeoff, pushing the TO/GA switches: [8.40.20]
A. Below 50 knots IAS, engages the A/T system in the THR REF mode.
B. Engages the A/T system in the SPD mode.
C. Above 80 knots IAS, disarms LNAV and/or VNAV if armed.
D. A and C are correct.

A

D. A and C are correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

15) An amber “AUTOPILOT” EICAS message accompanied by the Caution beeper
indicates? [8.40.30]
A. The autopilot is in a degraded mode.
B. The autopilot is in flight envelope protection mode.
C. The autopilot is disconnected.
D. A and B are correct.

A

D. A and B are correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

16) If the autothrottle system is not engaged by 50 knots on takeoff, it cannot be
engaged until above 400 feet. [8.40.20]
A. True.
B. False.

A

A. True.

17
Q

17) When an autopilot switch is selected ON, how many autopilots actually control the
airplane? [8.40.20]
A. All operating autopilots.
B. Either left or right depending on the A/P switch used to engage the system.
C. Any two: left and right, left and center, or right and center.
D. Always two, the Left and Right.

A

A. All operating autopilots.

18
Q

18) After LOC and G/S capture, and below 1500 feet, the LOC and G/S modes can only
be disengaged by: [8.40.20]
A. Disconnecting the autopilot and turning both Flight Directors off.
B. Pressing the APP Mode selector again.
C. Engaging TO/GA.
D. A and C are correct.

A

D. A and C are correct.

19
Q

19) Pushing the MCP FLCH switch displays the FMA ___ as the pitch mode. [8.40.10]
A. VNAV SPD
B. FLCH SPD
C. TO/GA
D. V/S

A

B. FLCH SPD

20
Q

20) When using FLCH, V/S, or FPA, the FMA pitch mode will change to when
the selected altitude is captured. [8.40.10]
A. VNAV ALT
B. VNAV PATH
C. ATT
D. ALT

A

D. ALT

21
Q

21) GLS approaches are flown in the ____ and _____ modes. [8.40.10]
A. LNAV, VNAV
B. FAC, G/P
C. LOC, G/S
D. B/CRS, G/S

A

B. FAC, G/P

22
Q

22) In flight, TO/GA is armed whenever the flaps are out of up, or at glideslope capture
and when armed displays TOGA in small white font. [8.40.10]
A. True.

A

B. False.

23
Q

23) Pushing either TO/GA switch twice during a go-around causes the autothrottles to:
[8.40.20]
A. Engage in speed (SPD) mode.
B. Engage in thrust (THR) mode for a 2000 fpm climb.
C. Engage in thrust reference (THR REF) mode for full go-around thrust.
D. Engage in hold (HOLD) mode.

A

C. Engage in thrust reference (THR REF) mode for full go-around thrust.

24
Q

24) Which statement(s) is true regarding windshear recovery guidance? [8.40.10]
A. Go-around is engaged by selecting a TOGA switch.
B. The AFDS windshear recovery guidance is provided by means of the normal
go-around pitch and roll modes.
C. The AFDS commands a pitch-up of 15 deg or slightly below the pitch limit,
whichever is lower.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.