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Aufio Flashcards

1
Q

What is mastitis?

A

Inflammation +/- infection of breast tissue

Commonly occurs in lactating and non-lactating women.

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2
Q

What are the common features of mastitis?

A
  • Painful breast
  • Fever
  • Malaise
  • Purulent nipple discharge
  • Red, tender, swollen breast areas
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3
Q

What is the most common cause of mastitis in lactating women?

A

Milk stasis → Staphylococcus aureus infection

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4
Q

What is the first-line antibiotic for managing mastitis in lactating women?

A

Flucloxacillin

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5
Q

What is a breast abscess?

A

Localized pus collection in the breast

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6
Q

What are the typical presentations of a breast abscess?

A
  • Painful, tender lump
  • +/- Fever
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7
Q

What is the recommended management for a breast abscess?

A
  • Urgent referral to breast surgeon for ultrasound-guided drainage
  • Continue breastfeeding or express milk
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8
Q

What are concerning features of nipple discharge?

A
  • Unilateral discharge
  • Single duct involved
  • Spontaneous discharge
  • Blood-stained/thin consistency
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9
Q

What is Paget’s disease of the nipple?

A

Eczematous red lesion that may indicate ductal or invasive carcinoma

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10
Q

What is the typical age range for the occurrence of breast cysts?

A

30–50 years

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11
Q

What is a fibroadenoma?

A

Common benign breast lump found in younger women (20–40 years)

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12
Q

What is the main risk factor for breast cancer?

A

Age

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13
Q

What are the types of breast cancer?

A
  • Non-Invasive: Carcinoma in situ
  • Invasive: Spread beyond breast
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14
Q

What are the referral criteria for suspected breast cancer?

A
  • Over 30 with unexplained lump (+/- pain)
  • Over 50 with unilateral nipple symptoms
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15
Q

What is the lifetime risk of breast cancer for BRCA1 mutation carriers?

A

65–85%

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16
Q

What are the two main types of contraception?

A
  • Natural Family Planning
  • Barrier Methods
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17
Q

What is the mechanism of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill (COCP)?

A

Inhibits ovulation

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18
Q

What are common side effects of COCP?

A
  • Nausea
  • Abdominal pain
  • Breast pain
  • Headaches
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19
Q

How long is the standard usage cycle for the COCP?

A

3 weeks on, 1 week off

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20
Q

What is the starting protocol for the COCP if started on days 1–5 of the cycle?

A

No extra protection needed

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21
Q

What is the mechanism of the Progesterone-Only Pill (POP)?

A

Thickens cervical mucus, inhibits ovulation

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22
Q

What is the duration of effectiveness for the implant contraception Nexplanon?

A

3 years

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23
Q

What are the two types of intrauterine devices (IUDs)?

A
  • Hormonal Coil (IUS)
  • Copper Coil (IUD)
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24
Q

What is the definition of primary infertility?

A

No prior conception

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25
Q

What are common causes of infertility in women?

A
  • Ovulatory Disorders
  • Tubal Damage
  • Uterine/Peritoneal Causes
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26
Q

What is gestational diabetes?

A

New hyperglycemia in pregnancy that resolves post-birth

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27
Q

What dietary advice is recommended for managing gestational diabetes?

A

Low GI foods

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28
Q

What is the definition of menopause?

A

12 months amenorrhea

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29
Q

What are common symptoms of menopause?

A
  • Hot flushes
  • Vaginal dryness
  • Mood swings
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30
Q

What is the key management for Type 1 diabetes?

A

Immediate insulin replacement

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31
Q

What are the risk factors for Type 2 diabetes?

A
  • Family history
  • Ethnicity
  • Obesity
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32
Q

What is the fasting glucose level that indicates diabetes?

A

≥ 7 mmol/L

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33
Q

What is the genetic inheritance pattern of ODY (Monogenic Diabetes)?

A

Autosomal dominant

Younger onset

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34
Q

Define Gestational Diabetes.

A

Hyperglycemia in pregnancy, typically resolves postpartum.

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35
Q

What is Secondary Diabetes?

A

Due to drugs (e.g., steroids) or conditions (e.g., pancreatitis, acromegaly).

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36
Q

List the risk factors for Type 2 Diabetes.

A
  • Family history
  • Ethnicity: Asian, African, Afro-Caribbean
  • Obesity, inactivity
  • High glycemic index/low fiber diet
  • Gestational diabetes, PCOS
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37
Q

What are the key numbers to remember for the diagnosis of diabetes?

A

7, 11.1, 48

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38
Q

What is the fasting glucose threshold for diabetes diagnosis?

A

≥ 7 mmol/L

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39
Q

What is the random/OGTT glucose threshold for diabetes diagnosis?

A

≥ 11.1 mmol/L

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40
Q

What is the HbA1c threshold for diabetes diagnosis?

A

≥ 48 mmol/mol

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41
Q

What is required for the diagnosis of diabetes in asymptomatic patients?

A

2 positive results

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42
Q

What are the criteria for pre-diabetes?

A
  • IFG (Impaired Fasting Glucose): 6.1-7 mmol/L
  • IGT (Impaired Glucose Tolerance): 7.8-11.1 mmol/L (post-OGTT)
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43
Q

When should HbA1c not be used for diabetes diagnosis?

A
  • Children
  • Pregnancy
  • <2 months postpartum
  • Acute symptoms <2 months
  • Acute illness, steroids, pancreatic damage, HIV infection
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44
Q

What is the management strategy for Type 2 Diabetes according to NICE CKS?

A

Education, foot care, lifestyle changes, medication

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45
Q

What is the first-line medication for Type 2 Diabetes?

A

Metformin

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46
Q

What are the options for dual therapy in Type 2 Diabetes management?

A
  • Metformin + DPP4 inhibitor (e.g., Sitagliptin)
  • Metformin + Sulfonylurea (e.g., Gliclazide)
  • Metformin + Pioglitazone
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47
Q

What is the target HbA1c for lifestyle/diet control?

A

≤ 48 mmol/mol

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48
Q

What are the side effects of Metformin?

A
  • GI upset
  • Lactic acidosis
  • B12 deficiency
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49
Q

What are common examples of Sulfonylureas?

A
  • Gliclazide
  • Glibenclamide
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50
Q

What is a key feature of Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)?

A

Common in children

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51
Q

What is a characteristic of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma?

A

Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells

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52
Q

What symptoms are associated with Hyperthyroidism?

A
  • Weight loss
  • Anxiety
  • Tremors
  • Tachycardia
  • Heat intolerance
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53
Q

What is a common presentation of Multiple Myeloma?

A
  • Weight loss
  • Fever
  • Fatigue
  • Bone symptoms (e.g., back pain)
  • Renal impairment
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54
Q

What is the initial management for acne?

A

12-week topical treatment

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55
Q

What are the non-inflamed lesion types in acne?

A
  • Open comedones (blackheads)
  • Closed comedones (whiteheads)
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56
Q

What are the management options for moderate to severe acne?

A
  • Topical Adapalene + Benzoyl Peroxide
  • Topical Adapalene + Benzoyl Peroxide + Oral Antibiotic
  • Topical Tretinoin + Clindamycin
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57
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Metformin?

A

Decreases gluconeogenesis, increases glucose utilization.

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58
Q

What is the key feature of Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)?

A

Common in adults (especially elderly)

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59
Q

What are the common symptoms of Eczema?

A
  • Red, itchy, dry skin
  • Thickening (lichenification)
  • May become infected
60
Q

What triggers can exacerbate Eczema?

A
  • Irritants
  • Allergens
  • Infections
  • Temperature extremes
61
Q

What is the management for infected eczema?

A
  • Topical: Fusidic Acid (local)
  • Oral: Flucloxacillin (1st line) or Clarithromycin (penicillin allergy)
62
Q

What are the symptoms of Dyspepsia?

A
  • Pain
  • Reflux
  • Vomiting
  • Indigestion
  • Heartburn
63
Q

What is the first-line treatment for uninvestigated dyspepsia?

A

Full-dose PPI for 1 month

64
Q

What is the management for peptic ulcer disease?

A
  • Gastric Ulcer: Requires repeat endoscopy in 6–8 weeks to confirm healing
  • Duodenal Ulcer: Repeat H. pylori test only if symptoms persist
65
Q

What are the risk factors for peptic ulcer disease?

A
  • H. pylori infection
  • Medications: NSAIDs, steroids
66
Q

What is the first-line treatment for H. pylori infection?

A

mg BD or Metronidazole 400mg BD

BD refers to twice daily dosing.

67
Q

What are the second-line treatment options for H. pylori infection?

A

Levofloxacin, tetracycline

These are alternatives when first-line treatments fail.

68
Q

What is the long-term management strategy for peptic ulcers?

A

Lowest effective dose of PPI or H2RA

PRN antacid/alginates may also be used.

69
Q

What are the referral criteria for peptic ulcer disease?

A

Persistent symptoms despite treatment

70
Q

What are the types of peptic ulcers?

A
  • Gastric Ulcer
  • Duodenal Ulcer

Gastric ulcers require repeat endoscopy for healing confirmation.

71
Q

What are the risk factors for peptic ulcer disease?

A
  • H. pylori infection
  • Medications: NSAIDs, steroids, bisphosphonates
  • Smoking
  • Stress
72
Q

What are the potential complications of peptic ulcer disease?

A
  • Bleeding
  • Perforation
  • Obstruction
  • Malignancy
73
Q

What lifestyle changes are recommended for managing GORD?

A
  • Raise bed head
  • Weight loss
74
Q

What medications are used in the management of GORD?

A
  • PPIs
  • Antacids
75
Q

What is GORD?

A

Chronic acid reflux causing esophagitis

76
Q

What are the classic symptoms of GORD?

A
  • Heartburn
  • Regurgitation
77
Q

What are the atypical symptoms of GORD?

A
  • Chronic cough
  • Laryngitis/hoarse voice
  • Asthma
  • Chest pain
78
Q

What are the complications of GORD?

A
  • Esophagitis
  • Barrett’s esophagus
  • Esophageal strictures
  • Esophageal adenocarcinoma
79
Q

How is GORD diagnosed?

A

Clinical diagnosis based on symptoms; endoscopy for alarm features or unresponsive cases

80
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing non-erosive reflux?

A

24-Hour pH Monitoring

81
Q

What lifestyle advice is recommended for GORD management?

A
  • Avoid trigger foods
  • Weight loss
  • Raise head of bed
  • Smaller, frequent meals
  • Stop smoking
82
Q

What is the first step in medical management for GORD?

A

Full-dose PPI for 4–8 weeks

83
Q

What is Barrett’s esophagus?

A

Metaplasia: Squamous epithelium of the esophagus → columnar epithelium due to chronic reflux

84
Q

What are the risk factors for Barrett’s esophagus?

A
  • Chronic untreated GORD
  • Obesity
  • Male sex
  • Smoking
  • Family history
85
Q

What is the main complication associated with Barrett’s esophagus?

A

Increased risk of esophageal adenocarcinoma

86
Q

How is Barrett’s esophagus diagnosed?

A

Endoscopy confirms metaplasia and biopsies detect dysplasia

87
Q

What is the management strategy for Barrett’s esophagus?

A

GORD management with high-dose PPI and surveillance

88
Q

What are the causes of upper gastrointestinal bleeding?

A
  • Peptic Ulcer Disease
  • Esophageal Varices
  • Gastritis
  • Mallory-Weiss Tear
  • Malignancy
89
Q

What are the signs of upper gastrointestinal bleeding?

A
  • Hematemesis
  • Melena
  • Shock
90
Q

What is the initial management for upper gastrointestinal bleeding?

A

Initial Resuscitation: ABCDE Approach

91
Q

What is the Blatchford Score used for?

A

Pre-endoscopy risk stratification

92
Q

What is the Rockall Score used for?

A

Post-endoscopy assessment of rebleed/mortality risk

93
Q

What is the most common cause of lower gastrointestinal bleeding?

A

Diverticular Disease

94
Q

What are the symptoms of diverticulitis?

A
  • Left lower quadrant pain
  • Fever
  • Change in bowel habit
95
Q

What investigations are used for lower gastrointestinal bleeding?

A
  • FBC
  • U&Es
  • LFTs
  • Coagulation
  • Flexible Sigmoidoscopy/Colonoscopy
96
Q

What is the management for mild diverticulitis?

A

Oral antibiotics

97
Q

What characterizes Ulcerative Colitis?

A

Chronic inflammation of the colon and rectum affecting the mucosa and submucosa only

98
Q

What are the systemic symptoms of Ulcerative Colitis?

A
  • Fatigue
  • Fever
  • Weight loss
99
Q

What is the first-line treatment for inducing remission in Ulcerative Colitis?

A

Topical 5-ASA (Mesalazine)

100
Q

What is Crohn’s Disease?

A

Chronic inflammation of the entire GI tract from mouth to anus

101
Q

What are the complications of Crohn’s Disease?

A
  • Bowel obstruction
  • Perforation
  • Abscess formation
  • Fistulas
  • Malnutrition
102
Q

What is the definitive diagnosis for Coeliac Disease?

A

Duodenal biopsy showing villous atrophy

103
Q

What is the management for Coeliac Disease?

A

Strict gluten-free diet

104
Q

What are the symptoms of Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)?

A
  • Abdominal pain
  • Altered bowel habits
  • Bloating
  • Mucus in stool
105
Q

What is the clinical diagnosis criteria for IBS?

A

Rome IV Criteria

106
Q

What is Diverticulosis?

A

Presence of diverticula (pouches in colon wall)

107
Q

What are the symptoms of Diverticulitis?

A
  • Left lower quadrant pain
  • Fever
  • Change in bowel habit
108
Q

What is the most common cause of liver inflammation?

A

Viral infections, alcohol, drugs, autoimmune conditions

109
Q

What is the management for Hepatitis B?

A

Antivirals (e.g., Entecavir, Tenofovir)

110
Q

What is the most common cause of pancreatitis?

A

Gallstones

111
Q

What are the symptoms of pancreatitis?

A
  • Severe epigastric pain radiating to the back
  • Nausea and vomiting
112
Q

What is the management for acute pancreatitis?

A

IV fluids, analgesia, supportive care

113
Q

What is the definition of colorectal cancer?

A

Malignancy of the colon or rectum

114
Q

What are the risk factors for colorectal cancer?

A
  • Age >50 years
  • Family history
  • Genetic syndromes
  • Low fiber, high red/processed meat diet
  • Inflammatory Bowel Disease
115
Q

What is the primary treatment for localized colorectal cancer?

A

Surgical resection

116
Q

What is the primary mode of transmission for Hepatitis C?

A

Bloodborne

117
Q

What percentage of Hepatitis C cases become chronic?

A

> 80%

118
Q

Name a direct-acting antiviral used in the management of Hepatitis C.

A

Sofosbuvir

119
Q

Which virus does Hepatitis D require for coinfection?

A

Hepatitis B

120
Q

What is the primary mode of transmission for Hepatitis E?

A

Fecal-oral

121
Q

How is Hepatitis E characterized in pregnant women?

A

Self-limiting but severe

122
Q

What is the primary cause of Alcoholic Hepatitis?

A

Excess alcohol intake

123
Q

List three symptoms of Alcoholic Hepatitis.

A
  • Jaundice
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Ascites
124
Q

What is the general management for Alcoholic Hepatitis?

A
  • Abstinence
  • Supportive care
  • Steroids if severe
125
Q

What is the definition of Liver Cirrhosis?

A

Irreversible fibrosis and scarring of the liver

126
Q

List three causes of Liver Cirrhosis.

A
  • Chronic alcohol intake
  • Chronic viral hepatitis (B, C)
  • Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD)
127
Q

What are some symptoms of Liver Cirrhosis?

A
  • Fatigue
  • Weight loss
  • Jaundice
  • Ascites
  • Hepatomegaly
  • Splenomegaly
  • Gynecomastia
  • Spider naevi
  • Palmar erythema
128
Q

What is a major complication of Liver Cirrhosis?

A

Portal Hypertension

129
Q

What investigation findings suggest Liver Cirrhosis?

A
  • Raised ALT/AST
  • Low albumin
  • Raised bilirubin
130
Q

What management is recommended for patients with ascites due to Liver Cirrhosis?

A
  • Low sodium diet
  • Diuretics: Spironolactone ± Furosemide
  • Paracentesis for large ascites
131
Q

What is the progression of Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD)?

A

Simple Steatosis → Non-Alcoholic Steatohepatitis (NASH) → Cirrhosis → Hepatocellular Carcinoma

132
Q

What are common risk factors for Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD)?

A
  • Obesity
  • Type 2 Diabetes
  • Metabolic syndrome
  • Hyperlipidemia
133
Q

What is the definition of Cholelithiasis?

A

Stones in the gallbladder

134
Q

What are the components of Charcot’s Triad in Cholangitis?

A
  • Fever
  • RUQ pain
  • Jaundice
135
Q

What is the first-line imaging for gallstones?

A

Ultrasound

136
Q

What are common risk factors for Gallstone Disease?

A
  • Female
  • Forty
  • Fat
  • Fertile
137
Q

What is a key symptom of Pancreatic Cancer?

A

Painless jaundice

138
Q

List two risk factors for Pancreatic Cancer.

A
  • Smoking
  • Chronic pancreatitis
139
Q

What is the main cause of MRSA?

A

Staphylococcus aureus resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics

140
Q

What is the common presentation of Clostridium Difficile Infection?

A

Watery diarrhea

141
Q

What type of bacteria causes Tuberculosis?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

142
Q

What is the main cause of Bacterial Meningitis in neonates?

A

Group B Streptococcus

143
Q

What are common symptoms of Meningitis?

A
  • Fever
  • Headache
  • Photophobia
  • Nausea/vomiting
144
Q

What test is used to diagnose Latent TB?

A

Mantoux Test

145
Q

What is the treatment regimen for active Tuberculosis?

A

RIPE Therapy: Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol

146
Q

Fill in the blank: Allergy is the immune system’s adverse response to a _______.

A

substance (allergen)

147
Q

What is the difference between an allergy and intolerance?

A

Allergy: Adverse immune response; Intolerance: Non-immunological reaction

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