Auditing Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Auditor’s primary role?

A

To provide an impartial (independent) assesment of the reliability of managements financial statements.

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2
Q

In the U.S.A who issues Auditing standards applicable to audits of government entities?

A

US Government accountability office (GOA).

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3
Q

List some benefits of an audit to a private company (also known as a nonissuer).

A

1) More favorable cost of capital.
2) Insights into adequacy of internal controls.
3) Benchmark an entities performance with other similar entities.

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4
Q

In the U.S.A., who issues auditing standards applicable to audits of public companies (also known as issuers)?

A

Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB).

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5
Q

In the U.S.A., who issues auditing standards applicable to audits of private companies and other entities known as nonissuers?

A

AICPA’s auditing standards board.

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6
Q

Define “Generally Accepted Accounting Principles” (GAAP)

A

The standards by which the quality of the financial statements is judged.

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7
Q

Who is primarily responsible for the fairness of an entitie’s financial statements?

A

Management. The financial statements are the representation of management.

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8
Q

What is meant by Generally Accepted Auditing Standards (GAAS) under the clarified auditing standards?

A

The Statements on Auditing Standards issued by the AICPA’s Auditing Standards Board.

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9
Q

Identify the topics associated with each of the AICPA’s 7 principles for audit standard setting.

A

1) Purpose
2) Premise
3) Responsibilities
4) Reasonable assurance
5) Performance requirements to achieve reasonable assurance
6) Inherent limitations
7) Reporting

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10
Q

Identify the 4 primary themes associated with the AICPA’s 7 principles for audit standard setting.

A

1) Purpose/premise
2) Responsibilities
3) Performance
4) Reporting

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11
Q

Identify the topics associated with the three general standards formerly known as Generally Accepted Auditing Standards (GAAS), which are still applicable to the PCAOB’s auditing standards.

A

1) Training
2) Independence
3) Due professional care.

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12
Q

Identify the topics associated with the four reporting standards for Generally Accepted Auditing Standards (GAAS), which are still applicable to the PCAOB’s auditing standards.

A

1) GAAP
2) Consistency
3) Disclosure
4) Opinion

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13
Q

Identify the topics associated with the three field work standards formerly known as Generally Accepted Auditing Standards (GAAS), which are still applicable to the PCAOB’s auditing standards.

A

1) Planning and supervision
2) Internal control
3) Evidence

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14
Q

What type of professional requirement is indicated by the word should in AICPA professional standards?

A

Presumptively mandatory requirement.

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15
Q

What type of professional requirement is indicated by the word must in AICPA professional standards?

A

Unconditional requirement

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16
Q

What is meant by the term interpretive publications?

A

These consist of the appendices to the SASs, auditing interpretations of the SASs, the AICPA Audit and Accounting Guides, and AICPA auditing Statements of Position.

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17
Q

List the six elements of a quality control system.

A

1) Leadership responsibilities for quality within the firm
2) Relevant ethical requirements (especially independence)
3) Acceptance and continuance of client relationships
4) Human resources
5) Engagement performance
6) Monitoring

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18
Q

What is meant by the term engagement quality control review?

A

A process designed to provide an objective evaluation, before the report is released, of the significant judgments the engagement team made and the conclusions it reached. (Such a process is only for those audit engagements for which the firm has determined that an engagement quality control review is required, and is not applicable to all audits.)

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19
Q

Services for which a CPA firm is required to have a sytem of quality control.

A

Audits, attestation, compilation and review services. (Not applicable to tax or consulting services.)

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20
Q

Who is responsible for the administration of a quality control system?

A

May be vested in one person but everyone shares responsibility

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21
Q

List the two types of substantive audit procedures.

A

Analytical Procedures

Tests of details.

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22
Q

What are some considerations that must be given by the auditor during the planning phase of the audit?

A

1) Determine whether to accept or continue the audit engagement
2) Assess the risk of material misstatement
3) Evaluate requirements for staffing and supervision
4) Prepare the required written audit program (also called the “audit plan”).

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23
Q

List the two types of test of details

A

Tests of ending balances

Tests of transactions.

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24
Q

What considerations should be given by the auditor regarding internal controls prior to beginning an audit or performing substantive audit procedures?

A

1) Obtain the required understanding of the design of internal control for planning purposes.
2) Perform tests of controls to evaluate operating effectiveness of internal control if contemplating reliance on specific controls.

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25
Q

List the four basic steps in the audit process.

A

1) Planning
2) Internal Control Consideration
3) Substantive Audit Procedures
4) Reporting.

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26
Q

List the four types of opinions that an auditor may give on financial statements.

A

1) Unmodified
2) Qualified
3) Adverse
4) Disclaimer

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27
Q

List the reason(s) for which an entity may receive a qualified opinion

A

1) Misstatement, such as a GAAP departure (material, not pervasive effect)
2) Scope limitation (material, not pervasive effect)

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28
Q

List the reason(s) for which an entity may receive a disclaimer of opinion.

A

Scope limitation (material and pervasive effect).

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29
Q

List the reason(s) for which an entity may receive an adverse opinion.

A

Misstatement, such as a GAAP departure (material and pervasive effect).

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30
Q

Prior to the clarified auditing standards, how was an Unqualified Audit Report structured?

A

An unqualified audit report was presented in three paragraphs:

1) Introduction (three sentences),
2) Scope (five sentences), and
3) Opinion (one sentence).

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31
Q

How is an auditor’s unmodified audit report structured under the clarified auditing standards?

A

An unmodified auditor’s report is presented in 4 sections:

1) An introduction (1 sentence).
2) Management’s responsibility section (1 sentence).
3) Auditor’s responsibility section (3 paragraphs, consisting of 9 sentences).
4) Opinion (1 sentence).

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32
Q

What type of assurance is associated with a “review” of an entity’s financial statements?

A

Negative assurance, which is considered a moderate level of assurance.

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33
Q

To what services are Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services (SSARs) applicable?

A

Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services are applicable to reviews and compilations of the financial statements of private companies, that is, non-issuers.

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34
Q

What is a Compilation?

A

A compilation is an assembly of the financial records of a private company into a financial statement format without expressing any degree of assurance on the reliability of those financial statements.

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35
Q

What type of assurance is associated with an “audit” of an entity’s financial statements?

A

Positive assurance. Positive assurance is considered a high level of assurance.

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36
Q

What is meant by the term initial audit?

A

The prior year’s financial statements have been audited by a predecessor auditor.

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37
Q

What matters should be covered in the (successor) auditor’s inquiry of the predecessor auditor?

A

1) Facts related to management’s integrity;
2) Significant accounting or auditing disagreements;
3) Any communications with the audit committee (or others charged with governance) about fraud, illegal acts, and significant deficiencies in internal control matters; and
4) Predecessor’s understanding of the reason(s) for the client’s change in auditors

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38
Q

What is meant by the term preconditions for an audit?

A

The use by management of an acceptable financial reporting framework in the preparation of the financial statements and the agreement of management to the premise on which an audit is conducted.

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39
Q

Who initiates the communications between the predecessor auditor and successor auditor?

A

The successor auditor initiates the communication with the predecessor by requesting that the client authorize the predecessor auditor to allow the successor auditor to review the predecessor auditor’s working papers

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40
Q

What matters are typically addressed in an engagement letter?

A

1) The objective and scope of the audit;
2) The auditor’s responsibilities;
3) Management’s responsibilities;
4) A statement about the inherent limitations of an audit;
5) A statement identifying the applicable financial reporting framework;
6) Reference to the expected content of any reports to be issued; and
7) Other matters, as warranted (e.g., fees, etc.).

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41
Q

Identify factors relevant to establishing an overall audit strategy.

A

1) Identify characteristics of the engagement affecting its scope;
2) Identify the reporting objective of the engagement and required communications;
3) Consider the factors relevant to utilizing the audit team;
4) Consider the results of preliminary engagement planning activities; and
5) Determine the nature, timing, and extent of necessary resources for the engagement

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42
Q

What is the auditor’s basic audit planning responsibility?

A

The auditor should plan the audit (and design the required written audit program or plan) to be responsive to the auditor’s assessment of the risk of material misstatement

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43
Q

Identify some activities associated with pre-engagement activities.

A

1) Perform appropriate procedures to address the quality control issues associated with the acceptance/continuance of the audit engagement;
2) Evaluate the audit team’s compliance with relevant ethical requirements (especially independence issues); and
3) Establish an understanding in writing of the terms of the engagement.

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44
Q

Identify 3 planning-related issues that should be included in the auditor’s documentation.

A

1) The overall audit strategy;
2) The audit plan; and
3) Any significant changes made to the audit strategy or the audit plan during the engagement, along with the reasons for any such changes.

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45
Q

List the audit procedures that should occur during the planning phase of an audit.

A

1) Review client records
2) Inquire of client personnel
3) Coordinate client assistance
4) Determine if specialists are needed
5) Coordinate staffing requirements.

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46
Q

What is the difference between an overall audit strategy and an audit plan?

A

An audit strategy deals with higher level issues, such as allocating audit resources, whereas an audit plan is more detailed and deals more specifically with the nature, timing, and extent of audit procedures to be performed.

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47
Q

List several circumstances that impact the extent of planning activities.

A

1) Size and complexity of the entity
2) Auditor’s experience with that entity
3) Auditor’s understanding of the entity and its environment, including its internal control.

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48
Q

Prior auditing standards referred to planning stage materiality. What did the term planning stage materiality mean?

A

The size of the misstatements that the audit program was designed to detect.

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49
Q

What is the basic meaning of the concept of materiality?

A

An understanding of what is important.

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50
Q

What is meant by the term tolerable misstatement?

A

The application of performance materiality to a particular sampling procedure or application.

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51
Q

What 4 matters should be documented with respect to materiality considerations?

A

1) Materiality for the financial statements as a whole;
2) Materiality level(s) for applicable transactions, account balances, or disclosures;
3) Performance materiality; and
4) Any revision of those considerations during the audit engagement

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52
Q

The clarified auditing standards introduced the term performance materiality. What does that term mean?

A

The amount(s) set by the auditor at less than materiality for the financial statements as a whole to reduce to an appropriately low level the probability that the aggregate of uncorrected and undetected misstatements exceeds materiality for the financial statements as a whole

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53
Q

The terms planning stage materiality and evaluation stage materiality in prior auditing standards has been replaced by what single concept in the clarified auditing standards?

A

Performance materiality.

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54
Q

Prior auditing standards referred to evaluation stage materiality. What did the term evaluation stage materiality mean?

A

The determination of whether the financial statements were fairly stated in all material respects at the completion of field work.

55
Q

Define “control risk.”

A

The probability that a material misstatement, that occurred in the first place, would not be detected by applicable internal controls.

56
Q

Define “inherent risk.”

A

The probability that a material misstatement would occur in the particular audit area in the absence of any internal control policies and procedures.

57
Q

What risk is within the auditor’s control?

A

Detection risk.

58
Q

Define “detection risk.”

A

The probability that a material misstatement, that was not prevented or detected by internal control, was not detected by the auditor’s substantive audit procedures.

59
Q

Define “risk of material misstatement.”

A

The risk that the financial statements contain one or more material misstatements prior to the audit. (Note: RMM = IR x CR)

60
Q

What is the audit risk model that is applicable to classes of transactions or to account balances?

A

Audit Risk = inherent risk x control risk x detection risk.

61
Q

List the variables of planned audit procedures that can be adjusted to change detection risk.

A

1) Nature
2) Timing
3) Extent of substantive testing.

62
Q

Define “audit risk.”

A

The probability that the auditor fails to modify the opinion on financial statements that contain a material misstatement.

63
Q

List the four factors that affect the efficiency and effectiveness of analytical procedures for substantive purposes.

A

1) Nature of assertion;
2) Plausibility and predictability of relationship;
3) Availability and reliability of data;
4) Precision of expectation.

64
Q

What 3 purposes might analytical procedures serve?

A

1) Required during planning
2) May be used as substantive evidence (not required)
3) Required during final review.

65
Q

What matters must be documented in connection with analytical procedures?

A

1) The auditor’s expectation and the factors considered in developing it;
2) The results of the comparison of the recorded amounts (or ratios) with the expectations; and
3) Any additional auditing procedures performed to investigate significant differences identified by that comparison.

66
Q

Define “analytical procedures.”

A

Evaluations of financial information through analysis of plausible relationships among both financial and nonfinancial data.

67
Q

What is the purpose of analytical procedures in audit planning?

A

To aid in understanding client activities and in targeting risky areas where material misstatements are more likely to occur.

68
Q

What is the purpose of analytical procedures in the overall review?

A

To verify the conclusions reached in the audit.

69
Q

What is the definition of fraud that is relevant to the auditor?

A

An intentional act by one or more individuals among management, those charged with governance, employees, or third parties, involving the use of deception that results in a misstatement in the financial statements

70
Q

List the two types of financial-statement-related frauds

A

Fraudulent financial reporting (sometimes called cooking the books)
Misappropriation of assets (covering up theft by false journal entries).

71
Q

What are the three categories of fraud-related risk factors that should be considered by the auditor?

A

1) Incentives/Pressures (the motivation for committing fraud)
2) Opportunities (the ability to commit fraud)
3) Attitudes/Rationalizations (the justification or excuse for committing fraud).

72
Q

Identify the auditor’s responsibility for detecting fraud in a financial statement audit.

A

1) Auditors must design audit to provide reasonable assurance of detecting material misstatements whether due to fraud or error;
2) Auditors are required to specifically assess the risk of material misstatement due to fraud;
3) Auditors must document the assessment of the risk of material misstatement due to fraud and the resulting response(s) associated with any risk factors identified.

73
Q

What is the required form of the auditor’s communications about fraud-related issues?

A

May be either written or oral, but should be timely.

74
Q

Who should be informed when the auditor has identified fraud, but that fraud is not material and does not involve senior management?

A

The appropriate level of management should be notified (defined to be at least one level above the level where the fraud occurred).

75
Q

When might an auditor have a duty to inform others outside of the audited entity of fraud-related matters?

A

1) In response to a valid subpoena;
2) To comply with applicable legal and regulatory requirements;
3) To respond appropriately to successor auditor’s inquiries when the former client has given permission to the predecessor;
4) To report fraud to the applicable funding agency under the requirements of government auditing standards.

76
Q

What are the auditor’s responsibilities to communicate fraud identified by the auditor?

A

1) If the fraud is not material, the auditor should inform the appropriate level of management.
2) If the fraud is material (or if senior management is involved, even if not material), the auditor should inform those charged with governance

77
Q

Who should be informed when fraud has occurred that is material (whether or not senior management is involved in the fraud).

A

The auditor should inform those charged with governance

78
Q

What is meant by the term legal and regulatory framework?

A

Those laws and regulations to which an entity is subject; noncompliance may result in fines, litigation, or other consequences that may have a material effect on the financial statements.

79
Q

When might an auditor have a duty to inform others outside of the audited entity of illegal acts known to the auditor?

A

1) In response to a valid subpoena;
2) To comply with applicable legal and regulatory requirements;
3) To respond appropriately to successor auditor’s inquiries when the former client has given permission to the predecessor;
4) To report illegal acts to the applicable funding agency under the requirements of government auditing standards.

80
Q

What actions should an auditor consider when an illegal act has been detected?

A

1) Gather additional evidence to determine relevant facts;
2) Discuss the matter with the appropriate level of management;
3) Consider consulting with the entity’s attorney and/or relevant specialists;
4) Consider the implications to other audit areas.

81
Q

Identify 3 audit procedures might bring to the auditor’s attention noncompliance with laws and regulations that do not have a direct effect on the entity’s financial statements.

A

1) Inquiry of management and those charged with governance about noncompliance with applicable laws and regulations;
2) Inspection of correspondence with regulatory authorities;
3) Reading the minutes of meetings of those charged with governance.

82
Q

What is the auditor’s responsibility to detect illegal acts?

A

The auditor should design the audit to provide reasonable assurance of detecting illegal acts having a direct and material effect on the financial statements.

83
Q

What procedure can an auditor undertake to help detect illegal acts?

A

Make inquiries of management about the entity’s compliance with applicable laws.

84
Q

What matters should the auditor document with respect to the entity’s compliance with applicable laws and regulations?

A

1) The results of the discussion with management, those charged with governance, and others, as applicable;
2) Any identified or suspected noncompliance with applicable laws and regulations.

85
Q

What considerations should be made when an auditor is selecting a specialist?

A

The auditor should consider the specialist’s competence, capabilities, and objectivity (including professional credentials, reputation, and any relationship to the client).

86
Q

What reference to a specialist may an auditor make when expressing an unmodified opinion?

A

The auditor should NOT reference the specialist in an unmodified opinion.

87
Q

What reference to a specialist may an auditor make when expressing a modified opinion?

A

The auditor may reference the specialist, if that will facilitate the readers’ understanding of the reason(s) for the modified opinion.

88
Q

Define the term specialist.

A

An individual or organization possessing expertise in a field other than accounting or auditing, whose work in that field is used by the auditor to assist the auditor in obtaining sufficient appropriate audit evidence.

89
Q

List some examples of specialists.

A

Actuaries, appraisers, engineers, geologists, etc.

90
Q

Define what is meant by the term those charged with governance.

A

The person(s) or organization(s) with responsibility for overseeing the strategic direction of the entity and the obligations related to the accountability of the entity.

91
Q

What is the auditor’s basic responsibility regarding communication with those charged with governance?

A

The auditor must communicate those matters that are “significant” and relevant to the responsibilities of those charged with governance in overseeing the financial reporting process.

92
Q

What matters are the auditor required to communicate to those charged with governance?

A

1) The auditor’s responsibilities under GAAS
2) The planned scope and timing of the audit
3) Significant findings from the audit.

93
Q

Define what is meant by the term management.

A

The person(s) with executive responsibility for the conduct of the entity’s operations

94
Q

What is the purpose of performing a walkthrough?

A

Obtain some feedback as to whether the way the auditor has understood (and documented) the entity’s internal controls is consistent with the way the entity is actually processing such transactions

95
Q

List the advantages of narratives (memos) to document the auditor’s understanding of internal controls

A

1) Tailored to client;
2) Can be as detailed or as general as desired;
3) Easy to prepare;
4) Easy to read.

96
Q

List the disadvantages of Internal Control Questionnaires (ICQs) to document the auditor’s understanding of internal controls.

A

1) These are generic and not tailored to any client specifically;
2) Irrelevant questions may annoy clients;
3) Client might conceal deficiencies by incorrect answers.

97
Q

Identify 3 procedures an auditor might perform to obtain an understanding of internal controls?

A

1) Inquiry of appropriate personnel
2) Observation of client’s activities
3) Review entity’s documentation of internal controls.

98
Q

List the advantages of using flowcharts to document the auditor’s understanding of internal controls.

A

Systematic approach with emphasis on important accounting records
Tailored to client
Fairly easy for others to review and understand
Easy to update from year to year.

99
Q

Define transaction cycle.

A

A group of essentially homogeneous transactions, that is, transactions of the same basic type.

100
Q

List the advantages of Internal Control Questionnaires (ICQs) to document the auditor’s understanding of internal controls.

A

1) Can have a standard form for many clients;

2) Deficiencies are easily indicated by “no” answers.

101
Q

List the disadvantages of flowcharts to document the auditor’s understanding of internal controls.

A

1) Tedious and time consuming to initially prepare;

2) Might fail to recognize deficiencies by getting overly absorbed in details.

102
Q

List the disadvantages of narratives (memos) to document the auditor’s understanding of internal controls.

A

1) Writing such a memo is rather unstructured, lacking a systematic approach;
2) It may be rather easy to overlook relevant internal control issues

103
Q

Identify 3 ways auditors might document their understanding of internal controls?

A

1) Flowcharts of transaction cycles;
2) Internal control questionnaires;
3) Narrative write-ups (memos).

104
Q

When should the auditor assess the design effectiveness of internal control?

A

In planning every audit under GAAS, as a basis for determining the nature, timing, and extent of further audit procedures.

105
Q

Identify 2 reasons for assessing control risk at the maximum level.

A

1) The auditor believes that the design of internal control is ineffective; or
2) The auditor believes that reliance on internal control (and performing applicable tests of control) is not an efficient audit strategy compared to a wholly substantive audit approach.

106
Q

When should the auditor assess the operating effectiveness of internal control?

A

Whenever the auditor contemplates a reliance strategy (which means the same thing as “assessing control risk at less than the maximum level”) and only after performing the appropriate tests of control.

107
Q

When should the auditor assess the operating effectiveness of internal control?

A

Whenever the auditor contemplates a reliance strategy (which means the same thing as “assessing control risk at less than the maximum level”) and only after performing the appropriate tests of control.

108
Q

Identify 3 inherent limitations of internal controls?

A

1) Cost of controls should not exceed expected benefits
2) Mistakes may occur due to carelessness, fatigue, misjudgments, etc.
3) Segregation of duties may break down due to collusion or management override of internal controls.

109
Q

What is meant by the term risk assessment?

A

The policies and procedures involving the identification, prioritization, and analysis of relevant risks as a basis for managing those risks.

110
Q

Identify 3 risk assessment procedures that might be used by an auditor to obtain an understanding of the entity and its environment, including its internal control.

A

1) Inquiries of management and others;
2) Observation and inspection;
3) Analytical procedures.

111
Q

What are the three objectives of internal control as identified in the definition of internal control?

A

1) Reliability of financial reporting
2) Effectiveness and efficiency of operations
3) Compliance with applicable laws and regulations.

112
Q

Define the term risk assessment procedures.

A

Procedures performed to obtain an understanding of the entity and its environment, including its internal control.

113
Q

Identify the five interrelated components of internal controls.

A

1) Control Environment
2) Risk Assessment
3) Control Activities
4) Information and Communication systems
5) Monitoring.

114
Q

What is meant by the term control environment?

A

The policies and procedures that determine the overall control consciousness of the entity, sometimes called “the tone at the top.”

115
Q

What is meant by the term information and communication systems?

A

The policies and procedures related to the identification, capture, and exchange of information in a form and time frame that enable people to carry out their responsibilities.

116
Q

What is meant by the term monitoring (as it relates to internal controls)?

A

The policies and procedures involving the ongoing assessment of the efectiveness of internal control over time.

117
Q

What is meant by the term control activities?

A

The policies and procedures that help ensure that management directives are carried out especially those related to (1) segregation of duties, (2) physical controls, (3) authorization of transactions, (4) performance reviews, and (5) information processing.

118
Q

Define “internal control.”

A

A process - effected by those charged with governance, management, and other personnel - designed to provide reasonable assurance about the achievement of the entity’s objectives with regard to reliability of financial reporting, effectiveness and efficiency of operations, and compliance with applicable laws and regulations.

119
Q

What is the auditor’s responsibility for assessing the risk of material misstatement?

A

The auditor should identify and assess the risks of material misstatement (1) at the financial statement level and (2) at the relevant assertion level related to classes of transactions, account balances, and disclosures.

120
Q

List some examples of appropriate responses by the auditor to risks of material misstatement at the financial statement level.

A

1) Assign more experienced staff to the engagement;
2) Provide closer supervision;
3) Use specialists;
4) Use more unpredictable audit procedures.

121
Q

What specific matters should the auditor document regarding the auditor’s assessment of the risks of material misstatement?

A

1) The discussion with key members of the audit team about the risks of material fraud and errors;
2) The major elements of the understanding of the five components of internal control;
3) The assessment of the risks of material misstatement (at the financial statement and relevant assertion levels) and the basis for that assessment; and
4) The risks identified and the related controls the auditor evaluated.

122
Q

When must tests of control be performed?

A

When the auditor’s risk assessment includes an “expectation of the operating effectiveness of controls.” Note that this is frequently referred to as “relying” on internal control as a partial basis for the auditor’s conclusions, or “assessing control risk at less than the maximum level.”

123
Q

Define the term significant risks.

A

Risks that the auditor believes require special audit consideration.

124
Q

What is meant by the term deficiency in operation?

A

When a properly designed control does not operate as designed, or when the person performing the control does not have the authority or competence to effectively perform the control.

125
Q

Define “significant deficiency.”

A

A deficiency (or combination of deficiencies) in internal control that is less severe than a material weakness, yet important enough to merit attention by those charged with governance.

126
Q

Describe the auditor’s requirements for communicating deficiencies in an entity’s internal controls?

A

1) The auditor must communicate in writing the significant deficiencies (including material weaknesses) identified in the audit;
2) The auditor may choose to communicate lesser matters, too.

127
Q

Define material weakness.

A

A deficiency (or combination of deficiencies) in internal control such that there is a reasonable possibility that a material misstatement of the entity’s financial statements will not be prevented or detected and corrected on a timely basis.

128
Q

Describe the timing of the required communication of significant deficiencies in internal control.

A

Under AICPA professional standards, written communication is required no later than 60 days after the audit report release date (including matters communicated orally during the audit).

129
Q

What is meant by the term deficiency in design?

A

When a control necessary to meet the control objective is missing, or when the control objective is not always met, even if the control operates as designed.

130
Q

What are the two ways the external auditor might use the work of an internal audit function?

A

1) To obtain audit evidence; and

2) To provide direct assistance.

131
Q

When using the work of the internal audit function to obtain audit evidence, what three matters should the external auditor evaluate?

A

1) Objectivity—the internal audit function’s organizational status and the objectivity of the internal auditors;
2) Competence of the internal auditors; and
3) Whether the internal audit function applies a “systematic and disciplined approach, including quality control.”

132
Q

When using the internal audit function to provide direct assistance, what two matters should the external auditor evaluate?

A

1) Objectivity—the internal audit function’s organizational status and the objectivity of the internal auditors; and
2) Competence of the internal auditors.

133
Q

Why isn’t a “systematic and disciplined approach, including quality control” a relevant consideration when the external auditor uses an internal audit function to provide direct assistance?

A

Because the work performed by the internal audit function is subject to the external auditor’s direction, supervision, and review.