Audit test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Business process

A

he set of connected activities linked with each
other for the purpose of achieving one or more business objectives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Top-Down

A

Begins at the entity level with the organization’s objectives, and then identifies the key processes critical to the success of each of the organization’s objectives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Bottom-Up Approach

A

Begins by looking at all processes directly at the activity level, and then aggregates the identified processes across the organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Business processes/risks (Retail Store)

A

Customer selects goods - Pays for or promises to pay - customer accepts possession of goods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Responses to Risks

A

Accept
Avoid
Pursue - action take to accept risk in order to improve performance
Reduce - action taken to reduce risk, while still continuing current operations
Share - action taken to reduce risk by transferring some risk to another party

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Quality of audit

A

Competence and independence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Individual Objectivity

A

: an unbiased mental attitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Organizational Independence

A

: The freedom from conditions that threaten the ability of the internal audit function to carry out internal audit responsibilities free from interference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Due Professional Care

A

: The care and skill expected of a reasonably prudent and competent internal auditor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Integrity and Objectivity rule

A

In the performance of any professional
service, a member shall maintain objectivity
and integrity, shall be free of conflicts of
interest, and shall not knowingly
misrepresent facts or subordinate his or her
judgment to others.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Prohibited Business Relationship

A

The independence of a CPA is impaired if CPA performs a managerial or other significant role for an entity’s organization during the time period covered by an attest engagement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Risk management

A

Is a process conducted by management to understand and deal with uncertainties that could affect the ability to achieve its business objectives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Competence and capabilities

A

Experience & expertise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Professional Due Care

A

care and skill expected from an competent internal auditor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Professional Skepticism

A

Auditors take nothing for granted, they continuously question what they hear and see and critically assess audit evidence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

reasonable Assurance:

A

A level of assurance that is supported by GAAP procedures and judgements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Vouching

A

Tracking information backward from one document or record to a PREVIOUSLY prepared document or record or to a tangible resource.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Tracking

A

Tracking information FORWARD from one document, record, or tangible resource to a subsequently prepared document or record.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Analytical Procedures

A

Assessing information obtained during an engagement by comparing the information with expectations identified or developed by the Internal Auditor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Persuasiveness of Audit

A

Relevant, Reliable, Sufficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Relevant

A

does the evidence pertain to the audit objective? Does it logically support the internal auditor’s conclusion or advice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Sufficient

A

Has the internal auditor obtained enough evidence?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Reliable

A

Did the evidence come from a credible source? Did the Internal Auditor directly obtain the evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Persuasiveness of evidence

A

Competent-relevant, reliability
Sufficiency - Quantity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Reliability of Evidence

A

High - Documents prepared by internal Auditors. Documents sent directly from 3rd party. (Cutoff bank stmts)

Medium - Documents created by 3rd party, sent to organization, then sent to internal auditors. (Vendor invoices)

Low - Documents created by organization (written policy stmts, time cards)

26
Q

Inspection procedure

A

examine stuff

27
Q

Reperformance

A

Recalculation to confirm amounts are EXACT

28
Q

Confirmation

A

going to 3rd party to confirm account numbers

29
Q

Existence or occurrence

A

Going Backward to get to the beginning of the transaction.

30
Q

Rights and obligations

A

Company holds the rights to the assets, while liabilities are the obligations of the company

31
Q

Competness

A

Starting at the beginning and working forward to the end of the transaction.

32
Q

Valuation

A

The way in which a company gets depreciation expense or allowance for doubtful accounts

33
Q

Accuracy

A

The correct #s are on the financials

34
Q

presentation and disclosure

A

Accounts are classified in accordance to GAPP and financial stmt disclosures are complete, appropriate, and clear

35
Q

Authorization

A

all transactions are properly authorized

36
Q

SALES

Shipping document -> Sales Journal -> G/L

A

Completeness - all earned income was recorded

37
Q

SALES

Shipping document <- Sales Journal <- G/L

A

Existence - all recorded transactions are valid or earned

38
Q

PURCHASES

Receiving Report -> vendor invoice -> Purchases journal

A

Completeness - make sure all recieving reports have made it to the books

39
Q

PURCHASES

Receiving Report <- vendor invoice <- Purchases journal

A

Existence - To make sure all recorded purchases are valid

40
Q

Audit risk model

A

AR = IR * CR * DR

41
Q

Coso cube component’s

A

Control Environment, Risk Assessment, Control Activities, INFO/Communication, monitoring activities.

42
Q

Planning Audit Engagement

A
  1. determine objectives/scope
  2. understand auditee, including auditee objectives and assertions
    3.Identify and assess risks
    4.Identify key controls
    5.Evaluate adequacy of control design
  3. Create a test plan
  4. Develop a work program
  5. allocate resources to engagement
43
Q

Ask the organization’s outside legal counsel to provide info about any litigation claims, and/or assessments against the organization

A

Inquiry

44
Q

Compare a sample of check copies to support voucher packets to test the validity of the checks

A

Vouching

45
Q

Examine selected inventory items to determine their condition

A

Inspection

46
Q

Watch employees involved in executing and recording cash disbursement transactions to determine whether they are performing their assigned responsibilities

A

observation

47
Q

Track internal auditor test counts of inventory to the auditee’s inventory compilation records to verify that the counts are properly included in the compilation

A

tracking

48
Q

Recalc accumulated depreciation expense to verify that they were calculated correctly

A

Reperformance

49
Q

calc accounts payable turnover for the current year and preceding 2 periods as evidence of vendor payment periods

A

Analytical procedures

50
Q

Contact banks to ensure that the recorded account bank balances agree w their records

A

confirmation

51
Q

There are no unrecorded receivables

A

completeness

52
Q

Receivables have not been sold

A

rights+obligations

53
Q

There is adequate provision for uncollectible accounts

A

valuation

54
Q

All accounts in AR TB are expected to be collected within one year

A

disclosure/presentation

55
Q

Any agreement or condition that restricts the nature of trade receivables is known to be disclosed

A

disclosure/presentation

56
Q

All accounts on the list arose from the normal course of business and are not due from related parties

A

disclosure/presentation

57
Q

No sales transactions from the next period were recorded in the current period

A

Cutoff

58
Q

Total AR subsidiary accounts agree with the total in the AR TB

A

Accuracy

59
Q

There are no receivables that do not correspond w goods having been shipped

A

Existence

60
Q

All credit sales adhere to the credit policy

A

authorizations

61
Q

Documents for A/R-Sales

A

Shipping document (BOL) - Sales invoice - Sales journal

62
Q

Documents for Purchases/AR

A

Receiving report - Vendor invoice - Purchases Journal