Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CPA-AUDIT > Audit Reports > Flashcards

Audit Reports Flashcards

1
Q

What should be included for the Auditor’s address?

A

The City and State where located

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Management Responsible for in regards to the Financial Statements?

A

Preparation and Fair Presentation of Financial Statements in accordance with the Applicable Financial Reporting Framework

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Management Responsible for in regards to Internal Control?

A

Internal Control Design, Implementation, Maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the headings in the Audit Report for an Unmodified Opinion?

A

(TIM-AA) Title; Introduction; Management Responsibility; Auditor Responsibility; Audit Opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the headings in the Audit Report for an Modified Opinion?

A

(TIMA-BA) Title; Introduction; Management Responsibility; Auditor Responsibility; Basis for (Modified) Opinion; Audit Opinion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In an Unmodified Opinion with Emphasis-of-Matter / Other-Matter sections, what is the order of the headings?

A

(TIM-AA EMO) Title; Introduction; Management Responsibility; Auditor Responsibility; Audit Opinion; Emphasis-of-Matter; Other-Matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the requirements for referencing a Component Auditor in the Audit Report?

A

Component Financial Statements must be prepared using same Financial Reporting Framework as the Group Financial Statements; Component Auditor must have performed audit in accordance with GAAS or PCAOB Standards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What must the Group Engagement Partner do if they assume responsibility for the Component Auditor’s work?

A

Perform additional audit procedures; Be involved in Component Auditors work; Perform Risk Assessment procedures; Assess Risk of Material Misstatement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What standards govern SSARS engagements?

A

Compilations are governed by SSARS (Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which clients can have compilation engagements?

A

Non-SEC (non-public) registrants only.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a Compilation?

A

Accountant puts together financial statements with information PROVIDED BY MANAGEMENT. No opinion is expressed and no assurances are given. Independence is not required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What disclosures are required for Compilation engagements?

A

Disclosures not necessary must state that they are not included

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What standards govern Review engagements?

A

SSARS (Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of assurance is given in a Review engagement?

A

Reviews give limited assurance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What procedures are required for Review engagements?

A

Analytical procedures are required for reviews. Compare results to documented predictions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a Review engagement?

A

Financial statements are presented with no opinion expressed- and limited assurances are given. Independence is required for a review engagement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a Forecast?

A

A prospective financial statement that uses normal circumstances. General and limited use allowed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is a Projection?

A

A prospective financial statement using hypothetical situations. Only limited use by the client is allowed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the requirements for Agreed Upon Procedures?

A

Independence is required; Only limited use by the client is allowed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What disclosures are required for remote likelihood of losses?

A

No disclosure required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What disclosure is required for a probable loss contingency?

A

Accrue if estimable. Emphasis-of-Matter paragraph if not estimable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What disclosure is made if a loss contingency is reasonably possible?

A

Auditor assesses need for Emphasis-of-Matter paragraph based on loss likelihood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How is a gain contingency reported?

A

Gain contingencies are not reported.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does an immaterial GAAP issue affect the audit opinion?

A

It doesn’t. Opinion is Unmodified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How does a very material GAAP issue affect the Audit Report?

A

Modified-Adverse Opinion is issued. Emphasis-of-Matter paragraph is added after Opinion paragraph.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How do GAS standards compare to GAAS?

A

GAS is more strict than GAAS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is required under the Single Audit Act?

A

An audit performed under governmental auditing standards (GAS). A report on internal control is required. GAAS and GAS don’t require the I/C report.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is Audit Sampling?

A

Taking part of a population- subjecting it to audit procedures- projecting results to a population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the characteristics of Statistical Sampling?

A

Based on formulas

Helps find an appropriate audit sample

Helps evaluate evidence obtained

Helps evaluate results and quantify Sampling Risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the characteristics of Non-Statistical Sampling?

A

Based on human decision

Equally acceptable as Statistical Sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the characteristics of Substantive Tests?

A

Variables sampling

Probability proportionate to size sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What type of sampling are Control Tests?

A

Attribute Sampling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is Sampling Risk?

A

Risk that your sample isn’t representative of population

Can happen even if audit is done properly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the risk of assessing Control Risk too high?

A

A risk of Control Testing - Auditor works to make Control Risk lower

More substantive tests - Sample overstates Control Risk- Leads to an under-reliance on internal control- over-testing- and overall audit inefficiency

Audit ends up being effective (correct result)- but you do more work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the risk of assessing Control Risk too low?

A

A risk of Control Testing - Complement to Confidence Level
Inverse relationship to Sample Size

Higher accepted risk of assessing Control Risk too low = Smaller Sample

Lower accepted risk of assessing Control Risk too low = Larger Sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the risks if the auditor concludes controls are operating effectively based on the sample and Control Risk is set too low?

A

Leads to higher Detection Risk - Fewer substantive tests

Sample understates Control Risk

This error leads to over-reliance on internal control- under-testing- and overall audit ineffectiveness.

Does NOT necessarily mean that the Financial Statements are materially misstated - it does mean that if there is one- you are less likely to find it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the risk of Incorrect Acceptance?

A

A risk of Substantive Testing - Auditor accepts a balance as fairly stated- when in fact it is not fairly stated

Hurts audit effectiveness

Wrong conclusion reached

Efficient- but not effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the risk of Incorrect Rejection?

A

A risk of Substantive Testing - Auditor rejects balance as fairly stated when in fact it is fairly stated

Hurts audit efficiency

Wrong recommendations given

Effective- but not efficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is Non-Sampling Risk?

A

Risk of human (auditor) missing an error

Also called exception- error or deviation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How does Sampling Risk compare to Non-Sampling Risk?

A

Sampling Risk deals with the chance that your audit sample is flawed

Non-Sampling risk deals with the chance that your human decisions/conclusions are flawed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is Attribute Sampling?

A

Looking at Control Procedures - Were invoices approved when paid?

Errors are stated in terms of %- not dollar amounts

For example- 5 invoices out of 100 were not properly paid. Error rate is 5%

Hint: If you see Error Rate on the Exam- they are referring to Attribute Sampling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How do you determine if Control Procedures are operating properly or not operating properly?

A

Control Procedures are either operating properly or they are not operating properly - based on Error Rate and the tolerance you have for errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the Tolerable Rate?

A

Error rate in population that you are willing to accept/tolerate

Inverse relationship to Sample Size

Higher Tolerable Rate = Smaller Sample
Lower Tolerable Rate = Larger Sample

If you’re willing to accept a higher probability that errors exist- there is less pressure on the sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the Expected Population Error Rate?

A

What Error Rate are you expecting? - Judgment call- based on experience

Direct relationship to Sample Size

More errors = Larger Sample

Less errors = Smaller Sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the basic premise of Attribute Sampling?

A

Attribute in the sample gives information about the entire audit population

Used to estimate Internal Control error rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

For what is the Expected Population Deviation (error) Rate used?

A

Used to determine initial level of Control Risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the Allowable Risk of Over-reliance?

A

Risk of Assessing Control Risk too low

Gives you the Sampling Risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

When is Attribute sampling used?

A

Attribute sampling is only useful when there is documented evidence (an audit trail) to test

Use when the existence of an error needs to be verified or debunked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is Classic Variable Sampling?

A

Testing for a dollar amount

Value in sample gives information about value in entire population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What functions are used in conjunction with Classic Variable Sampling?

A

Mean Per Unit = Sample Average x Number in Population

Stratification - Decreases effect of variance in population and reduces sample size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the characteristics of Probability Proportionate to Size (PPS) sampling?

A

A form of Variable Sampling

Does NOT use Standard Deviation

Auditor focuses on a dollar amount

Larger or more valuable items get picked more often as part of the sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is Projected Misstatement?

A

Misstatement found in sample - have to project it to remainder of population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How does Probability Proportionate to Size (PPS) sampling compare to Classic Variables sampling?

A

PPS:

Easier to use- Results in a stratified (homogenous) sample- Results in a smaller sample size to audit- Easy to design

Classic Variables Sampling:

Easy to expand sample size- Selecting zero and negative balances easy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What factors affect sample size?

A

Tolerable rate for error - Inverse relationship with sample size

Risk of assessing Control Risk too low - Inverse relationship with sample size

Expected population error rate - Direct relationship with sample size

Population size does NOT affect the sample size - as population is larger- sample size doesn’t grow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the formula for Audit Sampling?

A

SER + ASR < TER

SER = Sample Error Rate

ASR = Allowance for Sampling Risk

TER = Tolerable Error Rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is Allowance for Sampling Risk?

A

The amount that you add to the Sampling Error Rate to get some cushion for your sample.

As high as you think the population error rate could go based on experience.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the Tolerable Error Rate?

A

The amount of error rate that you can accept - If population error rate is less than TER- then accept the Control as effective

If population error rate is more than TER- do more testing to get SER lower or conclude control isn’t effective. Do more substantive testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the steps to develop a sampling plan?

A

Determine Test Objective - for example- have sales shipments been billed?

Define Population and Deviation - take a sample of shipping document- trace forward to see if billed

Determine Sample Size based on tolerable rate for error- risk of assessing Control Risk too low- and expected population error rate.

Select Sampling Technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

After a Sampling Plan is developed- what are the steps in sampling?

A

Perform the Sampling Plan

Evaluate Results

Document Results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is Systematic Sampling?

A

Every certain # of a population is selected

Population needs to be randomly ordered

Primary advantage is that population doesn’t require pre-numbering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is Sequential Sampling?

A

Also called Stop or Go sampling

Each audit step determines the next step

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is Discovery Sampling?

A

Audit is testing an area that is so crucial that zero population errors can be tolerated

Any phony employees on payroll?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How does Block Sampling compare to other sampling methods?

A

Easy to implement- but is the worst method of sampling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What engagements are covered by the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct?

A

Covers all professional engagements and is the minimum standard of conduct

Member should additionally follow specific standards for a specific engagement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What must an accountant have under the AICPA Code of Professional Conduct?

A

Integrity
Objectivity
No Conflicts of Interest
No known misrepresentations of facts
No outsourcing of judgment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are threats and safeguards to independence?

A

Safeguards > Threats - Independence

Threats > Safeguards - No Independence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the threats to independence?

A

Self-Review (Auditing own work)

Advocate of the Client

Adverse Interest (Lawsuit against Client)

Too familiar with Client - could impair the appearance of Independence to public

Undue influence on Client - On Board of Directors- exception being an Honorary board position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the Safeguards to independence?

A

Offset the threats

Safeguards are created by Legislation (SOX)- Client (Audit Committee)- Accounting Firm (Policies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the characteristics of a Covered Member?

A

On the engagement team- have Significant influence on Audit- such as:

Reviewing Partner
Managing Partner in CPA Firm
Firm Personnel who does more than 10 hours of non-attest work (Income Taxes)
Partner sharing office with another Partner who oversees an engagement
Financial Interest in Client by Covered Member (Auditor on Engagement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the requirements for a Covered Member?

A

No direct financial interest

No Material indirect financial interest

Firm personnel who are not Covered Members cannot own more than 5% of stock

Covered Member’s immediate family cannot own more than 5% of stock or be employed in Key positions. If Covered member is aware of this- it will impair independence.

Cannot make management decisions.

All requirements apply during the period of the professional engagement- and as long as they are a client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What happens when a Covered Member disagrees with a Supervisor?

A

If Supervisor’s position is still GAAP/GAAS- defer to Supervisor

If Supervisor’s position is not GAAP/GAAS- report to higher levels of management

If management ignores you- consider leaving the firm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

When is independence required?

A

Audit

Review

Attestation Engagement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the requirements for Non-attest engagements?

A

Agreement must be in writing.
Independence not required - Must state if you are not independent

Applicable engagements: Consulting- Compilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which standards apply to consulting engagements?

A

Consulting engagements are covered by Statements on Standards for Consulting Services (SSCS)

Requirements: Competence- Due Care- Planning- Supervision- Obtain Sufficient Data- Must Serve Client Interest- Must have written or oral agreement- must communicate with client.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

List some common consulting engagements.

A

Advisory Services

Transaction Services

Management Consulting

Implementation Services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the rule concerning contingent fees for a covered member?

A

Not allowed if Member also performs services where independence is required

Commissions or referral fees for Covered Members are not allowed

Example - Audit firm gets a commission for recommending to Client that they implement a new A/P System…NOT Allowed

If a firm performing non-attest work doesn’t also perform Covered Member services (aka - Independence not
required)- then Firm can get a commission on referring products/services- but they must disclose to the Client

Tax Preparation - Payment according to refund amount is disallowed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

When are contingent fees allowed?

A

When fees are structured relative to judicial proceedings.

Example: IRS audit- or filing an amended tax return subject to tax case with a different taxpayer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How should recommendations and suggestions by a covered member to a client be handled?

A

Client must carry them out - covered member cannot perform management functions.

Client must assign someone of competence to oversee the non-attest engagement and CPA must be satisfied that this has occurred.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the requirements for Personal Financial Planning Engagements?

A

Must have definite objectives

Must have specific procedures planned

Must have a basis for recommendations

Must have recommendations communicated

Must have action steps to implement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

When is a GAAP departure appropriate?

A

Departure from GAAP is appropriate if GAAP would cause Financial Statements to be misleading- then it must be explained/disclosed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

When may a covered member disclose confidential information?

A

Member may disclose confidential info when client isn’t following GAAP

OR

If they receive a subpoena - CPAs are not Attorneys- so there is no CPA-Client privilege

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the effect of not returning all client-provided documents upon request?

A

This is an act discreditable.

You MUST return all documents the client gives you even if they don’t pay their bill.

If you create a document- however- like a work paper- you are not required to give the client a copy of papers you created if they haven’t paid their bill

They are the firm’s work papers- but are still confidential!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the rules with respect to CPA firm names?

A

CPA firm names must not be misleading.

If partner dies- remaining partner has two years to change name if partnership dissolved. If partner dies and more than one partner still remains (i.e. 1 dies and you still have 2 or more partners…you don’t need to change the name)

All Partners/Shareholders must be members of the AICPA in order to hold themselves out as members of the AICPA. Non-CPAs can be owners- but 2/3 of Ownership must be CPAs. Non-CPA owner must not be involved with the accounting- and is still bound by AICPA code of conduct- must maintain CPE requirements and have Bachelor’s degree.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the consequence of disclosing CPA exam material post-1996?

A

It is an Act Discreditable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What are the consequences for a CPA who commits an Act Discreditable?

A

Licenses are granted at the State level
If State revokes certificate- AICPA Ban
Felony Conviction- AICPA Ban
Prepares Fraudulent Tax Return- AICPA Ban
Intentionally failing to file return- AICPA Ban
SEC can get involved with discipline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the functions of the PCAOB?

A

Monitors CPA Firms who audit SEC clients - All SEC Audit firms must register

Issues standards for firms to follow - usually stricter than AICPA standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

When is independence impaired under PCAOB standards?

A

If Client pays a contingent fee (i.e. based on outcome)

With Marketing or Planning engagements

Aggressive Tax Strategies

Firm does tax work for Client employee involved with audit oversight or their
family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Who must approve non-audit work performed by a firm for a client?

A

Client Audit Committee must approve non-audit work performed by Firm

Firm must disclose any potential independence issues to Audit Committee

89
Q

Which organization is in charge of determining if federal funds are being misappropriated?

A

GAO - Government Accountability Office

90
Q

What rules must auditors follow for governmental audits?

A

Auditors must follow both GAAS and GAS aka the Yellow Book materiality threshold is usually lower
More detail is required on working papers
More stringent CPE rules and requirements - 24 hours of continuing education must be related to governmental auditing every 2 years
Compliance with Regulations is a requirement of the Audit Report

91
Q

Who created the International Auditing Standards?

A

The International Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (IAASB)

Member of the International Federation of Accountants (IFAC)

92
Q

For whom were IAASB International Auditing Standards created?

A

IAASB standards are for countries that don’t have their own standards and help set the tone for the rest of the members who do have their own standards (AICPA)

IAASB doesn’t override member standards

93
Q

What financial approach is used under IAASB audit standards?

A

IAASB standards are based on a risk assessment approach

94
Q

How do IAASB audit standards compare to US audit standards?

A

IAASB - No Internal Control audits

IAASB - No Referencing another Audit Firm

IAASB - Less detailed documentation

IAASB - Required: obtain written fraud assessment

IAASB - Required: location of auditor’s home office

95
Q

What are International Ethical Standards?

A

Standards set by International Ethics Standards Board for Accountants (IESBA)

Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants - Similar to AICPA Code of Professional Conduct

96
Q

Which groups are covered under the three sections of the International Ethical Standards?

A

A) Covers all accountants

B) Covers Public accountants

C) Covers accountants in a business environment

97
Q

What are the requirements for all accountants under the International Ethical Standards?

A

Accountants should have Integrity
Accountants should be Objective
Accountants should have Competence
Accountants should exercise Due Care
Accountants should maintain Confidentiality
Accountants should act Professionally

98
Q

What questions should public accountants pose to themselves under the International Ethical Standards?

A

What are the threats/safeguards?
Does this new client threaten our ethics?
What are the conflicts of interest?
What are the threats/safeguards for offering a second opinion?
What are the threats/safeguards for receiving commissions or contingent fees?
Is our marketing truthful?
What are the threats/safeguards for receiving client gifts?
What are the threats/safeguards to objectivity?

99
Q

If Internal Control is poor and a company’s accounting practices are sloppy - which risk is higher?

A

Control risk increases with poor Internal Controls and sloppy accounting practices.

100
Q

If Internal Control is poor - what is the effect on the audit?

A

Auditor will need to perform more testing and dig deeper into accounts in order to arrive at an opinion regarding the financial statements.

101
Q

What does Internal Control provide reasonable assurance for?

A

Internal control provides reasonable assurance that

Material misstatements will be prevented

Reliability/integrity of financial statements will be preserved

Assets are protected against misuse

102
Q

What is required in an examination of Internal Control under Sarbanes-Oxley?

A

CEO/CFO must disclose Internal Control deficiencies

Management must provide assessment of Internal Control

Management must certify Financial Statements

103
Q

What is the relationship between Internal Control and Substantive Testing?

A

Inverse Relationship

Stronger Internal Controls - Less Testing Needed

Weaker Internal Controls - More Testing Needed

104
Q

What are the 3 objectives of Internal Control?

A

Reliability of Financial Reporting

Operational Efficiency/Effectiveness

Compliance with Law and Regulations

105
Q

What are the 5 components of Internal Control?

A

Control Environment

Risk Assessment

Information and Communication

Monitoring

Control Activities

106
Q

What is the purpose for a Control Environment assessment?

A

Sets tone for the entire company

107
Q

What are the components of the Control Environment?

A

Integrity/Ethics of Management
Competence of Management
Organizational Structure
Human Resource Policies
Assignment of Authority/Responsibility
Management’s Style (riskier with a dominant/aggressive individual)
Board/Audit Committee involvement

108
Q

What does an auditor’s assessment of Detection Risk determine?

A

Detection Risk determines nature- timing- and extent of audit procedures.

109
Q

What determines the acceptable level of Detection Risk?

A

Risk of material misstatement determines acceptable level of Detection Risk

110
Q

What items could increase the risk of material misstatement?

A

Rapid growth in the company.

The methods management uses to identify risk- estimate its significance and assess the likelihood of occurrence

Major changes to operations- personnel- systems- IT- products- corporate organization- and foreign operations.

111
Q

What happens when Control Risk is assessed to be at the maximum level?

A

No Internal Control testing is performed.

All audit procedures are increased in intensity to compensate for increased risk.

112
Q

What happens when Control Risk is below the maximum level?

A

Auditor tests Internal Controls.

Auditor evaluates Control Risk based on tests

Auditor adjusts substantive tests accordingly

Weaker Internal Control - More substantive tests

Stronger Internal Control - Less substantive tests

113
Q

Describe some common examples of Control Activities.

A

Performance Reviews

Information Processing

Physical Controls

Segregation of Duties

114
Q

What should an auditor understand with respect to Information and Communication on an audit?

A

Understand Client’s

Major transaction classes
Transaction initiation
Support records/documents
Transaction processing
Financial Statement internal reporting process
Financial Statement external reporting process

115
Q

How must an auditor document understanding of Internal Control?

A

Through written documentation such as Internal Control memos- flowcharts- and questionnaires

116
Q

What questions should be asked to determine the risk of material misstatement?

A

Were all transactions recorded?
Were they timely?
Measured appropriately?
Recorded in correct period?
Presented and disclosed properly?
Did Management communicate their responsibilities?

117
Q

What is the purpose of testing Internal Controls?

A

Auditor needs reasonable assurance that controls are functioning as designed and effective

Internal Control Testing should be strong as (IRON) so that nothing gets past them

Inquiry - Interview company personnel
Re-performance - Can it be replicated?
Observation - Watch the control be applied
INspection - Dig into the details/documents

If results are as expected- substantive procedures do not need to be adjusted

118
Q

When can controls tested by an auditor in a prior year be used in the current year’s audit assessment?

A

Controls tested by auditor in a prior year can be used in the current year’s audit assuming they are re-tested every third year

Exception If the control has changed since the last audit

119
Q

What happens if Internal Controls are deficient?

A

Control Risk increases

Scope of substantive procedures increases

Detection Risk decreases

Material Weakness - Reasonable possibility that a material misstatement in Financial Statements would not be found- more than a remote chance of occurrence

120
Q

What is a Material Weakness?

A

Reasonable possibility exists that a material misstatement in Financial Statements would not be found- and has more than a remote chance of occurrence.

121
Q

What does Tracing test?

A

Tests Completeness

Starts with source document and traces forward to the journal entry.

122
Q

What does Vouching test?

A

Tests Existence.

Starts with a journal entry and searches for a voucher or source document to support the entry.

123
Q

What activities represent Segregation of Duties?

A

Non-compatible duties performed by separate individuals- such as

Authorization of asset disbursement vs. Recording of Assets vs. Custody of assets

If supporting audit evidence doesn’t exit - use Observation and Inquiry

Accounting should be segregated from Production

124
Q

With respect to signing checks - how are duties segregated?

A

Employees who prepare vouchers/invoices should not also have the authority to SIGN CHECKS

Tip - Remember this as an underlying theme with Segregation of Duties. The authority to make a payment should not also lie in the hands of those creating invoices/vouchers. Why? People commit fraud by setting up fake companies and basically paying themselves

125
Q

With respect to custody of assets - how should duties be segregated?

A

Employees who have custody of assets should not also RECORD those assets

Someone in charge of petty cash should not also control the petty cash records

Treasury Department (custodians) should NOT have record keeping duties

They control assets and should not be able to adjust any recording of those assets

126
Q

What are the limitations on Control Activities?

A

Controls can’t stop collusion or bad judgment

Management can override controls

Cost vs. Benefit relationship of Internal Control

127
Q

What is required if a Material Weakness is identified?

A

A written report to management is required.

Report declaring that no material weaknesses were found is allowed

Previous weaknesses reported that still exist should be reported again

Should be reported no later than 60 days after audit report release date

If one or more material weaknesses is uncorrected at year-end- an Adverse Opinion on Internal Control must be given

128
Q

What is the effect of a Significant Deficiency? What is it?

A

A significant deficiency adversely affects a company’s ability to report in the financial statements according to GAAP.

A significant deficiency is a more than a remote likelihood of material misstatement by more than an inconsequential amount

129
Q

What must occur if a Significant Deficiency is identified?

A

If a Significant Deficiency is identified- a written report to management required

Report declaring that no significant deficiencies exist is not allowed

Previous deficiencies reported that still exist should be reported again

Should be reported no later than 60 days after the audit report release date

130
Q

What is a Control Deficiency?

A

A control is not operating as intended.

131
Q

What must an auditor ask if using the work of third parties?

A

Are they competent?

Are they objective?

132
Q

What must an auditor understand with respect to internal auditors?

A

Auditor needs to understand the role of Internal Auditors within the organization because their work affects the audit plan

Responsibility for judgments about materiality or appropriateness of entries or estimates cannot be shared with third parties like Internal Auditors

Internal Auditors should be asked to do some of the legwork like preparing schedules or running reports

They should not be asked to make any decisions or judgments

133
Q

What is required in an examination of Internal Control under Sarbanes-Oxley?

A

CEO/CFO must disclose deficiencies

Management must provide assessment of Internal Controls

Management must certify Financial Statements

134
Q

What is the relationship between Internal Control and Substantive Testing?

A

Has inverse relationship

Stronger Internal Control results in LESS substantive testing

Weaker Internal Control leads to MORE substantive testing

135
Q

What are the three objectives of Internal Control?

A

Reliability of Financial Reporting

Operational Efficiency/Effectiveness

Compliance with Law and Regulations

136
Q

What are the five components of Internal Control?

A

Control Activities

Risk Assessment

Information and Communications

Monitoring

Control Environment

137
Q

What are the components of the Control Environment?

A

Integrity/Ethics of Management
Competence of Management
Organizational Structure
Human Resources Policies
Assignment of Authority/Responsibility
Management’s Style (riskier with a dominant/aggressive individual)
Board/Audit Committee involvement

138
Q

What happens when Control Risk is below the maximum level?

A

Auditor tests Internal Controls.

Auditor evaluates Control Risk based on tests

Auditor adjusts substantive tests accordingly

Weaker Internal Control - More substantive tests

Stronger Internal Control - Less substantive tests

139
Q

What should an auditor understand with respect to Information and Communication on an audit?

A

Understand Client’s

Major transaction classes
Transaction initiation
Support records/documents
Transaction processing
Financial Statement internal reporting process
Financial Statement external communication process

140
Q

How must an auditor document understanding of Internal Control?

A

Auditor must document understanding of Internal Control via Memos - Flowcharts - Questionnaires

141
Q

What is the purpose of testing Internal Controls?

A

Auditor needs reasonable assurance that controls are functioning as designed and effective

Internal Control Testing should be strong as (IRON) so that nothing gets past them

Inquiry - Interview company personnel
Re-performance - Can it be replicated?
Observation - Watch the control be applied
INspection - Dig into the details/documents

If results are as expected - substantive procedures do not need to be adjusted

142
Q

When is an audit of IT NOT required?

A

Controls are redundant to another department

The system does not appear to be reliable and testing controls would not be an efficient use of time

Costs exceed benefit

143
Q

When can an audit of IT be performed without directly interacting with the system?

A

System isn’t complex or complicated

System output is detailed

144
Q

What is the role of a Database Administrator?

A

Maintains database

Restricts access

Responsible for IT internal control

145
Q

What is the role of a Systems Analyst?

A

Recommends changes or upgrades

Liaison between IT and users

146
Q

What is the role of the data Librarian?

A

Responsible for disc storage

Holds system documentation

147
Q

What is the benefit of Generalized Audit Software in an audit?

A

Uses computer speed to quickly sort data and files- which leads to a more efficient audit

Compatible with different client IT systems

Extracts evidence from client databases

Tests data without auditor needing to spend time learning the IT system in detail

Client-tailored or commercially produced

148
Q

What is a Relational Database?

A

Group of related spreadsheets

Retrieves information through Queries

149
Q

What is a Data Definition Language?

A

A language that defines a database and gives information on database structure.

It maintains tables- which can be joined together.

It establishes database constraints.

150
Q

What functions are performed by a Data Manipulation Language?

A

Maintains and queries a database

Auditor needs information- so client uses DML to get the information needed

151
Q

What functions are performed by a Data Control Language?

A

A Data Control Language controls a database and restricts access to the database.

152
Q

What are Check Digits?

A

A numerical character consistently added to a set of numbers.

It makes it more difficult for a fraudulent account to be set up or go undetected.

153
Q

What is the purpose of a Code Review?

A

A Code Review tests a program’s processing logic.

Advantageous because auditor gains a greater understanding of the program.

154
Q

What is the purpose of a Limit Test?

A

Examines data and looks for reasonableness using upper and lower limits to determine if data fits the correct range.

Did anyone score higher than 100%?

155
Q

What is the Test Data Method?

A

Auditor processes data with client’s computer - fake transactions are used to test program control procedures.

Each control needs to only be tested once

Problem with this method - fake data could combine with real data.

156
Q

How can Operating Systems Logs be utilized during an audit?

A

Auditor can review logs to see which applications were run and by whom.

157
Q

What is the purpose of Access Security Software?

A

Helpful in online environments

Restricts computer access - may use encryption.

158
Q

How can Library Management Software assist with an audit?

A

Library Management Software logs any changes to system/applications etc.

159
Q

How can Embedded Audit Modules in software be utilized in an audit?

A

Assist with audit calculations

Enable continuous monitoring in an audit environment that is changing

Weakness: requires implementation into the system design

Example: SCARF - Collects information based on some criteria and can be analyzed at a later time (necessary because the audit environment is continually changing)

160
Q

What is an Audit Hook?

A

An Audit Hook is an application instruction that gives auditor control over the application.

161
Q

What is the purpose of Transaction Tagging?

A

Transaction Tagging allows logging of company transactions and activities.

162
Q

How do Extended Records assist in audit trail creation?

A

Extended Records add audit data to financial records.

163
Q

How does Real Time Processing affect an audit?

A

Destroys prior data when updated

aka Destructive Updating

Requires well-documented Audit Trail

164
Q

What is the risk of auditing System outputs versus Application outputs?

A

If the auditor only audits the outputs of a computer system and doesn’t also audit the software applications- an error in the applications could be missed.

165
Q

What is a Compiler?

A

Software that translates source program (similar to English) into a language that the computer can understand

166
Q

How is Parallel Simulation utilized during an audit?

A

Client data is processed using Generalized Audit Software (GAS)

Sample size can be expanded without significantly increasing the audit cost

GAS output compared to client output

167
Q

What does auditing internal control in a company’s IT environment accomplish?

A

Plan the rest of audit- Shorter audit trails that may expire- Less documentation

Assess the level of Control Risk - Unauthorized access to systems or data is more difficult to catch

Systems access controls adds another layer to separation of duties analysis

Focus should be on the general controls- new systems development- current systems changes- and program or data access control or computer ops control changes

168
Q

What is the majority of an auditor’s work in determining an audit opinion?

A

Collection of evidence to support the opinion.

169
Q

Of what does audit Evidence consist?

A

Evidence consists of client accounting data and supporting documentation from client or from third parties.

170
Q

What is the relationship between Evidence and Detection Risk?

A

Evidence has an inverse relationship with Detection Risk

The one aspect of Audit Risk an auditor can control through (N)ature (T)iming (E)xtent of audit procedures.

Inherent Risk and Control risk are outside of auditor’s control.

171
Q

Which aspects of Audit Risk can an auditor control?

A

Detection Risk which is decreased by gathering evidence.

172
Q

Which aspects of Audit Risk can an auditor NOT control?

A

Inherent Risk and Control Risk are outside of an auditor’s control.

173
Q

How does a high level of acceptable Detection Risk affect an audit?

A

Less Evidence collected. Opens door for incremental audit risk - Internal Control should be strong.

Business and transactions should be relatively stable and predictable.

(N) Less-competent Evidence collected
(T) Interim testing acceptable
(E) Fewer transactions are verified.

174
Q

What should occur when a low level of Detection Risk is acceptable?

A

More Evidence collected

(N) More-competent Evidence collected
(T) End of year balance testing
(E) More transactions are verified

175
Q

What are the primary risks in an audit for a typical for-profit company?

A

Auditors are there to verify that

Assets & Revenues are not overstated
Expenses & Liabilities are not understated

Exception - if the CPA Exam states that it is a tax-driven company flip them around

176
Q

What is the primary constraint on audit evidence?

A

Cost vs. Benefit is a primary constraint.

177
Q

What characteristics should audit evidence have?

A

Sufficient (quantity)

Appropriate: Relevant & Reliable (Quality)

178
Q

How does the quality of audit evidence vary depending on who has provided it?

A

Best evidence: Observation of activity by auditor.

2nd Best: Originates from External Parties and is sent directly to auditor (or failing that items are generated by third party and provided to auditor by the client such as a bank statement)

Weakest: Oral evidence from management.

179
Q

Which documents are the most persuasive and credible?

A

Third party documents are more persuasive and credible than internally-prepared docs

Auditor Knowledge = Most Persuasive

3rd Party info given to auditor

3rd Party info given to client

Internally-prepared doc

180
Q

What are Substantive Procedures?

A

Test substance/amounts/values. They help to reduce the risk of material misstatements. They only test accuracy of financial statements and dollar amounts - they don’t test internal controls.

181
Q

What are the substantive tests that are most often performed?

A 
Trace (or Vouch)
Reconcile
Analytical Procedures
Confirmations
Examine evidence that supports management assertions.

(T.R.A.C.E.)

182
Q

When performing audit procedures what should auditors focus on?

A

Auditors focus first on Balance Sheet Accounts then associated Income Statement items

183
Q

How is Cash audited?

A

Assurance Level is High.

Acceptable Detection Risk is Low.

184
Q

How is Accounts Receivable audited?

A

If Acceptable DR is High - Negative Confirmation is used - Customer only responds if balance is materially wrong.

If Acceptable DR is Low - Positive Confirmation is used - Customer asked to confirm by telling auditor the balance.

Corresponding Income Statement Account - Revenue

185
Q

How is Accounts Payable audited?

A

Review purchase orders/invoices

Confirm with Vendors

Corresponding Income Statement Account - Various Expenses

186
Q

How is Inventory audited?

A

Examine purchase agreements

Look at Board Minutes

Is Inventory held as collateral?

Corresponding Income Statement Account - COGS

187
Q

How are beginning balances audited?

A

Should match last year’s ending balance.

188
Q

What is the general presumption for auditing Ending Balances?

A

If Beginning Balance Additions Subtractions are OK then Ending Balances should also be OK.

189
Q

How is a Statement of Cash Flows audited?

A

Foot all balances - Check the Math

Trace Cash Flow items to other Financial Statements

Check classifications - Operating Activities Investing Activities Financing Activities

190
Q

Under the Indirect Method what must be disclosed on a Statement of Cash Flows?

A

Interest Paid

Income Taxes Paid

Non-cash Transactions

Cash and Cash Equivalents Definitions

191
Q

Under the Direct Method what must be disclosed on a Statement of Cash Flows?

A

Results as if you had used Indirect Method

Non-cash Transactions

Cash and Cash Equivalents Definition

192
Q

What are Subsequent Events and what do they require?

A

Subsequent events occur after the Balance Sheet Date but before the audit report is issued.

Auditor needs to make inquiries and assess if they affect the audit report.

193
Q

What should occur if the audit report has already been issued and the auditor becomes aware of a situation that was present as of the Balance Sheet date (a subsequent event)?

A

If audit report has already been issued and auditor becomes aware of a situation that was present as of the BS date client should issue a disclosure to financial statement users and/or revise the financial statement.

Regulatory agencies might need to get involved under some circumstances.

194
Q

What should an auditor do if they discover they have forgotten to perform a substantive procedure?

A

If auditor discovers that they forgot to perform a substantive procedure auditor should determine if other substantive procedures performed served as a substitute.

Otherwise support for their audit opinion could be jeopardized.

195
Q

When are Analytical Procedures required?

A

REQUIRED When planning the audit (preliminary)

REQUIRED When reviewing the audit (final)

Analytical procedures may be also performed optionally along with the substantive testing.

Use of Analytical Procedures in the audit must be documented.

196
Q

How do Analytical Procedures assist the auditor?

A

Helps the Auditor:

Determine if Management Assertions are reasonable

Develop audit plan

Develop some expectations about the financial statement and hopefully bring to light any glaring errors on financial statement

197
Q

What is the focus of Analytical Procedures?

A

Analytical Procedure focus is on dollar amounts (not internal controls)

Analyzes Financial Data: Do Financial Statements Make Sense?

Comparison of data between years

198
Q

How is the Current Ratio calculated?

A

Current Ratio = Current Assets / Current Liabilities

199
Q

How is the Quick Ratio calculated?

A

Quick Ratio = Liquid Assets / Current Liabilities

200
Q

How is the Asset Turnover calculated?

A

Asset Turnover = Net Sales / Average Assets

201
Q

How is the Inventory Turnover calculated?

A

Inventory Turnover = COGS / Average Inventory

202
Q

How is Gross Margin % calculated?

A

Gross Margin % = Gross Margin / Sales

203
Q

What type of testing are ratios?

A

Ratios are Analytical Procedures

204
Q

What type of procedure is a Budget vs. Actual comparison?

A

Budget vs. Actual comparisons are Analytical Procedures.

205
Q

List Common Types of Analytical Procedures

A

Ratio analysis

Budget vs. Actual comparison

Comparison of data between years

Use of non-financial data to predict expected values for financial data

206
Q

How do management assertions affect the audit?

A

Management assertions help the auditor to plan the audit and select substantive tests.

207
Q

What assertions do auditors test?

A

Presentation - Cutoff Classification - Is it in the right period and category?
Existence/ Occurrence - Did it happen? Does it exist?
Rights & Obligations - Does the company own them?
Completeness - Was everything recorded?
Valuation - Are they worth the amount at which they are recorded?

(PERCV)

208
Q

What assertions are tests for transaction classes?

A

Occurrence

Cutoff

Classification

Completeness

Accuracy

209
Q

For which assertions are disclosures tested?

A

Occurrence

Completeness

Classification

Accuracy

210
Q

Is testing the validity of direct evidence a basic audit procedure?

A

No it is an extended procedure.

For example you don’t have to take a loan covenant document and go search out that it’s a valid loan covenant. Instead you consider the source - if it’s externally prepared it’s more persuasive.

211
Q

How are Management Estimates audited?

A

First and foremost you need to understand management’s rationale and methods for developing estimates before you can judge reasonableness.

Next Auditor should formulate their own opinion on what a good estimate should be and compare it.

Finally determine if subsequent events affect the estimate.

212
Q

Whose property are audit documentation (audit workpapers)? In what form must they be?

A

Audit workpapers are the property of the auditor.

They can be paper or electronic.

They must include a WRITTEN audit program (either paper or electronic).

213
Q

What is the Current File?

A

Information pertaining to the current year’s audit.

214
Q

What is the Permanent File?

A

Information used for this audit and future audits which is updated as needed.

215
Q

How long must audit workpapers be maintained?

A

Must be kept for 5 years after the audit release date or according to regulations whichever is longer.

Must be kept for 7 years under PCAOB Audit

PCAOB audits also require an Engagement Completion Document

216
Q

What is the primary requirement for audit workpapers besides being written?

A

Any experienced auditor should be able to look at your work and understand what you did.

217
Q

How should documents added to work papers be treated?

A

If further documents are added to the work papers after the audit report is issued it must be documented as to who added them why they were added and any effects on the audit report.

218
Q

How should documents removed from workpapers be treated?

A

After the audit report is released the firm has 60 days to subtract from the file.

You can still add to the file if you document it but you cannot delete any information after 60 days.

Note - for SEC auditors the PCAOB only allows deletions up to 45 days after issuance of the audit report.

CPA-AUDIT (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions