Audit - Independent MCQs & Integrated Case Study Flashcards
Which among the following are the skills to be possessed by M/s ABC & Associates as forensic auditors?
a. Criminology & Evidence gathering
b. Confidence & Curiosity
c. Discretion & Creativity
d. Inquisitiveness & Persistence
a. Criminology & Evidence gathering
Which of the following is an example of Direct Entity Level Control –
a. Company code of conduct and ethics policies
b. Human resource policies
c. Job roles & responsibilities of employees
d. Monitoring of effectiveness of control activities by Internal Audit function
d. Monitoring of effectiveness of control activities by Internal Audit function
M/s ASH Brothers is a partnership firm engaged in the business of selling old vehicles. Mr. A, Mr. S & Mr. H are the 3 partners of the firm.
In the month of January 2021, Mr. H’s son (a minor) was admitted for the benefit of partnership who attained majority in April 2022, but no change was made in the Partner’s share during the year.
Whether the tax auditor is required to mention the details of Mr. H’s son admitted to the partnership during the year, as per Clause 9 of Form 3CD of the Income Tax?
a. Since the minor has not attained majority during the audit period, no details need to mention in Form 3CD.
b. The auditor is not required to give details of minor admitted to partnership as there was no change in the Partner’s Share during the year.
c. Any change in the Partners since the last date of the preceding year has to be mentioned under Clause 9(b) of Form 3CD.
d. As the father of minor is his guardian till, he attains majority and Mr. H was already partner in the firm, there is no need to mention the details of minor in Form 3CD.
c. Any change in the Partners since the last date of the preceding year has to be mentioned under Clause 9(b) of Form 3CD
ABC Private Limited uses in-house developed application system for Accounting. The auditor observed that user ID and password is mandatory to access the application system and felt that this is a good control. What type of control is this?
a. IT General Control.
b. Application Control.
c. Detective Control.
d. Preventive Control.
d. Preventive Control.
XYZ Private Ltd uses ERP software for all business processes. The application is hosted in cloud and is maintained by a third party. Statutory Auditor is not confident about the risk management process in the third-party organization and requests for audit access to such data center. The request was declined and management informed that the third party is ISO certified and audit on controls at Service Organization is regularly being conducted. What the auditor should do?
a. Do not ask for anything else since the Third Party is ISO certified.
b. Insist on conducting audit in the Third Party.
c. Take ISO certificate.
d. Take the Service Organization control audit report to review.
d. Take the Service Organization control audit report to review.
As per SA 550 on Related Parties, existence of which relationship indicate the presence of control or significant influence?
a. Friend of a family member of a person who has the authority and responsibility for planning.
b. Holding debentures in the entity.
c. The entity’s holding of debentures in other entities.
d. The entity’s holding of equity in other entities.
d. The entity’s holding of equity in other entities.
As per the Quality Review Board, the term “technical standards” in the context of CA Rules, 2006 includes which among the following?
a. ICDS notified under Income Tax Act, 1961
b. AS notified under Companies Act, 2013
c. Guidance Notes on accounting & auditing matters issued by C&AG
d. Notifications/ Directions issued on accounting & auditing matters issued by RBI/ SEBI/ other regulatory bodies
b. AS notified under Companies Act, 2013
M Ltd is a company engaged in the manufacture of iron & steel bars. VP & Associates are the statutory auditors of M Ltd for the FY 2021-22.
During the course of audit, CA V, the engagement partner, found that the Company’s financing arrangements have expired, and the amount outstanding was payable on March 31, 2022. The company has been unable to re-negotiate or obtain replacement financing & is considering filing for bankruptcy.
These events indicate a material uncertainty that may cast significant doubt on the Company’s ability to continue as a going concern & therefore it may be unable to realize its assets & discharge its liabilities in the normal course of business.
The FS (and notes thereto) do not disclose this fact. What opinion should CA V express in the case of M Ltd?
a. Unmodified opinion
b. Qualified opinion
c. Adverse opinion
d. Disclaimer of opinion
c. Adverse opinion
The basic assumption underlying the use of analytical procedures is:
a. It helps the auditor to study relationship among elements of financial information.
b. Relationship among data exist and continue in the absence of known condition to the contrary.
c. Analytical procedures will not be able to detect unusual relationships.
d. None of the above.
b. Relationship among data exist and continue in the absence of known condition to the contrary.
If, as a result of a misstatement resulting from fraud, the auditor encounters exceptional circumstances that bring into question his ability to continue performing the audit, he shall –
a. Withdraw from the engagement immediately.
b. Report to Audit team regarding withdrawal.
c. Determine the professional and legal responsibilities applicable in the circumstances.
d. Ask the management for his withdrawal.
c. Determine the professional and legal responsibilities applicable in the circumstances.
Direct confirmation procedures are performed during audit of accounts receivable balances to address the following BS assertion –
a. Right & obligations
b. Valuation
c. Completeness
d. Existence
d. Existence
The Auditor shall express _____ opinion when the auditor, having obtained SAAE, concludes that misstatements, individually or in the aggregate, are both material and pervasive to the FS.
a. Adverse
b. Qualified
c. Disclaimer of Opinion
d. Clean
a. Adverse
When does an auditor shall modify the opinion in the auditor’s report?
a. When, based on the audit evidence obtained, the FS as a whole are not free from material misstatement
b. When, unable to obtain SAAE to conclude that the FS as a whole are free from material misstatement.
c. (a) and (b) both.
d. Either (a) or (b).
c. (a) and (b) both.
The agreed terms of the audit engagement shall be recorded in an audit engagement letter which shall include the following except –
a. Responsibilities of the Auditor
b. Description of methods to be followed for obtaining audit evidence
c. Responsibilities of Management
d. Objective and scope of the audit of the FS
b. Description of methods to be followed for obtaining audit evidence
The measure of the quality of audit evidence about its relevance and reliability in providing support for the conclusions on which the auditor’s opinion is based is –
a. Sufficiency of audit evidence
b. Appropriateness of audit evidence
c. Accounting estimates
d. Reasonableness of audit evidence
b. Appropriateness of audit evidence
For a given level of audit risk, the acceptable level of detection risk bears _____ relationship to the assessed risks of material misstatement at the assertion level. (DR & ROMM).
a. Direct
b. Inverse
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. None of the above
b. Inverse
Control activities, whether within IT or manual systems, have various objectives and are applied at various organizational and functional levels.
Which of the following is an example of control activities?
a. Authorization
b. Performance reviews
c. Information processing
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
In order to form the opinion, the auditor shall conclude as to whether the auditor has obtained ____ about whether the FS as a whole are free from material misstatement, whether due to fraud or error.
a. Reasonable assurance
b. Absolute assurance
c. Limited assurance
d. None of the above
a. Reasonable assurance
Which of the following information should a successor auditor obtain during the inquiry of the predecessor auditor before accepting engagement?
i. Information about integrity of management
ii. Disagreement with management concerning auditing procedures
iii. Review of internal control system
iv. Organization structure
a. (i) and (ii)
b. (ii) and (iii)
c. (i), (ii) and (iii)
d. (i) and (iii)
a. (i) and (ii)
In an investigation relating to possible misappropriation of cash, the cashier says that every day the cash is counted and is reviewed by the Finance Head. Your specimen review indicates that the daily cash summary was not signed off by of the Finance Head. In this situation, you should:
a. Conclude that the cashier is not telling truth
b. Consider extending investigation procedures like corroborative enquiry with the Finance Head, review of appropriate daily cash summaries, etc.
c. Conclude that the Finance Head is not a responsible person
d. Conclude that daily cash summary is not relevant for the investigation
b. Consider extending investigation procedures like corroborative enquiry with the Finance Head, review of appropriate daily cash summaries, etc.
The auditor’s ___ safeguards the auditor’s ability to form an audit opinion without being affected by any influences.
a. Objectivity
b. Independence
c. Confidentiality
d. Integrity
b. Independence
Current period adjustments are those adjustments that are made:
a. Only on the first occasion of the preparation and presentation of CFS.
b. Only on the first occasion of the audit of CFS.
c. In the accounting period for which the Consolidation of FS is done.
d. None of the above.
c. In the accounting period for which the Consolidation of FS is done.
_____ approach to sampling has the following characteristics:
Random selection of the sample items; and
The use of probability theory to evaluate sample results, including measurement of sampling risk.
a. Statistical Sampling
b. Non-statistical Sampling
c. Stratified Sampling
d. Haphazard Sampling
a. Statistical Sampling
Which of the following is not an indicator about material uncertainty over the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern:
a. Net liability or net current liability position.
b. Cancellation of company’s production license due to change on government policies.
c. Non-declaration of dividend to equity shareholders.
d. Substantial operating losses or significant deterioration in the value of assets used to generate cash flows.
c. Non-declaration of dividend to equity shareholders.
OPE Ltd. issued a prospectus in respect of an IPO which had the auditor’s report on the FS for the YE 31 March 2021. The issue was fully subscribed.
During this year, there was an abnormal rise in the profits of the company for which it was found later on that it was because of manipulated sales in which there was participation of WTD and other top officials of the company.
On discovery of this fact, the company offered to refund all moneys to the subscribers of the shares and sued the auditors for the damages alleging that the auditors failed to examine and ascertain any satisfactory explanation for steep increase in the rate of profits and related accounts.
The company emphasized that the auditor should have proceeded with suspicion and should not have followed selected verification. The auditors were able to prove that they found internal controls to be satisfactory and did not find any circumstance to arouse suspicion.
The company was not able to prove that auditors were negligent in performance of their duties. Please suggest your views on this.
a. The stand of the company was correct in this case. Considering the nature of the work, the Auditors should have proceeded with suspicion and should not have followed selected verification.
b. The approach of the auditors look reasonable in this case. The auditors found internal controls to be satisfactory and also did not find any circumstance to arouse suspicion and hence they performed their procedures on the basis of selected Verification.
c. In the given case, the auditors should have involved various experts along with them to help them on their audit procedures. Prospectus is one area wherein management involves various experts and hence the auditors should also have done that. In the given case, by not involving the experts the auditors did not perform their job in a professional manner. If they had involved experts like forensic experts etc., the manipulation could have been detected. Hence the auditors should be held liable.
d. In case of such type of engagements, the focus is always on the management controls. If the controls are found to be effective then an auditor can never be held liable in respect of any deficiency or misstatement or fraud.
b. The approach of the auditors look reasonable in this case. The auditors found internal controls to be satisfactory and also did not find any circumstance to arouse suspicion and hence they performed their procedures on the basis of selected Verification.
Employees of G Ltd. have to travel frequently for business purposes, so the company entered into a contract with S Travels Ltd for managing booking, cancellation and other services required by their employees.
As per contract terms, S travels has to raise its monthly bills for the tickets booked or cancelled during the period and the same are paid by G Ltd within 15 days of the bill date.
The bills raised by S travels were of huge amount, so the management of G Ltd decided to get an audit conducted of the process followed for booking/ cancellation of tickets and verify the accuracy of bills raised by the travel agency.
Which audit do you feel the management should opt for?
a. Internal audit, as it relates to examining the operational efficiency of the organization.
b. Management audit, as it is an audit desired by the management.
c. Performance audit, so as to assess the performance of the S travels appointed by the organization.
d. Operational audit, as it is the audit for the management and involves verifying the effectiveness, efficiency and economy of operations done by the S travels for the organization.
d. Operational audit, as it is the audit for the management and involves verifying the effectiveness, efficiency and economy of operations done by the S travels for the organization.
M/s S and Associates were appointed as the statutory auditors of P Limited for the audit of FY 2021-22. P Limited has a power generating plant in Sikkim. At the time of accepting the engagement, it was decided among the engagement partner (CA S) and the management that since CA S and his team is doing the audit of a client having power plant in Sikkim for the first time, it will be the duty of the management to update the audit team regarding all the taxes and statutes applicable to units situated in Sikkim. Which of the following is correct in this regard?
(a) The engagement team, being the auditor of Sikkim based power plant for the first time can always rely on the management’s information and can work accordingly.
(b) The engagement team should understand the P Limited business environment and should obtain knowledge about the laws and statutes applicable in this case.
(c) The engagement team should not accept the audit of such power plant situated in Sikkim of which he has no prior knowledge.
(d) The engagement team can very well accept the audit of P Limited and with respect to aspects related to Sikkim law he can give disclaimer of opinion, if required.
(b) The engagement team should understand the P Limited business environment and should obtain knowledge about the laws and statutes applicable in this case.
M/s S have been appointed as statutory auditors of K Ltd which is the company registered u/s 8 of the Companies Act 2013. During the course of audit, CA S noticed that the BOD have held their meetings only twice, in the FY under audit. How should CA S deal with the same in the compliance certificate to be issued by him?
(a) CA S should give an adverse statement stating that the meeting of BOD were held only twice as against the minimum requirement of 4 meetings of FY.
(b) CA S need not mention regarding the same in the compliance certificate as there is no minimum requirement of meeting of BOD in case of companies registered u/s 8.
(c) K Ltd being a company registered u/s 8 of the Companies Act 2013 is exempt from obtaining compliance certificate from the statutory auditors.
(d) K Ltd is correct in conducting two meeting of BOD therefore , CA S should not give an adverse or qualified statement in this regard.
(d) K Ltd is correct in conducting two meeting of BOD therefore , CA S should not give an adverse or qualified statement in this regard.
M/s V and Associates have been appointed as the statutory auditors of a NBFC ( UVW Ltd) for the FY 2021-22. The company is required to comply with the Ind AS. During the course of audit CA V found that the company has classified its Assets and Liabilities as financial and non-financial instead of current and non-current.
What should CA V advice the management of NBFC UVW Ltd. in this regard?
(a) The management of NBFC UVW Ltd is correct in classifying the BS items as financial and non-financial as per requirement of Division Ill of Schedule Ill of Companies Act 2013.
(b) The management of NBFC UVW Ltd is not correct in this regard and should classify the BS items as current and non-current as is required by all other companies as per the requirement of the Division Ill under Schedule Ill of the Companies Act 2013.
(c) The management of NBFC UVW Ltd is right in this regard as the NBFC has the option to classify the BS items either as current and non-current or as financial and non- financial.
(d) The management of NBFC UVW Ltd should classify the BS items as current and noncurrent as per the requirement of Division II of Schedule Ill of the Companies Act 2013 applicable in case of NBFC.
(a) The management of NBFC UVW Ltd is correct in classifying the BS items as financial and non-financial as per requirement of Division Ill of Schedule Ill of Companies Act 2013.
M/s B and Associates have been appointed as the statutory auditor of P Limited, a manufacturer of gas geysers for the FY 2021-22.
During the course of audit, the auditor found that two customer complaints have been filed against the company in the FY 2021-22, for the use of sub-standard pipes and wires in manufacture of gas geysers. The gas geyser blasted at high temperature leading to severe injuries to the family of complainant along with damage to their property.
They have sought a demand of rupees 10 crore. However, the lawyer of P Limited believes that such claim is unsustainable as the incident occurred due to short circuit at both the complainant’s place. The management of P Limited accordingly did not include any reference to the litigation in the FS.
The auditor obtained legal advice from some independent lawyer according to whom the outcome of the case is not ascertainable as of now.
(a) The statutory auditor should give an unqualified opinion.
(b) The statutory auditor should give an unqualified opinion with EOM paragraph.
(c) The statutory auditor should withdraw from the audit engagement.
(d) The statutory auditor should give a qualified opinion.
(d) The statutory auditor should give a qualified opinion.
M/s ABC & Associates are the statutory auditors of PQR Ltd for the FY 2020-21. While conducting the audit, CA A, the engagement partner noticed the following:
• Payments of various fines and penalties
• Unusual cash payments
• Payments to various government employees not supported by any document
• Notices received from various regulatory authorities.
• Heavy payments to legal counsels.
CA A should consider the above as indicative of:
a. Doubt on Internal Controls of PQR Ltd.
b. Doubt of non-compliance to laws by PQR Ltd.
c. Doubt on the accounting system of PQR Ltd.
d. Doubt on the going concern assumption of PQR Ltd.
b. Doubt of non-compliance to laws by PQR Ltd.
The following inherent limitations in an audit affect the auditor’s ability to detect material misstatements except:
a. Test and sampling.
b. Audit process permeated by judgement.
c. Poor corporate governance.
d. Audit evidence.
c. Poor corporate governance.
Judgements about materiality are made in the light of surrounding circumstances, and are affected by:
a. The auditor’s perception of the financial information needs of users of the FS.
b. Both the auditor’s perception of the financial information needs of users of the FS, the size or nature of a misstatement.
c. The size or nature of a misstatement.
d. The company’s control environment.
b. Both the auditor’s perception of the financial information needs of users of the FS, the size or nature of a misstatement.
Professional judgement is defined as:
a. The application of relevant training, knowledge and experience, within the context provided by auditing, accounting and ethical standards, in making informed decisions about the courses of action that are appropriate in the circumstances of the audit engagement.
b. An attitude to avoid significant mistakes which could influence the economic decisions of users taken on the basis of the FS.
c. Decision making about the requirements of the accounting profession.
d. An attitude that includes a questioning mind, being alert to conditions which may indicate possible misstatement due to error or fraud, and a critical assessment of evidence.
a. The application of relevant training, knowledge and experience, within the context provided by auditing, accounting and ethical standards, in making informed decisions about the courses of action that are appropriate in the circumstances of the audit engagement.
Professional skepticism is defined as:
a. An attitude to avoid significant mistakes which could influence the economic decisions of users taken on the basis of the FS.
b. The application of relevant training, knowledge and experience in making informed decisions about the courses of action that are appropriate in the circumstances of the audit engagement.
c. An analysis of management decisions in terms of failed outcomes.
d. An attitude that includes a questioning mind, being alert to conditions which may indicate possible misstatement due to error or fraud, and a critical assessment of evidence.
d. An attitude that includes a questioning mind, being alert to conditions which may indicate possible misstatement due to error or fraud, and a critical assessment of evidence.
The management of M Ltd. has developed a strong internal control in its accounting system in such a way that the work of one person is reviewed by another. Since no individual employee is allowed to handle a task alone from the beginning to the end, the chances of early detection of frauds and errors are high.
CA. O has been appointed as an auditor of the company for current FY 2020-21. Before starting the audit, she wants to evaluate the ICS of M Ltd.
To facilitate the accumulation of the information necessary for the proper review and evaluation of internal controls, CA. O decided to use internal control questionnaire to know and assimilate the system and evaluate the same.
Which of the following questions need not be framed under internal control questionnaire relating to purchases?
a. Are authorized signatories for purchases limited to elected officials?
b. Are payments approved only on original invoices?
c. Does authorized officials thoroughly review the documents before signing cheques?
d. Are monthly bank reconciliations implemented for each and every bank accounts of the company?
d. Are monthly bank reconciliations implemented for each and every bank accounts of the company?
An auditor’s expert may be either an auditor’s internal or an external expert. Which of the following can not be an auditor’s internal expert?
a. Partner of the Auditor’s Firm
b. Temporary Staff of the Auditor’s Firm
c. Permanent Staff of Auditor’s Network Firm
d. A Prospective CA, soon to join the Auditor’s Firm as a Partner.
d. A Prospective CA, soon to join the Auditor’s Firm as a Partner.
Adequate design and effective implementation of Internal Controls may not lead to the identification of:
a. Frauds and errors.
b. Design and Implementation gaps in Processes.
c. Abuse by Process Owners.
d. Segregation of Duties.
c. Abuse by Process Owners.
50:50 test determination is popularly used in:
a. Banking Company.
b. Insurance Company.
c. NBFC Company.
d. Stock Trading Company.
c. NBFC Company.
What is the difference between management audit and operational audit?
a. Management audit is concerned with ‘Quality of Operations’ and it is ‘Audit for Management’, whereas Operational audit is concerned with ‘Quality of managing’ and it is ‘Audit of Management’.
b. Management audit is concerned with ‘Quality of Managing’ and it is ‘Audit of Management’, whereas Operational audit is concerned with ‘Quality of Operations’ and it is ‘Audit for Management’.
c. Management audit is concerned with ‘Quality of Managing’ and it is ‘Audit for Management’, whereas Operational audit is concerned with ‘Quality of Operations’ and it is ‘Audit of Management’.
d. Management audit is concerned with ‘Quality of Operations’ and it is ‘Audit of Management’, whereas Operational audit is concerned with ‘Quality of managing’ and it is ‘Audit for Management’.
b. Management audit is concerned with ‘Quality of Managing’ and it is ‘Audit of Management’, whereas Operational audit is concerned with ‘Quality of Operations’ and it is ‘Audit for Management’.
A significant deficiency exists in the process of flow of approval of travel re-imbursements of the officials. This was communicated in the previous year to TCWG and no remedial action was taken on the same so far. The auditors are of the opinion that it need not be communicated again. Is the opinion of the auditors on NOT to communicate the deficiency in internal control reported in the previous year correct?
a. Yes, the auditor is not required to communicate the same again as it is the duty of the management and those charged with governance to maintain the internal control system.
b. No, the current year’s communication may repeat the description from previous communication or simply reference the previous communication.
c. Yes, the auditor is not required to communicate the same again as written representation is being obtained from management and those charged with governance that they are responsible for maintaining internal control.
d. No, it needs to be communicated again but an oral reminder to TCWG on the matter may suffice.
b. No, the current year’s communication may repeat the description from previous communication or simply reference the previous communication.
Entity P, is audited by a different auditor than the parent entity Q. The principal auditor i.e. the auditor of entity Q, decides to use the work of auditor of component i.e. entity P, in relation to audit of CFS. In doing so, he should comply with requirements of:
a. SA 600, “ Using the work of Another Auditor”.
b. SA 299, “Joint Audit of Financial statements”.
c. SA 720, “The Auditor’s Responsibilities Relating to Other Information”.
d. SRS 4410, “Compilation Engagements”.
a. SA 600, “ Using the work of Another Auditor”.
XYZ bank had an NPA account of M/s G showing recoverable amount of Rs. 55 lakh in the books. It sold the NPA for Rs. 56 lakh. Please select as to which of the following options is the correct accounting:
a. Credit the excess of Rs. 1 lakh to profit on sale of assets.
b. Let the amount remain in G account.
c. Credit the excess of Rs. 1 lakh to Provision for loss on sale of NPAs.
d. Return Rs. 1 lakh to the party purchasing the NPA.
c. Credit the excess of Rs. 1 lakh to Provision for loss on sale of NPAs.
You have been given an assignment of audit of IT department of a PSU. A checklist was handed over to you which contained many questions such as,
• Are separate usernames and passwords assigned to individual users?
• Are periodical changes of passwords ensured?
• Are external (offsite) data backups maintained at a place outside the premises?
The type of audit being conducted is likely to be:
a. Comprehensive audit.
b. Propriety audit.
c. Compliance audit.
d. Financial audit.
c. Compliance audit.