Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

AUD > Audit Evidence > Flashcards

Audit Evidence Flashcards

1
Q

The auditor’s primary concern in relation to estimates is

A

that they are reasonable under the circumstances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Permanent files in an auditor’s documentation will include

A

items that will have ongoing significance, such as debt agreements where the debt will relate to more than one period

contains docs that are useful for current and future audits, such as contractual arrangements (e.g. debt and lease agreements), articles of incorporation, analysis of capital stock and other owner equity accounts, and the documentation of the auditor’s understanding of internal controls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Current files auditor’s documentation will include

A

items that relate to the current period such as
lead schedules,
attorneys’ letters, and
bank statements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When an audit client is involved in related party transactions, the auditor’s primary concern is

A

proper disclosure and presentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

example of nonsampling risk

A

The auditor selecting inappropriate auditing procedures

Nonsampling risk is the risk that an auditor will draw an incorrect conclusion from an audit procedure due to a flaw in the procedure or the auditor’s interpretation of the results, which would include selecting an inappropriate audit procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what audit procedures is most likely to be conducted only after year-end

A

Evaluation of management’s adjusting journal entries to the financial statements

search for unrecorded liabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

analytical procedure involves

A

comparing client data to expectations developed by the auditor for that data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

actors most likely would assist an independent auditor in assessing the objectivity of the internal auditor

A

The organizational status of the director of internal audit will indicate who the internal auditors report to, which will affect their objectivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

getting credit approval before shipping goods

A

valuation OR allocation

Assessing this control is part of the auditor’s evaluation of the valuation of accounts receivable at its net realizable value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

channel stuffing involves

A

shipping goods to customers in excess of their needs to increase amounts reported as revenues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A standard bank confirmation will provide

A
  1. information about balances in deposit accounts
  2. balances of outstanding loans as of the balance sheet date
  3. information about arrangements related to compensating balances
  4. collateral for loans.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Bearer bonds can be

A

converted into cash by anyone possessing them and, as a result, they pose a significant risk of misappropriation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Slow-moving and obsolete inventory would require inventory amounts to be reduced

A

affecting the valuation assertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

auditor may use internal auditors to

A

provide direct assistance, which may include obtaining an understanding of internal control or in performing tests of controls or tests of details, provided the auditor is satisfied as to the internal auditor’s competence and objectivity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

convincing vs persuasive audit evidence

A

persuasive evidence more reliable than convincing evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

check kiting

A

check kiting occurs when transfers between accounts are recognized in the receiving account prior to being recognized in the disbursing account, overstating the cash balance. If deposits are overstated, as would be indicated by kiting, the average balance would seem too low for the level of activity

Kiting occurs when a deposit resulting from a transfer between two cash accounts within the same entity is recorded in an earlier period than the disbursement from the other account, resulting in an overstatement of cash

to audit: can request bank transfer schedule to show transfers in that exceed transfers out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what to do during interim period

A

Internal control can be tested at an interim period when controls over the remaining period are effective.

inventory may be observed and accounts receivable can be confirmed at an interim date

test depreciation expense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

At a minimum, the auditor’s working papers must document

A
  1. that the financial statements agree to the records
  2. the audit work was supervised
  3. the work is sufficient to support the opinion
  4. provide support that a GAAS audit was performed.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Whenever using a specialist that has a relationship with the client,

A

there is the risk that the relationship will impair the specialist’s objectivity, causing the auditor to evaluate whether or not the findings of the specialist can be relied upon

specialist does NOT have to be independent

The auditor is not prohibited from using a client’s specialist, but must be aware of the risks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

During a financial statement audit an internal auditor may provide direct assistance to the independent CPA in performing

A

An external auditor may use the services of an internal auditor to assist with tests of controls or substantive tests provided that the external auditor believes that the internal auditor is competent and objective in performing such procedures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which account are more predictable?

A

income statement accounts are more predictable than balance sheet accounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Analytical procedures are required for

A

in the planning of an audit and in the evaluation of audit results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Detection risk

A

relates to the auditor not detecting a material misstatement in the financial statements when the financial statements are materially misstated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Sampling risk

A

concerns the possibility that a statistical sample does not represent a given population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Non-sampling risk refers to

A

the risk that the auditor will not evaluate a sample properly

26
Q

RELY is high

A

RRM is LOW
Detection risk is HIGH
Substantive testing is LOW

27
Q

RELY is low

A

RRM is HIGH
Detection risk is low
substantive testing is HIGH

28
Q

assertions related to inventory (account balance)

A

RACE

rights and obligations
allocation and valuation
completeness
existence

29
Q

The primary purpose of tests of details is to

A

detect material misstatements to the financial statements.

30
Q

incremental risk

A

Applying principal substantive tests prior to the balance sheet date increases the risk that misstatements may exist at the balance sheet date that will not be detected by the auditor. This is referred to as incremental risk, which would be reduced if the amount of the year-end balances selected for interim testing were reasonably predictable.

31
Q

levels of persuasiveness

A
  1. evidence obtained by auditor, direct observation (MOST)
  2. evidence obtained directly from outside sources
  3. evidence obtained from outside sources through the client
  4. evidence generated from client (LEAST)
32
Q

risk assessment procedures

A

The procedures used by an auditor to obtain an understanding of a client and its environment, including its internal controls, which include inquiries, observations, and analytical procedures

33
Q

substantive tests:

A

comparing reported balances for to auditor expectations

are used to evaluate management’s assertions that make up the financial statements

34
Q

Analytical procedures

A

are used in the planning of an engagement to determine what areas may represent higher risk of material misstatement

35
Q

when RRM is high regarding inventory

A

Review the client’s control procedures over the safeguarding of inventory, and perform a physical inventory count on the last day of the current year

36
Q

when RRM is low regarding inventory

A

Performing analytical procedures and performing physical counts throughout the year

37
Q

bill of lading

A

is evidence of a shipment

38
Q

The auditor’s working trial balance includes

A

reclassification and adjustments

columns for pre-audit trial balance amounts and audit adjustments. When the audit adjustments are added or subtracted from the pre-audit amounts, the sum is placed in a column for audited amounts. The audited amounts are then cross-referenced to the financial statement

39
Q

what steps to do after finding out there’s subsequent events that happened after opinion was formed.

A
  1. Assess the importance of the omitted procedures to present ability to support the opinion
  2. inquire: are parties relying on the financial statements?
40
Q

Management’s written representations are required to be presented in the form of a letter that is addressed to the

A

auditor

41
Q

range test

A

A range test involves comparing an amount to a previously established range of values

42
Q

A category test is used to determine

A

if something is properly classified

43
Q

reasonable test

A

A comparison in one period to a comparable prior period

44
Q

Lead schedules

A

are the working paper that reflects the major components of an amount reported in the financial statements.

45
Q

Carryforward schedules,

A

such as depreciation schedules, show amounts from previous periods and are updated each period to reflect increments and other changes

46
Q

Interbank transfer schedules are used

A

to reconcile balances in multiple bank accounts within the same entity and to detect kiting

47
Q

Supporting schedules

A

provide the detail that makes up each of the major components that are indicated on the lead schedules.

48
Q

Confirming authorization for major transactions with directors

A

verified through a review of minutes of board of director meetings

49
Q

negative confirmation

A

customer asked to respond if amount is incorrect
no need to respond

RMM low, control risk low

50
Q

positive confirmation

A

customer asked to verify correctness of amount
requires a response
good for large balances

RMM high, control risk high

51
Q

blank confirmation

A

type of positive confirmation
customer asked to provide amount w/o being told value on the books
good for large balance
active account

RMM high

52
Q

The assertions related to events and transactions include

A 
completeness, 
cutoff, 
accuracy, 
classification, and 
occurrence
53
Q

assertions related to account balances

A

RACE

right and obligation
allocation and valuation
completeness
existence

54
Q

Audit documentation

A

aids in supervision,
provides support for the audit report, and
supports that a GAAS audit was performed

enable an experienced auditor with no previous connection to the audit to understand the nature, timing, and extent of procedures performed; the results of procedures performed and evidence obtained; and significant findings, conclusions reached, and judgments made

55
Q

Tests of control

A

are used to determine whether or not internal controls may be relied upon

56
Q

Analytical procedures performed in the review stage of an audit consist largely of

A

evaluating the overall financial statement presentation and comparing it to the auditor’s expectations as to financial position, results of operations, and cash flows

57
Q

Analytical procedures used in planning

A

assist the auditor in identifying balances that represent specific risks.

58
Q

Analytical procedures performed as substantive tests

A

gather evidence from tests of details and can be useful in the detection of fraud.

59
Q

A letter for underwriters is a report

A

on a nonissuer’s financial statements that is included in a registration statement filed with the SEC

60
Q

What is the maximum number of days in which a nonissuer’s auditor should complete the assembly of the final audit file following the report release date?

A

60 days

AUD (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions