Audit Assurance Principles Flashcards

1
Q

A measure of how willing the auditor is to accept that the financial statements may be materially
misstated after the audit is completed and an unqualified opinion has been issued is the:

A) inherent risk.
B) acceptable audit risk.
C) statistical risk.
D) financial risk

A

Answer: B

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2
Q

2) A measure of the auditor’s assessment of the likelihood that there are material misstatements in an
account before considering the effectiveness of the client’s internal control is called:
A) control risk.
B) acceptable audit risk.
C) statistical risk.
D) inherent risk.

A

Answer: D

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3
Q

3) When inherent risk is high, there will need to be:
A)
A lower assessment of audit risk More evidence accumulated by the auditor
Yes Yes
B)
A lower assessment of audit risk More evidence accumulated by the auditor
No No
C)
A lower assessment of audit risk More evidence accumulated by the auditor
Yes No
D)
A lower assessment of audit risk More evidence accumulated by the auditor
No Yes

A

Answer: D

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4
Q

4) In what order should the following steps occur?
A. assess client business risk
B. understand the client’s business and industry
C. perform preliminary analytical procedures
D. assess acceptable audit risk
A) D, B, C, A
B) B, A, D, C
C) B, D, A, C
D) D, C, B, A

A

Answer: B

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5
Q

5) The auditor uses knowledge gained from the understanding of the client’s business and industry to
assess:
A) client business risk.
B) control risk.
C) inherent risk.
D) audit risk.

A

Answer: A

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6
Q

There are three main reasons why an auditor should properly plan audit engagements. Discuss each of
these reasons.

A

Answer: Three reasons why an auditor should properly plan audit engagements are:
* To enable the auditor to obtain sufficient competent evidence for the circumstances. This is essential
for minimizing legal liability and maintaining a good profession reputation.
* To help keep audit costs reasonable. Given the competitive auditing environment, keeping costs
reasonable helps the firm obtain and retain clients.
* To avoid misunderstandings with the client. This is important for good client relations.

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7
Q

7) When an auditor decides there is higher inherent risk for an account, one potential effect is that more
audit evidence will be required for that account.

A) True
B) False

A

Answer: A

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8
Q

8) As acceptable audit risk is decreased, the likely cost of conducting an audit increases.

A) True
B) False

A

Answer: A

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9
Q

9) Acceptable audit risk is a measure of the auditor’s willingness to accept that the financial statements do
not contain material misstatements after the audit is completed and a qualified audit report has been
issued.
A) True
B) False

A

Answer: B

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10
Q

10) Two major factors that affect acceptable audit risk are the likely users of the financial statements and
the likelihood of issuing an unqualified audit opinion.
A) True
B) False

A

Answer: B

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11
Q

1) One of the purposes of an engagement letter is to avoid misunderstandings with the client. This is
important for:
A)
Good client relations
Facilitating high-quality work at a
reasonable cost
Yes Yes
B)
Good client relations
Facilitating high-quality work at a
reasonable cost
No No
C)
Good client relations
Facilitating high-quality work at a
reasonable cost
Yes No
D)
Good client relations
Facilitating high-quality work at a
reasonable cost
No Yes

A

Answer: A

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12
Q

2) The auditor is likely to accumulate more evidence when the audit is for a company:
A)
Which has large amounts of debt Which is to be sold in the near future
Yes Yes
B)
Which has large amounts of debt Which is to be sold in the near future
No No
C)
Which has large amounts of debt Which is to be sold in the near future
Yes No
D)
Which has large amounts of debt Which is to be sold in the near future
No Yes

A

Answer: A

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13
Q

3) Initial audit planning involves four matters. Which of the following is not one of these?
A) Develop an overall audit strategy.
B) Request that bank balances be confirmed.
C) Schedule engagement staff and audit specialists.
D) Identify the client’s reason for the audit

A

Answer: B

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14
Q

4) Rodgers CPA has requested permission to communicate with predecessor auditor in order to review
certain workpapers for high risk accounts for a new audit client. The new audit clients refusal to allow
this communication to occur would impact Rodgers decision concerning:

A) the auditor’s ability to design audit tests.
B) possible scope exception due to lack of access.
C) integrity of management concerning possible accounting misstatements.
D) violation of the GAAP rules concerning consistency and comparability of financial information.

A

Answer: C

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15
Q

5) A successor auditor may perform which of the following for a new audit client?
A)
Speak to local attorneys, banks and other
businesses regarding the company’s reputation
Speak to the predecessor auditors about
disagreements they had with management
Yes Yes
B)
Speak to local attorneys, banks and other
businesses regarding the company’s reputation
Speak to the predecessor auditors about
disagreements they had with management
No No
C)
Speak to local attorneys, banks and other
businesses regarding the company’s reputation
Speak to the predecessor auditors about
disagreements they had with management
Yes No
D)
Speak to local attorneys, banks and other
businesses regarding the company’s reputation
Speak to the predecessor auditors about
disagreements they had with management
No Yes

A

Answer: A

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16
Q

6) Which of the following is not correct regarding an auditor’s decision that a lower acceptable audit risk
is appropriate?
A) More evidence is accumulated.
B) Less evidence is accumulated.
C) Special care is required in assigning experienced staff.
D) Review of audit documentation is performed by personnel not assigned to the engagement.

A

Answer: B

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17
Q

7) A written understanding detailing what the auditors will do in determining if the financial statements
are fair representations of the company’s financial statements and what the auditor expects from the
client in performing an audit will normally be expressed in the

A) management letter requested by the auditor.
B) engagement letter.
C) Audit Plan.
D) Audit Strategy for the client.

A

Answer: B

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18
Q

8) If an auditor is requested to perform nonaudit services for a public company audit client, who is
responsible for agreeing to those services with the audit firm?
A) the client’s management
B) the client’s chief executive officer
C) the client’s chief financial officer
D) the client’s audit committee

A

Answer: D

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19
Q

9) Which of the following statements is true regarding communications between predecessor and
successor auditors?
A) The burden of initiating the communication rests with the predecessor.
B) The predecessor’s response can be limited to stating that no information will be provided.
C) The predecessor should communicate with the successor only if the client is public.
D) There must be communication between the predecessor and successor if the successor is to accept the
engagement

A

Answer: B

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20
Q

10) The purpose of an engagement letter is to:
A) document the CPA firm’s responsibility to external users of the audited financial statements.
B) document the terms of the engagement.
C) notify the audit staff of an upcoming engagement so that personnel scheduling can be facilitated.
D) emphasize management’s responsibility for approving the audit program

A

Answer: B

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21
Q

11) Written communication that the auditor will provide reasonable assurance for the detection of fraud
is found in:
A) engagement letter.
B) representation letter.
C) responsibility letter.
D) client letter

A

Answer: A

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22
Q

12) Which of the following normally signs the engagement letter for an audit of a private company?
A) Management.
B) Board of directors representative
C) Audit committee representative
D) Corporate treasure

A

Answer: A

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23
Q

13) The first standard of field work, which states that the work is to be adequately planned and that
assistants, if any, are to be properly supervised, recognizes that:

A) early appointment of the auditor is advantageous to the auditor and the client.
B) acceptance of an audit engagement after the close of the client’s fiscal year is generally not permissible.
C) appointment of the auditor subsequent to the physical count of inventories requires a disclaimer of
opinion.
D) performance of substantial parts of the examination is necessary at interim dates.

A

Answer: A

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24
Q

14) An engagement letter sent to a publicly held audit client usually would not include a:
A) reference to the auditor’s responsibility for the detection of errors or irregularities.
B) estimation of the time to be spent on the audit work by audit staff and management.
C) statement that management advisory services would be made available upon request.
D) reference to management’s responsibility for the financial statements.

A

Answer: C

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25
Q

15) Jennings and Company has repositioned the firm’s business strategy from the basis of competing on
costs to competing on product differentiation. All the following will increase, except:
A) Audit risk.
B) Business Risk.
C) Financial risk.
D) Risk of Material Misstatements.

A

Answer: A

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26
Q

16) The purpose of the requirement in having communication b etween the predecessor and successor
auditors is to:
A) allow the predecessor to disclose information which would otherwise be confidential.
B) help the successor auditor to evaluate whether to accept the engagement.
C) help the client by facilitating the change of auditors.
D) ensure the predecessor collects all unpaid fees prior to a change in auditor.

A

Answer: B

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27
Q

17) The predecessor auditor is required to respond to the request of the successor auditor for information,
but the response can be limited to stating that no information will be provided when:
A) the predecessor auditor has poor relations with the successor auditor.
B) the client is dissatisfied with the predecessor’s work.
C) there are actual or potential legal problems between the client and the predecessor.
D) the predecessor believes that the client lacks integrity

A

Answer: C

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28
Q

18) Which of the following best expresses the requirement to establish with the client an understanding of
the responsibilities the auditor and company is taking for the audit engagement?
A) Management asserts there are no material misstatements in the financials.
B) Auditors assert that the primary audit goal is audit efficiency.
C) Auditors assert that their primary responsibility is to plan and perform the audit in order to provide
reasonable assurance as to the detection of material misstatement due to error or fraud.
D) Management’s assertion that they will provide the auditor with a risk assessment as to material
misstatements due to errors or fraud in the company’s financial statements.

A

Answer: C

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29
Q

19) Early appointment of the independent auditor will enable:
A) a more thorough examination to be performed.
B) a proper study and evaluation of internal control to be performed.
C) sufficient competent evidential matter to be obtained.
D) a more efficient examination to be planned.

A

Answer: D

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30
Q

20) An auditor who accepts an audit engagement and does not possess the industry expertise of the
business entity should:
A) engage financial experts familiar with the nature of the business entity.
B) obtain a knowledge of matters that relate to the nature of the entity’s business.
C) refer a substantial portion of the audit to another CPA who will act as the principal audit or.
D) first inform management that an unqualified opinion cannot be issued

A

Answer: B

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31
Q

21) Which is usually included in an engagement letter?
A)
Estimate of hours required to
complete audit
Dollar estimate of fees to be billed to
the client
Yes Yes
B)
Estimate of hours required to
complete audit
Dollar estimate of fees to be billed to
the client
No No
C)
Estimate of hours required to
complete audit
Dollar estimate of fees to be billed to
the client
Yes No
D)
Estimate of hours required to
complete audit
Dollar estimate of fees to be billed to
the client
No Yes

A

Answer: D

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32
Q

22) Which is usually included in an engagement letter?
A)
A reference to GAAP A reference to GAAS
Yes Yes
B)
A reference to GAAP A reference to GAAS
No No
C)
A reference to GAAP A reference to GAAS
Yes No
D)
A reference to GAAP A reference to GAAS
No Yes

A

Answer: A

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33
Q

23) Which is usually included in an engagement letter?
A)
The financial statements are
the responsibility of the
company’s management
Ratios to be used by the auditor in the
planning phase
Yes Yes
B)
The financial statements are
the responsibility of the
company’s management
Ratios to be used by the auditor in the
planning phase
No No
C)
The financial statements are
the responsibility of the
company’s management
Ratios to be used by the auditor in the
planning phase
Yes No
D)
The financial statements are
the responsibility of the
company’s management
Ratios to be used by the auditor in the
planning phase
No Yes

A

Answer: C

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34
Q

24) When may the auditor refer to a specialist in the audit report?
A)
Only if the specialist’s report
results in a modification of the audit
opinion
Only if the specialist assisted in the
audit of an account material to the
financial statements
Yes Yes
B)
Only if the specialist’s report
results in a modification of the audit
opinion
Only if the specialist assisted in the
audit of an account material to the
financial statements
No No
C)
Only if the specialist’s report
results in a modification of the audit
opinion
Only if the specialist assisted in the
audit of an account material to the
financial statements
Yes No
D)
Only if the specialist’s report
results in a modification of the audit
opinion
Only if the specialist assisted in the
audit of an account material to the
financial statements
No Yes

A

Answer: C

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35
Q

25) Which is usually included in the engagement letter?
A)
The projected type of opinion on the financials
statement to be audited
Name(s) of the client personnel responsible for
supplying the auditor with information
Yes Yes
B)
The projected type of opinion on the financials
statement to be audited
Name(s) of the client personnel responsible for
supplying the auditor with information
No No
C)
The projected type of opinion on the financials
statement to be audited
Name(s) of the client personnel responsible for
supplying the auditor with information
Yes No
D)
The projected type of opinion on the financials
statement to be audited
Name(s) of the client personnel responsible for
supplying the auditor with information
No Yes

A

Answer: B

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36
Q

26) Which is usually included in the engagement letter?
A)
List of audit procedures to be used
in inventory observation The auditors’ assessment of Audit Risk
Yes Yes
B)
List of audit procedures to be used
in inventory observation The auditors’ assessment of Audit Risk
No No
C)
List of audit procedures to be used
in inventory observation The auditors’ assessment of Audit Risk
Yes No
D)
List of audit procedures to be used
in inventory observation The auditors’ assessment of Audit Risk
No Yes

A

Answer: B

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37
Q

27) Discuss the factors an auditor should consider before accepting a company as an audit client.

A

Answer: The auditor should investigate and consider the prospective client’s standing in the business
community, financial stability, management’s integrity, and relations with its bankers, attorneys, and
previous CPA firm. The auditor should also determine whether he or she possesses the required

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38
Q

28) Discuss the primary purpose of an audit engagement letter. Is an engagement letter required?

A

Answer: The purpose of an audit engagement letter is to establish a clear understanding between the
auditor and the client regarding the terms of the engagement. An engagement is required for both public
and private company audits.

39
Q

29) Discuss the essential activities involved in the initial planning of an audit

A

Answer: There are four essential activities involved in the initial planning of an audit. These are:
1. Client acceptance or continuation. In the case of a new client, the auditor must determine whether the
client is one with which (s)he wishes to be associated. In the case of a continuing client, an auditor must
determine whether continuing the relationship is appropriate and in the firm’s best interest.
2. The auditor should identify why the client wants or needs an audit. The auditor should determine
the reason for the audit as soon as practical. The remainder of the planning activities may be impacted by
the client’s reason for requesting the audit.
3. Obtain an understanding with the client about the terms of the engagement. An understanding with
the client should be obtained to avoid misunderstandings. Auditors are required to obtain an
understanding with their clients. This understanding must be written.
4. Develop an overall audit strategy. The strategy should consider the reasons for the audit, including
engagement staffing and any required audit specialists. Setting a strategy helps the auditor determine the
resources required for the engagement.

40
Q

30) Discuss the required communications between predecessor and successor auditors.

A

Answer: Auditing standards require a successor auditor to communicate with the predecessor auditor
whenever accepting a client that has been previously audited. The purpose of the communication is to
help the successor auditor evaluate whether to accept the engagement. While the burden of initiating the
communication rests on the successor auditor, the predecessor auditor must respond to the request for
information. However, because of the requirements related to confidentiality, the predecessor must
obtain the former client’s permission prior to providing information to the successor.
Terms: Required communications between predecessor and successor auditors

41
Q

31) Discuss several reasons why an auditor may not wish to continue a relationship with an existing audit
client

A

Answer: There are a number of reasons an auditor may choose not to continue a relationship with an
existing client. Examples include:
1. Previous conflicts over accounting issues, scope of the audit, type of opinion, or fees.
2. Management integrity may be deemed to be insufficient.
3. Legal action initiated by either the auditor or client related to prior audit services.
4. If fees remain unpaid for services performed more than one year prior to the date of the current year’s
audit report.
5. The presence of excessive risk which could result in financial failure of the client or lawsuits against
the audit firm.

42
Q

32) Discuss four of the matters that should be specified in an engagement letter.

A

Answer: Matters that should be specified in the engagement letter include:
* Whether the auditor will perform an audit, a review, or a compilation, plus any other services such as
tax returns or management advisory services.
* Any restrictions to be imposed on the auditor’s work.
* Restrictions on the audit work and deadlines for completing the audit.
* Assistance to be provided by the client’s personnel in obtaining records and documents, and
schedules to be prepared for the auditor.
* Agreement on fees.
* The letter should state that the auditor is not responsible for the discovery of all acts of fraud.

43
Q

33) Before accepting a new client, most CPA firms investigate the company to determine its acceptabilit y.
However, AICPA confidentiality requirements prohibit CPA firms from contacting certain parties–
namely the company’s attorneys and bankers–during this investigation.
A) True
B) False

A

Answer: B

44
Q

34) For prospective clients that have previously been audited by another CPA firm, the predecessor
auditor is required to communicate with the successor auditor.
A) True
B) False

A

Answer: B

45
Q

35) When a successor auditor contacts a company’s previous auditor, the predecessor auditor is required
to respond fully and without limit to the request for information.

A) True
B) False

A

Answer: B

46
Q

36) A predecessor auditor who has been contacted by a successor auditor for information about the client
does not have to obtain permission from the former client before providing any confidential information
to the successor auditor because the confidentiality requirement does not extend to former clients.
A) True
B) False

A

Answer: B

47
Q

37) An auditor must evaluate a specialist’s professional qualifications and understand the objectives of
the specialist’s work.
A) True
B) False

A

Answer: A

48
Q

38) To evaluate a specialist’s work the auditor must himself/herself be considered a specialist.
A) True
B) False

A

Answer: B

49
Q

An engagement letter establishes a clear understanding of the terms of the engagement between the
client and the auditor, but it is optional for private companies
A) True
B) False

A

Answer: A

50
Q

40) Because of the requirements of Rule 201 of the AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct which state that
auditors should “undertake only those professional services that the member or the member’s firm can
reasonably expect to be completed with professional competence,” auditors are not normally permitted to
consult with, or rely on the work of, outside specialists during an audit engagement.
A) True
B) False

A

Answer: B

51
Q

41) If a prospective client has been audited in the past, the successor auditor will typically rely solely on
the representations about the client by the predecessor auditor.
A) True
B) False

A

Answer: B

52
Q

42) A major consideration in assigning staff to an audit engagement is the experience levels required for
the work, while a less important consideration is maintaining staff continuity on the engagement.
A) True
B) False

A

Answer: B

53
Q

43) When a successor auditor requests information from a company’s previous auditor, and there are
legal problems or disputes between the client and the predecessor auditor, the predecessor auditor’s
response to the new auditor may be limited to stating that no information will be provided.
A) True
B) False

A

Answer: A

54
Q

44) An engagement letter can affect the CPA firm’s legal responsibilities to the client, but does not affect
responsibility to external users of audited financial statements.
A) True
B) False

A

Answer: A

55
Q

1) In making client acceptance decisions the audit firm will consider:
A) inherent and control risk of the client.
B) audit risk to the CPA Firm.
C) the client’s business risk and the CPA Firm’s engagement risk.
D) CPA Firm’s potential ongoing revenue from the audit client

A

Answer: C

56
Q

2) Most auditors assess inherent risk as high for related parties and related-party transactions because:
A) of the unique classification of related-party transactions required on the balance sheet.
B) of the lack of independence between the parties.
C) of the unique classification of related-party transactions required on the income statement.
D) it is required by generally accepted accounting principles.

A

Answer: B

57
Q

3) The audit team gathers information about a new client’s business and industry in order to obtain:
A) an understanding of the clients internal control system for financial reporting.
B) an understanding of how economic events and transactions have an effect on the company’s financial
statements.
C) information about engagement risk.
D) information regarding whether the company is engaging in financial statement fraud.

A

Answer: B

58
Q

4) The auditor determines that Mathews Company occupies the 3rd floor of an office tower for which it
pays no rent. The most likely explanation is:
A) they got lucky the landlord hasn’t noticed the lack of payments.
B) landlord has weak internal controls over billings.
C) related party transaction in which a major shareholder owns the office tower.
D) Matthews Company is engaging in fraudulent activities.

A

Answer: C

59
Q

5) An official record of meetings of the board of directors and stockholders is included in the corporate:
A) bylaws.
B) charter.
C) minutes.
D) license

A

Answer: C

60
Q

6) Related party transactions may be indicated when another company:
A) Subsidizes certain operating expenses of the company
B) Purchases its securities at their fair value
C) Loans to company at market rates
D) Has had a distributor relationship with the company for 10 years

A

Answer: A

61
Q

7) Which one of the following is not an inherent risk factor in the financial statements?
A) The company made 3 acquistions during the year in different lines of business.
B) The company’s industry is experiencing downward pricing pressure for its goods and services.
C) The company’s inventory, because of multiple locations, is difficult to count.
D) The company has hired 3 different chief accounting officers for the year.

A

Answer: C

62
Q

8) An auditor should examine minutes of the board of directors’ meetings:
A) through the date of the financial statements.
B) through the date of the audit report.
C) only at the beginning of the audit.
D) on a test basis.

A

Answer: B

63
Q

9) Which of the following would not likely be classified as a related-party transaction?
A) an advance of one week’s salary to an employee
B) sales of merchandise between affiliated companies
C) loans or credit sales to the principal owner of the client company
D) exchanges of equipment between two companies owned by the same person

A

Answer: A

64
Q

10) Which of the following best describes the coporate minutes of an entity?
A) official record of the meetings of the board of directors and the stockholders
B) unofficial record of the meeting of the board of directors
C) official record of management meeting with investors and creditors of the company
D) unofficial record of the board of directors meetings

A

Answer: A

65
Q

11) An auditor searching for related party transactions should obtain an understanding of each
subsidiary’s relationship to the total entity because:
A) the business structure may be deliberately designed to obscure related party transactions.
B) this may reveal whether transactions would have taken place if the parties had been unrelated.
C) transactions may have been consummated on terms equivalent to arm’s-length transactions.
D) this may permit the audit of intercompany account balances to be performed as of concurrent dates.

A

Answer: B

66
Q

12) Define the term “related party” and discuss why an auditor should identify the client’s related parties
early in the audit.

A

Answer: A related party is an affiliated company, principal owner of the client company, or any other
party with which the client deals where one of the parties can influence the management or operating
policies of the other. Auditors need to be aware of who the client’s related parties are early in the audit to
enable the auditor to identify related-party transactions, especially those that have not been disclosed.

67
Q

15) There are three primary reasons for obtaining a thorough understanding of the client’s industry and
external environment. What are these reasons?

A

Answer: The three reasons are:
* Risks associated with specific industries may affect the auditor’s assessment of client business risk
and acceptable audit risk.
* Certain inherent risks are typically common to all clients in certain industries. Familiarity with those
risks aids the auditor in assessing their relevance to the client.
* Many industries have unique accounting requirements that the auditor must understand to evaluate
whether the client’s financial statements are in accordance with GAAP.

68
Q

16) Auditors should obtain copies of the client’s code of ethics and minutes of the meetings of the board
of directors to aid in their understanding of the company’s management and governance structure.
A) True
B) False

A

Answer: A

69
Q

17) Inherent risks typically vary across industries.
A) True
B) False

A

Answer: B

70
Q

18) Transactions with related parties must be disclosed in the financial statements if they are deemed to
be material
A) True
B) Fals

A

Answer: A

71
Q

19) All known related parties must be identified and included in the auditor’s permanent files related to
the client.
A) True
B) Fals

A

Answer: A

72
Q

20) Generally, auditors assess inherent risk as moderate for related party transactions because they expect
clients to be aware of their scrutiny of such transactions.
A) True
B) False

A

Answer: B

73
Q

21) The cr code of ethics typically establishes the company’s fiscal year and frequency of stockholder
meetings.
A) True
B) False

A

Answer: B

74
Q

22) Ordinarily, the auditor should review corporate minutes during the later stages of an audit.
A) True
B) False

A

Answer: B

75
Q

23) Material transactions between the client and the client’s related parties must be disclosed in the
auditor’s report.
A) True
B) False

A

Answer: B

76
Q

24) Two categories of audit-relevant information found in corporate code of ethics are authorizations and
discussions of matters affecting inherent risk.
A) True
B) Fals

A

Answer: B

77
Q

1) An auditor has accessed client business risk and the risk to material misstatements to the clients
financial statements. These are done in order to:
A) apply the audit risk model in determining the appropriate audit procedures to perform.
B) determine the reliance on the company’s internal control systems for financial reporting.
C) determine the test of balances to be performed by the audit team.
D) assure the CPA firm that they can perform the audit effectively and efficiently

A

Answer: A

78
Q

2) Which of the following statements is most correct concerning audit risk?
A) Audit risk can be quantified with a reasonable degree of certainty.
B) Audit risk cannot be quantified with certainty.
C) Audit risk is the same for all audit client in the same industry.
D) Audit risk can be eliminated by having the correct audit procedures.

A

Answer: B

79
Q

3) Define business risk. List several factors that may impact the auditor’s assessment of business risk.
Answer: Business risk is the risk that a company will fail to achieve its objectives.
Factors that may impact business risk include:

A

General economic conditions,
* Extent of competition within an industry,
* Changing regulatory requirements,
* Competence of management,
* Ability to maintain sufficient cash flows and secure financing, and
* Successful implementation of business strategies.

80
Q

1) Auditors routinely conduct analytical procedures in the planning, testing, and completion phases of
the audit. Identify the primary and secondary purposes of performing analytical procedures in each
phase of the audit.

A

Answer:
* Planning — The primary purposes are to understand the client’s business and industry and indicate
areas of possible misstatements. The secondary purposes are to assess going concern and reduce the
extent of detailed tests.
* Testing — The primary purpose is to reduce the extent of detailed tests, while the secondary purpose
is to indicate areas of possible misstatements.
* Completion —The primary purpose is to indicate areas of possible misstatements, while the
secondary purpose is to assess going concern.

81
Q

During audit planning, the auditor uses analytical procedures primarily to:
A) identify weaknesses in internal control.
B) determine if the company’s financial statements appear reasonable and are free of material
misstatement.
C) determine the correspondence of the company’s financial statements to the valuation and accuracy
audit objectives.
D) understand the client’s business and industry and to indicate possible misstatements.

A

Answer: D

82
Q

2) Which of the following is most correct with respect to the use of analytical procedures?
A) Analytical procedures may be used in evaluating balances in the testing phase as long as the auditor
also uses them in assessing the going concern assumption.
B) Analytical procedures must be used throughout the audit.
C) Analytical procedures used in the testing phase of the audit are primarily used to direct an auditor’s
attention so that the auditor’s understanding of the business is improved.
D) Analytical procedures are performed by studying plausible relationships between financial and
nonfinancial data

A

Answer: D

83
Q

3) Which of the following statements is not correct?
A) Analytical procedures used in the planning phase of the audit are primarily directed at understanding
the client’s business and directing the auditor’s attention to areas that may contain possible
misstatements.
B) Analytical procedures used in the completion phase are primarily aimed at assessing going concern
and secondarily aimed at directing the auditor’s attention to areas that may contain possible
misstatements.
C) Analytical procedures must be used in the planning and completion phases of the audit, and are
optional in the testing phase.
D) Analytical procedures used in the completion phase are primarily aimed at directing the auditor’s
attention to areas that may contain possible misstatements and secondarily aimed at assessing going
concern

A

Answer: B

84
Q

4) Discuss the four primary purposes of analytical procedures performed during the planning phase of an
audit.

A

Answer: The four primary purposes of preliminary analytical procedures are:
* to help the auditor understand the client’s industry and business,
* to help the auditor assess the going concern assumption,
* to indicate areas of possible misstatements, and
* to reduce the extent of detailed tests.

85
Q

5) One purpose of performing preliminary analytical procedures in the planning phase of an audit is to
help the auditor make a preliminary assessment of control risk.
A) True
B) False

A

Answer: B

86
Q

1) Which of the following best describes the first standard of field work?
A) The auditor must adequately plan the work and properly supervise any assistants.
B) The auditor must have adequate technical training and proficiency to perform the audit.
C) The auditor must maintain independence in mental attitude in all matters relating to the audit.
D) The auditor must exercise due professional care in the performance of the audit and the preparation of
the report

A

Answer: C

87
Q

2) Which of the following would not be classified as an analytical procedure?
A) Benchmarking the company’s profitability ratios against others in the industry.
B) Variance analysis of actual versus budgeted amounts for production.
C) Reperforming the client’s depreciation expense using the client’s accounting policies for capital
expenditures made during the year.
D) Reconciling fixed asset dispositions with the fixed asset ledger .

A

Answer: D

88
Q

3) Which of the following statements is not correct with respect to analytical procedures?
A) Auditing standards emphasize the need for auditors to develop and use expectations.
B) Analytical procedures must be performed throughout the audit.
C) Analytical procedures may be performed at any time during the audit.
D) Analytical procedures use comparisons and relationships to assess whether account balances appear
reasonable

A

Answer: B

89
Q

4) When performing planning analytical procedures for a client the auditor detected that the gross profit
percentage had declined by 50% from the previous year to the year currently under audit. The auditor
should:
A) investgate the possibility the client may have made an error in their cost of goods sold computation.
B) assist management in developing greater cost efficiencies in their product line.
C) prepare a going concern opinion for the client.
D) advise the client to have extensive disclosure to alleviate investor concerns.

A

Answer: A

90
Q

5) When are auditors likely to encounter judgment problems in the use of analytical procedures?
A) Whenever the auditor places reliance on management’s explanations for unusual fluctuations in
account balances without first developing independent expectations.
B) Whenever the auditor allows unaudited balances to unduly influence his/her expectations of current
balances.
C) Whenever the auditor fails to consider the pattern reflected by several unusual fluctuations when
trying to explain what caused them.
D) The auditor is likely to encounter judgment problems in each of the above instances.

A

Answer: D

91
Q

6) The major concern when using nonfinancial data in analytical procedures is the:
A) accuracy of the nonfinancial data.
B) source of the nonfinancial data.
C) type of nonfinancial data.
D) presence of multiple sources of nonfinancial data.

A

Answer: A

92
Q

7) Whenever an auditor compares client data to client-prepared budgets, there are two special concerns.
Indicate if the two items below are concerns.
A)
Assessing whether the budgets were
realistic plans
Client data may have been altered to
conform to the budget
A concern A concern
B)
Assessing whether the budgets were
realistic plans
Client data may have been altered to
conform to the budget
Not a concern Not a concern
C)
Assessing whether the budgets were
realistic plans
Client data may have been altered to
conform to the budget
A concern Not a concern
D)
Assessing whether the budgets were
realistic plans
Client data may have been altered to
conform to the

A

Answer: A

93
Q

1) Which is a liquidity activity ratio?
A) Profit margin
B) Inventory turnover
C) Return on assets
D) Times interest earned

A

Answer: B