AUD Flashcards

1
Q

What does TID stand for in the GAAS general standards?

A

Training, Independence, and Due professional care

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2
Q

What does PIE stand for in the standards of field work?

A

Planning and supervision, Internal Control, and Evidence

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3
Q

What does GCDO stand for in the standards of reporting?

A

GAAP, Consistency, Disclosure, and Opinion

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4
Q

When is an adverse opinion rendered?

A

When a severe GAAP departure is present in the financial statements.

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5
Q

What are the two main differences between the standards of attestation and the auditing standards?

A

The attestation standards and generally accepted auditing standards differ conceptually in two main areas: 1) the attestation standards provide a framework for the attest function beyond historical financial statements; and 2) the attestation standards provide for the growing number of attest services in which the practitioner expresses assurances in forms other than the positive opinion.

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6
Q

Formula for days sales in acc receivable?

A

Acc rec / credit sales per day.Credit sales per day = Total credit sales / 365.

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7
Q

Adj entry for wages at end of year that weren’t recorded:

A

DR: Operating expensesCR: Accrued wages payable(accrued liab)

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8
Q

Why would an auditor modify the auditor’s report based on the work of a specialist?

A

If there is a difference between the specialist’s valuation of an asset and the client’s.

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9
Q

who should make up the audit committee?

A

members of the board or directors who are not officers or employees

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10
Q

what are the 3 general standards?

A

adequete training, independence of mental attitude, and due professional care

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11
Q

3 fieldwork standards?

A

adequete planning, understanding the entity and its internal control, sufficient and appropriate audit evidence

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12
Q

the auditors judgment of the overall fairness of the financial statements is applied within the framework of?

A

generally accepted audit principles

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13
Q

what does the auditor primarily use to come up with materiality?

A

the prior year financial statements

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14
Q

basics of independence concerning a close relative?

A

CR can have a financial interest in the audit client as long as the amount is immaterial to them. CR can work for the audit client as long as its not in accounting or financial reporting. CR can work for audit firm, and is not a covered member unless the person works on the engagement team or can influence the members of the engagement team or the audit itself

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15
Q

when planning a new audit, why would the auditor consider the methods used to process accounting information?

A

Because the methods influence the design of internal control

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16
Q

who appoints the PCAOB?

A

SOX created the PCAOB and it is overseen by the SEC

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17
Q

under securities act of 1934 what organizations are required to submit audited financial statements?

A

every company traded on national and over the counter exchanges

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18
Q

primary purpose of establishing quality control procedures for deciding whether to accept a new client?

A

minimize likelihood of association with clients whose management lack integrity

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19
Q

to succeed in legal action against the auditor, the client must be able to show that?

A

the CPA had duty to perform, the CPA breached the contract, the client suffered losses, and that there is a close causal connection between the auditor’s behavior and the damages suffered by the client

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20
Q

detection risk?

A

risk that auditor concludes no material misstatement exists when there actually is one

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21
Q

3 components of audit risk?

A

inherent risk, control risk, detection risk. They are multiplied together: .8 x .75 x .25 = .15 audit risk

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22
Q

if inherent risk is .8 and control risk is .2, what does the auditor do to lower audit risk?

A

increase and perform substantive testing to reduce detection risk to the point that it equals the acceptable level of audit risk

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23
Q

why are inherent risk and control risk different than detection risk?

A

inherent risk is the possibility of a material mistatement due to lack of human and system technology. Control risk is risk of material error that is not prevented or detected on a timely basis by the client’s internal controls. Detection risk is risk that the auditor misses a material error. Thus, inherent risk and control risk are functions of the client and its environment while detection risk is not

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24
Q

the risk of material misstatement refers to:

A

the combination of inherent & control risk. Multiplying IR by CR results in the ‘risk of material misstatement’

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25
Q

the level of detection risk is inversely related to:

A

the assurance provided by substantive tests. As the auditor performs substantive procedures he becomes more and more sure there are no material errors exist, and detection risk goes down

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26
Q

the audit program should be designed so that sufficient evidence is gathered to:

A

support the auditor’s conclusions

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27
Q

Do most illegal acts affect the fin statements directly or indirectly?

A

indirectly.

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28
Q

if you uncover an illegal act at a public company, the auditor is required to notify:

A

the SEC

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29
Q

when auditor has reason to believe an illegal act has ocurred, he should do what?

A

consider accumulating additional evidence, inquire of management at a level above those who did the act, and consult with the client’s legal counsel

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30
Q

what is lapping fraud?

A

you steal customer A’s money, then you get customer B’s money and apply it to A’s account, then get C’s money and apply it to B’s account, and so on

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31
Q

what is kiting?

A

money is moved from one account to the other but in different time periods to inflate the amount being reported

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32
Q

does the PCAOB make auditing standards that must be followed by all CPAs?

A

it only makes auditing standards for public companies

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33
Q

is the PCAOB a gov agency?

A

no

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34
Q

what is an S-1 form?

A

a form that must be filed with the SEC whenever a company plans to issue new securities to the public

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35
Q

what is auditors responsibility for supplementary information such as segment info?

A

auditor should apply limited procedures to the required info and report deficiencies in or omission of such info

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36
Q

who creates auditing standards for private companies?

A

the AICPA

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37
Q

what is form 8-K?

A

the form filed with SEC to report a significant event

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38
Q

how long do you have to dispose of stock in a client if you inherited some unsolicited?

A

30 days

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39
Q

do operating leases and claims against clients for immaterial amounts impair indedpence?

A

no

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40
Q

are statements in the standards that include the word “should” mandatory?

A

they are considered presumptively mandatory- the auditor can depart from them if justification is documented

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41
Q

what is the completeness assertion concerned with?

A

determining that all transactions are recorded

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42
Q

in testing the existence assertion for an asset, the auditor normally works from the ______ to the _______

A

accounting records to the supporting evidence

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43
Q

according to SOX how long does a firm keep audit documentation?

A

have to keep it 7 years

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44
Q

what is the best place to put in writing the understanding between client and firm about what will take place during the audit?

A

the engagement letter

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45
Q

to see if checks are being issued for unauthorized purchases, the auditor would most likely select testing from the population of:

A

canceled checks

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46
Q

what does tracing shipping docs to sales invoices accomplish?

A

that all items shipments have been invoiced

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47
Q

most effective control over recorded purchases?

A

supporting forms such as purchases orders and receiving reports are independently compared for agreement

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48
Q

if trying to detect overstatement of sales, you start with the:

A

accounting records and trace to the source documents

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49
Q

what is pervasiveness?

A

the extent to which an exception affects different parts of the financial statements

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50
Q

difference between adverse opinion and disclaimer of opinion?

A

adverse opinion is stating that the financials do not fairly present the position of company in accordance to GAAP. Disclaimer of opinion is when a material uncertainty affects the financials

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51
Q

what paragraph explicitly states the auditors responsibility to express an opinion?

A

the opening paragraph of the standard audit report

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52
Q

when would a lack of independence cause a disclaimer of opinion?

A

in all cases

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53
Q

if the financials and/or footnotes fail to disclose information that is required by GAAP, what type of opinion is issued?

A

adverse or qualified. if qualified, an extra paragraph would be added that describes the nature of the missing info, and the opinion paragraph would have an extra sentence “except for the information discussed in previous paragraph”

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54
Q

on a public company audit, are the reports on the financial statements and internal controls issued separately or combined?

A

it can be either

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55
Q

what are the 2 situations which result in a qualified opinion?

A

1) when the statements are materially misstated due to one account balance or class of transaction that does not have a pervasive effect on the statements2)when the auditor is unable to obtain audit evidence regarding a particular account balance that does not pervasively affect the statementsEssentially either a single deviation from GAAP or a scope limitation. The report itself is very similar to an unqualified opinion but an extra paragraph is added to explain the qualification after the scope paragraph but before the opinion paragraph

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56
Q

how many paragraphs does a standard unqualified report have and what are they?

A
  1. The introductory paragraph states the audit work performed and states the responsibility of the auditor and auditee in relation to the financial statements, the scope paragraph details the scope of the audit work, and the opinion paragraph simply states the unqualified opinion
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57
Q

when is an adverse opinion issued and how does the report change?

A

Adverse is the opposite of an unqualified opinion. It means that the financial statements as a whole are materially misstated and do not conform with GAAP. or the “differ pervasively” from GAAP. On the report, the scope paragraph is modified accordingly and an explanatory paragraph is added after the scope paragraph but before the opinion paragraph. In the opinion paragraph, the auditor specifically states that the statements are not in accordance with GAAP.

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58
Q

What situations would result in a disclaimer of opinion?

A

When the auditor is not independent or there is a conflict of interest.When a limitation on scope is imposed by the client and the auditor cant gather sufficient audit evidence.When there is a substantial going concern issue.When there are significant uncertainties in the business of the client.

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59
Q

when an auditor selects one or a few transactions and follows them through the entire accounting process, he is doing what?

A

a walkthrough. A walkthrough combines observation, documentation, and inquiry. PCAOB Standard 2 requires at least one walkthrough per major class of transaction

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60
Q

which section of SOX requires mgmt to issue an internal control report?

A

Section 404 requires auditors to assess and report on the effectiveness of the internal control over financial reporting

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61
Q

what is the definition of incompatible functions?

A

those that place any person in a position to both perpetrate and conceal errors or irregularities in the normal course of their duties. well designed controls should separate the duties of authorization, record keeping and custody of assets

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62
Q

what is the primary purpose of the auditors consideration of internal controls?

A

to determine the nature, extent, and timing of audit tests to be applied

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63
Q

if the auditor finds a reportable condition in internal controls, who should they tell first?

A

the audit commitee

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64
Q

if after understanding the ICs the auditor decides to perform tests of controls, the auditor most likely decided that:

A

it would be efficient to perform tests of controls that would result in a reduction in planned substantive tests

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65
Q

what is the concept of reasonable assurance?

A

recognizes that the cost of internal controls should not exceed the benefits derived

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66
Q

7 factors of the control environment: (I see ham bone)

A

I- integrity and ethical valuesC- commitment to competenceH- human resource policies and practicesA- assignment of authority and responsibilityM- management’s philosophy and operating styleB- board of directors or audit committee participationO- organization

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67
Q

even the best designed IC can fail due to:

A

human error, faulty judgement, collusion, management override

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68
Q

what are the five components of internal control? (clowns run cartels in mexico)

A

1) control environment2) risk assessment3) control activities4) information and communication5) monitoring

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69
Q

***What is the process of assessing risk in general?

A

You assess inherent risk and control risk to determine the amount of substantive testing that must be carried out to reduce detection risk to a level so that overall risk will still achieve an acceptably low level. Acceptable audit risk is not changed.

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70
Q

what is the audit risk formula?

A

inherent risk X control risk X detection risk = overall audit risk

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71
Q

the auditor uses the assessed level of control risk to determine the acceptable level of

A

detection risk for financial statement assertions

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72
Q

if auditor increases the level of control risk because controls are found to be ineffective, the auditor would most likely increase the

A

extent of tests of details

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73
Q

what do assertions about existence or occurrence deal with?

A

whether assets or liabilities exist at a given date and whether recorded transactions have occurred during a given period

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74
Q

when an auditor assesses control risk as low, he must:

A

identify specific policies and procedures that are likely to prevent or detect material misstatements, and he must perform tests of controls to evaluate the effectiveness of such policies and procedures. if the tests of controls result in the control risk being assessed as low, then the auditor may limit the extent of substantive testing

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75
Q

what does ‘information and communication’ refer to as far as internal control within an organization?

A

the ability of the accounting system to generate reliable info and convey it in a timely manner to the parties in the organization that need it

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76
Q

What are the 5 assertions about classes of transactions and events for the period?Alistair Overeem Cant Cut Corners

A

Accuracy- amounts and other data have been recorded appropriatelyOccurrence- transactions and events that have been recorded have occurredCompleteness- all transactions and events that should have been recorded have been recordedCutoff- transactions and events have been recorded in the correct accounting periodClassification- transactions and events have been recorded in the proper accounts

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77
Q

4 assertions about account balances at end of period?Even Cain Realizes Value

A

Existence- assets, liabilities, and equity interests existCompleteness- all assets, liabilities, and equity that should have been recorded have been recordedrights and obligations- the entity holds or controls the rights to assets, and liabilities are the obligations of the entityValuation and allocation- assets, liabilities, and equity interests are included in the financial statements at appropriate amounts and any resulting valuation or allocation adjustments are appropriately recorded

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78
Q

4 assertions about presentation and disclosure:Overeem Can’t Complain Anymore

A

Occurrence & rights and obligations- disclosed events and transactions have occurred and pertain to the entityCompleteness- all disclosures that should have been included have been includedClassification and understandability- financial information is appropriately presented, described, and clearly expressedAccuracy and valuation- financial and other info are disclosed fairly and at appropriate amounts

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79
Q

why is it best to have “blind” invoices received by the receiving department?

A

to make sure the receiving dep counts the incoming merchandise so that they only pay for what they received

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80
Q

what is the purpose of purchase cutoff testing?

A

to determine that items actually received in inventory have been included in the proper period

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81
Q

what is an integrated test facility?

A

it puts fake transactions in with real transactions which are processed together without client employees knowing it

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82
Q

a person who mails signed checks can also:

A

cancel the supporting documents

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83
Q

an effective control over purchases would be to have the purchasing department authorized to:

A

purchase, but not initiate purchases

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84
Q

an increased extent of tests of controls is most likely to occur when:

A

controls appear to be effective so that the preliminary control risk assessment is low. this is because auditor can then do less substantive testing.

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85
Q

are significant deficiencies and material weaknesses supposed to be relayed orally or written to those charged with governance?

A

AU 325 says that sig def and material weaknesses in a public company must be communicated in writing to the audit committee of the board of directors

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86
Q

when should control deficiencies be reported?

A

either during the audit or after the audit’s completion, within 60 days of the report release date

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87
Q

management must disclose material weaknesses in internal control if the weakness exists:

A

at the end of the year

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88
Q

what are the 2 types of control deficiency?

A

design and operations. design means its poorly designed, while operations means the people performing their tasks are doing them deficiently

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89
Q

what is ratio estimation used for?

A

to measure the total estimated error amount within a population

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90
Q

there is an inverse relationship between sample size and:

A

tolerable error. as the tolerable error decreases the sample size would increase

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91
Q

what is sampling risk?

A

the risk that the sample chosen doesn’t accurately represent the population

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92
Q

How is the allowance for sampling risk calculated?

A

It’s the difference between the upper limit and the deviation rate of the sample.

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93
Q

what are embedded audit modules?

A

coded into the clients system to collect data for the auditor

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94
Q

purpose of test data approach?

A

test data is entered with a known outcome into client’s system to see if it produces same result

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95
Q

under the PCAOB standards, a scope limitation related to internal controls over financial reporting should result in:

A

a disclaimer of opinion.

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96
Q

if a control deficiency is discovered, what is the next step?

A

determine if it is a material weakness by gathering additional evidence

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97
Q

what opinion is rendered if there is one or more material weakness in internal control over fin reporting?

A

an adverse opinion

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98
Q

“if this statement is not correct… give details of difference directly to our auditors

A

acc rec confirmation

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99
Q

“in our opinion, these statements audited by us comply in all material respects”

A

comfort letter to underwriters

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100
Q

“no claims that OUR lawyer…”

A

management rep letter

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101
Q

“which raises substantial doubt about its ability to continue as a going concrern”

A

auditors report

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102
Q

CPA is associated with the financial statements, but is NOT independent

A

Compilation report

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103
Q

providing NEGATIVE assurance on a company’s financials

A

review report

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104
Q

material departure from GAAP but NOT materially misstated

A

qualified report for GAAP departure

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105
Q

The PCAOB was established by:

A

The Sarbanes Oxley Act of 2002

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106
Q

TF: GAAP does not allow a company to use different methods for costing different inventories

A

FALSE; GAAP does allow it as long as the methods are disclosed

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107
Q

An auditor’s active responsibility stops on:

A

the date of the auditor’s report

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108
Q

A division of responsibility affects the _____ and _____ paragraphs

A

auditor’s responsibility; opinion

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109
Q

A report on compliance in connection with audited financial statements provides only ________ assurance on compliance

A

negative

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110
Q

When reporting on a single financial statement, an auditor is NOT required to determine the materiality of ____________

A

the complete set of financial statements; ONLY determine the materiality of the single financial statement being reported on

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111
Q

Modifications are made to the standard review report only when there is a ____________

A

departure from GAAP

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112
Q

A ________ _______ must accompanied by compiled financial statements, as required by SSARS

A

compilation report

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113
Q

_____ analysis is used for balance sheet accounts

A

Ratio

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114
Q

TF: The entity’s ability to continue as a going concern is a factor when performing a review

A

FALSE

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115
Q

TF: SSARS and PCAOB standards apply when performing a review of interim information

A

FALSE; ONLY PCAOB

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116
Q

A review of interim information of an issuer is to provide an accountant with a basis for reporting whether:

A

material modifications should be made to conform with GAAP

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117
Q

_____ assurance is provided in comfort letters

A

Negative

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118
Q

______ assurance is allowed when reporting on the results of performing a review of management’s assertion

A

Negative

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119
Q

A management representation letter is not required for a ______ engagement

A

compilation

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120
Q

For agreed upon procedures, who is responsible for the sufficiency of the procedures?

A

Management and the audit committee

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121
Q

TF: An auditor issues an opinion on agreed upon procedures

A

False

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122
Q

TF: Limited assurance is provided for agreed upon procedures

A

False; only for review

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123
Q

Audit risk is:

A

the risk that the auditor may unknowingly fail to appropriately modify his/her opinion on materially misstated financial statements

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124
Q

Detection risk is:

A

the risk that an auditor will NOT detect a material misstatement that exists in an assertion

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125
Q

What risks exist independently of the financial statement audit?

A

Control and inherent risk

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126
Q

A lack of independent checks is a fraud risk factor that provides ____________ for misappropriation of assets

A

OPPORTUNITY

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127
Q

_____ assurance is provided for indirect effects on the financial statements

A

NO

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128
Q

An auditor of a nonissuer should design tests of details to ensure that sufficient audit evidence supports:

A

the planned level of assurance at the relevant assertion level

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129
Q

____ and inquiry may be used to evaluate the design of controls

A

Observation

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130
Q

Control risk is assessed to determine the risk that:

A

material misstatements exist in the financial statements

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131
Q

When obtaining an understanding of an entity’s internal controls, an auditor is/is not required to obtain knowledge about the operating effectiveness of controls

A

IS NOT

132
Q

The five components of internal controls are:

A

risk assessment, control environment, information and communication systems, monitoring and existing control activities

133
Q

When there are strong internal controls and the risk level is low, substantive procedures is:

A

minimal; however, do NOT eliminate for material balances, transaction classes or disclosures

134
Q

TF: When there are none or weak internal controls, it is required to perform controls tests

A

False; perform maximum substantive procedures

135
Q

TF: Both the auditor and management are responsible for complying with relevant laws and regulations

A

FALSE; management is responsible

136
Q

Who is responsible for coordinating client assistance?

A

Both management and the auditor

137
Q

The hiring of new personnel deals with _________, a component of internal control

A

risk assessment

138
Q

Segregation of duties deals with _______, a component of internal control

A

existing control activities

139
Q

Operating performance reviews deals with _______, a component of internal control

A

existing control activities

140
Q

Involves the comparison of recorded amounts, or ratios developed from recorded amounts, to expectations developed by the auditor is the definition of:

A

analytical procedures

141
Q

Unrealized gains on AFS securities should properly be recorded in:

A

other comprehensive income

142
Q

______ accounts tend to be more predictable

A

Income statement

143
Q

TF: The auditor’s risk assessment affects the relevance of audit evidence

A

FALSE; it affects the nature, extent and timing of audit procedures

144
Q

_______ provides evidence that a sale occurred

A

Shipping documents

145
Q

TF: Related party transactions are considered to be arms-length transactions

A

FALSE; NOT arms length

146
Q

Total debt/total assets indicates the portion of assets _______________, which is a meaningful ratio to calculate during the final audit review

A

financed by creditors

147
Q

Inventory turnover:

A

COGS/Average Inventory

148
Q

Return on assets

A

Net Income/Average Inventory

149
Q

A lower risk of incorrect acceptance results in:

A

a larger sample size

150
Q

Variables sampling is used to test:

A

whether an account balance is reasonable

151
Q

PPS sampling is used to:

A

estimate overstatement errors

152
Q

Statistical methods help plan the:

A

sample size

153
Q

_______________ is the auditor’s best estimate of the deviation rate in the population before the sampling plan is executed

A

expected deviation rate

154
Q

TF: Nonsampling risk can be measured in quantitative terms

A

False

155
Q

In an audit of an issuer, the auditor is required to provide an opinion on:

A

F/S and the effectiveness of internal control

156
Q

______ but not _______ results in an adverse opinion of the effectiveness of internal control

A

material weaknesses; significant deficiencies

157
Q

A material weakness exists when there is a ______ possibility of material misstatement

A

reasonable

158
Q

An entity level controls exists ______ of the audit

A

independently

159
Q

When does the evaluation of the operating effectiveness of internal controls occur?

A

AFTER the planning stage

160
Q

TF: The auditor cannot discuss the planned scope and timing of the audit with those charged with governance

A

FALSE; CAN discuss

161
Q

TF: Management representation letters may not contain a statement regarding subsequent events

A

FALSE; may contain

162
Q

TF: Representations about a client consulting with other auditors is required in a mgmt. rep letter

A

FALSE; NOT required

163
Q

TF: Independence is impaired when an auditor serves as an investment advisor to the employee benefit plan

A

True

164
Q

TF: Independence is required for preparation of a tax return

A

FALSE; NOT required

165
Q

TF: Under IFAC Code of Ethics (nonissuers), partner rotation is not required

A

TRUE

166
Q

A mutual fund constitutes a(n) _____ interest

A

indirect

167
Q

TF: Providing extensive advisory services to a client will impair an auditor’s independence

A

FALSE; will NOT

168
Q

Contingent fees are allowed when:

A

they involve a legal proceeding or ruling

169
Q

Section 404 of the SOX Act of 2002 requires:

A

each annual report of an issuer to include management’s assessment of the effectiveness of internal control over financial reporting

170
Q

If material instances of noncompliance are identified, the auditor should express:

A

either a qualified or adverse opinion on compliance

171
Q

Government Auditing Standards require that the auditor issue a written report on:

A

internal control in ALL audits

172
Q

Under the _______ Act, materiality is determined separately for each major federal financial assistance program

A

Single Audit

173
Q

Government Audit Standards define 3 types of engagements:

A

financial audits, attest engagements, and performance audits

174
Q

The _____ threat is the threat that a financial or other interest will inappropriately influence an auditor’s judgment or behavior

A

self interest

175
Q

________ threat is the threat that results from an auditor’s taking on the role of management or otherwise performing management functions on behalf of the entity undergoing an audit

A

Management participation

176
Q

The __________ is the financial reporting framework that is acceptable in view of the nature of the entity and the objective of the financial statements or that is required by law or regulation

A

applicable financial reporting framework

177
Q

The preparation and fair presentation of the financial statements requires identification of the applicable financial reporting framework, preparation and fair presentation of the financial statements in accordance with the framework AND:

A

inclusion of an adequate description of the framework in the financial statements

178
Q

The terms “may”, “might”, and “could” indicate ______ material

A

explanatory

179
Q

The terms “must” and “is required” indicate a(n) ______ requirement

A

unconditional

180
Q

The term “should” indicates a ______requirement

A

presumptively mandatory

181
Q

When reasonable assurance cannot be obtained and a qualified opinion in the auditor’s report is insufficient in the circumstances, GAAS requires that the auditor ___________ or ________ from the engagement

A

disclaim an opinion;withdraw

182
Q

An auditor must be independent of an entity when performing an engagement in accordance with GAAS unless GAAS provides otherwise or _____________

A

the auditor is required by law or regulation to accept the engagement and report on the financial statements

183
Q

GAAS is in the _____ paragraph

A

Auditor’s Responsibility

184
Q

GAAP is in the _____paragraph

A

Management’s Responsibility AND Opinion Paragraph

185
Q

TF: International Standards on Auditing permit the auditor’s report on group financial statements to make reference to a component auditor even if it is not required by law or regulation

A

FALSE; does NOT permit

186
Q

TF: The auditor is NOT required to inquire of management regarding conditions or events beyond the period of assessment that may cast significant doubt about the entity’s ability to continue phue as a going concern

A

FALSE; IS required

187
Q

The phrase “reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements are free of material misstatement is NOT required for ________ engagements

A

review

188
Q

The objective of tests of details used as tests of controls is to evaluate whether:

A

an internal control operated effectively

189
Q

TF: An integrated audit is required for an issuer

A

TRUE

190
Q

TF: An integrated audit is required for a noninssuer

A

FALSE; it may be performed but it is not required

191
Q

Only a _______ change would lead to an unmodified opinion with an _______ paragraph

A

justified; emphasis of matter

192
Q

_______ information is outside the basic financial statements

A

Supplementary

193
Q

If there is a problem with supplementary information, a(n) _________ paragraph is required

A

other matter

194
Q

TF: A report issued on significant deficiencies requires a statement of compliance with laws and regulations

A

FALSE

195
Q

______ is responsible for both the financial statements and for the selection and application of accounting principles

A

Management

196
Q

The International Code of Ethics includes the following fundamental principles:

A

confidentiality, objectivity, professional behavior, professional competence and due care, integrity, and objectivity

197
Q

TF: Failure to make minutes of B.O.D meetings available is a scope limitation that will prevent an unmodified opinion

A

TRUE

198
Q

The risk of incorrect rejection and assessing control risk too high affects the _______ of the audit

A

EFFICIENCY

199
Q

TF: Population variability has an inverse effect on sample size

A

FALSE; DIRECT

200
Q

If an auditor is unable to perform the necessary procedures for a review, the review is considered _______

A

incomplete; no review report should be issued

201
Q

TF: No assurance/opinion is provided for agreed upon procedures

A

TRUE

202
Q

The sufficiency of the agreed upon procedures is the responsibility of __________

A

the client

203
Q

TF: SSARS does not include the preparation of F/S in conjunction with litigation services that involved regulatory proceedings

A

TRUE

204
Q

_______ risk is the risk that the auditor will NOT detect a material misstatement that exists in a F/S assertion

A

Detection

205
Q

Deviation rates are used in tests of _____, NOT tests of ______

A

controls; balances

206
Q

When an entity has a going concern, a(n) ________ paragraph is used to emphasize the matter

A

emphasis of matter

207
Q

TF: A change in accounting principle does not result in an emphasis of matter paragraph appended to an otherwise unmodified opinion

A

FALSE; DOES result

208
Q

______ assurance may be expressed when an accountant is requested to report on the results of performing a review of management’s assertion

A

Negative

209
Q

For a review engagement, statements presented on OCBOA will require the auditor to:

A

modify the review report to reflect the fact that the F/S are presented on OCBOA; management NOT required to justify use of OCBOA

210
Q

TF: Analytical procedures performed during planning often use data aggregated at a low level

A

FALSE; high level

211
Q

A report on significant deficiencies in I/C should or should not be restricted

A

SHOULD

212
Q

TF: A financial expert is required to have significant audit experience as a CPA

A

FALSE

213
Q

International Standards on Auditing’s period of going concern is:

A

at least but NOT limited to twelve months from the balance sheet date

214
Q

International Standards on Auditing require the auditor to consider the going concern when?

A

Throughout the engagement (when planning and performing audit procedures and in evaluating the results of audit personnel)

215
Q

ADMITS: the procedures used to see if a company has a going concern

A

Analytical procedures, Debt compliance, Minutes (B.O.D.), inquiry, third parties, subsequent events review

216
Q

FINE: conditions that indicate substantial doubt about going concern

A

Financial difficulties, internal matters (substantial dependence on a particular project), negative trends, and external matters

217
Q

Mitigating factors for an entity’s ability to continue as a going concern:

A

plans to borrow money or restructure debt, plans to sell assets, plans to delay or reduce expenditures, plans to increase ownership equity

218
Q

International Standards on Auditing state that management has a responsibility to assess the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern and requires:

A

the auditor to evaluate management’s assessment; NOT required for US auditing standards

219
Q

TF: A disclaimer of opinion of appropriate for going concern uncertainty

A

TRUE (based on the auditor’s judgment); usually an emphasis of matter paragraph is used, however

220
Q

TF: US auditing standards require the auditor to obtain written representations from management regarding its plans for future action

A

FALSE; International Standards on Auditing

221
Q

Inadequate disclosure of a going concern results in a _________ or _______ opinion

A

qualified; adverse

222
Q

A significant going concern uncertainty may be result in a :

A

disclaimer of opinion

223
Q

_______ means that the information is reasonably obtainable from management’s accounts and records and that providing the information in the auditor’s report does NOT require the auditor to assume the position of a preparer of financial information

A

Practicable

224
Q

When there is an adverse opinion, the ______ paragraph refers to a note where the matter is described

A

basis for an adverse opinion

225
Q

Under US GAAS, a __________ opinion is only appropriate when the auditor is NOT able to gather sufficient, appropriate audit evidence

A

disclaimer

226
Q

If alternative procedures cannot be performed in order to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence, the auditor should express a ________ or _________ opinion

A

qualified; disclaimer

227
Q

International Standards on Auditing require the auditor to withdraw from the audit when the auditor is:

A

unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence due to a management imposed scope limitation

228
Q

When the auditor expresses a qualified opinion due to a scope limitation, the opinion paragraph states that the qualification relates to the possible effect of the matter on the F/S and NOT:

A

the scope limitation itself

229
Q

When the auditor is NOT independent but is REQUIRED by law or regulation to report on the F/S, the auditor should:

A

disclaim an opinion and should specifically state that the auditor is NOT independent; if reasons are disclosed, ALL reasons should be included

230
Q

When the prior year’s F/S were NOT audited and the current year’s F/S are being audited, the auditor is facing a ___________. The beginning balances may not be ascertainable and therefore a ________ opinion on the statements of income, retained earnings, and cash flows may be required

A

scope limitation; disclaimer

231
Q

Updating/changing prior opinions results in DORCS in an emphasis or other matter paragraph. DORCS is:

A

date of the auditor’s previous report, opinion type previously issued, reason for the prior opinion, changes that have occurred and statement that the “opinion….is different”

232
Q

Recognized Type 1 Events:

A

Conditions that exist on or before the B/S date; a F/S adjustment is required

233
Q

Recognized Type 2 Events:

A

Conditions that exist AFTER B/S date; footnote disclosure may be required

234
Q

If the auditor believes that the F/S need to be revised to reflect a substantive event and management does NOT make the revision, the auditor should express a ______ or _______ opinion

A

qualified; adverse

235
Q

The auditor should use the same materiality considerations as those used in planning and performing the audit of the F/S except:

A

if specified otherwise by an applicable regulatory requirement

236
Q

The auditor should evaluate whether uncorrected misstatements related to the supplemental information are material either:

A

individually or in combination with other misstatements

237
Q

For issuers and nonissuers, a(n) ________ paragraph or a _____ is used when reporting on supplementary information

A

other matter; separate report

238
Q

What organization establishes GAAP?

A

International Accounting Standards Board (IASB); the rules established by them are NOT applicable to F/S prepared in accordance with IFRS

239
Q

If F/S are prepared using a framework generally accepted in another country and the report is used in the US, a(n) ________ paragraph is included in the report

A

emphasis of matter

240
Q

Regulatory bases of accounting are:

A

Frameworks that are based on US GAAP but do NOT comply with all of the requirements of GAAP

241
Q

TF: Under US auditing standards, the following are the only special purpose frameworks: cash, tax, and regulatory

A

FALSE; contractual bases is included as well

242
Q

International Standards on Auditing define a special purpose framework as a financial reporting framework designed to meet the financial information needs of:

A

specific users

243
Q

A(n) ______ paragraph that RESTRICTS THE USE of the auditor’s report should also be used when special purpose financial statements are prepared in accordance with an other basis of accounting

A

other matter

244
Q

TF: An other matter paragraph is required when F/S are prepared in accordance with a regulatory basis AND are intended for general use

A

FALSE

245
Q

TF: A dual opinion on special purpose framework and GAAP is needed for F/S prepared on a regulatory basis for general use

A

TRUE

246
Q

TF: When auditing both a single financial statement or a specific element and an entity’s complete set of F/S, the auditor can use audit evidence obtained during the audit of complete set of F/S in the audit of single F/S or specific element

A

TRUE

247
Q

When the auditor’s report on compliance is included in the auditor’s report on the F/S, the restriction on the use of the report applies to the entire auditor’s report. If a separate report is issued, the only the ________ needs to be restricted as to its use

A

report on compliance

248
Q

Who is responsible for the preparation of the summary F/S?

A

Management

249
Q

STAFF: Understanding a client’s business for a compilation engagement

A

Staff qualifications, transaction types and frequency, accounting basis used to prepare the F/S, form of the accounting records and F/S form and content

250
Q

Compiled F/S that omit GAAP disclosures are acceptable if the F/S are otherwise in conformity with GAAP, the reason for omission was NOT to deceive the user, and:

A

compilation report warns the user of missing disclosures

251
Q

TF: Communication with the predecessor accountant is NOT required in a review engagement

A

TRUE

252
Q

A review engagement expresses _______ assurance

A

LIMITED

253
Q

TF: An example of a limited assurance phrase is: “we are not aware of any material modifications…”

A

TRUE

254
Q

When an accountant on a compilation or review engagement becomes aware of a GAAP departure, the report would be modified or the accountant would ______

A

withdraw; NO opinion is expressed

255
Q

Whenever predecessors accountants reissue their prior report, they should read the new F/S and:

A

obtain a representation letter from the NEW accountant

256
Q

For a review of an issuer’s interim financial information, the review report should include a statement that the review was conducted in accordance with the:

A

standards of the PCAOB

257
Q

TF: A representation letter is required for a compilation engagement

A

FALSE; NOT required

258
Q

TF: An understanding of internal control is required for issuers and nonissuers review engagements on interim F/S

A

TRUE

259
Q

TF: Communication with the predecessor accountant is required for a review engagement with or without interim FS

A

FALSE; only required for issuers with interim FS

260
Q

Statements on Standards (SAS) is applicable to:

A

nonissuers with interim F/S

261
Q

What two standards apply to audit engagements?

A

SAS (Statements on Standards) and PCAOB (for ISSUERS)

262
Q

What standards apply to compilation and review engagements?

A

SSARS (Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services)

263
Q

What standards apply to attest engagements?

A

SSAE (Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements)

264
Q

The five general standards for attestation engagements are: Training and proficiency, Independence, Performance/due professional care in planning and performance, Professional and adequate knowledge of subject matter, and:

A

Your belief that the subject matter is capable of evaluation against criteria that are suitable and available to users

265
Q

What are the two fieldwork standards for attestation engagements?

A

planning and supervision and appropriate, sufficient evidence to provide a reasonable basis for the conclusion

266
Q

What are the four reporting standards for attestation engagements?

A

identify Subject matter or the assertion being reported on, disclose Significant reservations about the engagement, Express conclusions about the subject matter or the assertion, Restrict use of the report to specified parties (needed for AGREED UPON procedures)

267
Q

Reviews provide ______ assurance

A

negative

268
Q

TF: No assurance is provided for agreed upon procedures

A

FALSE; procedures and findings are listed

269
Q

TF: Engagements to perform agreed upon procedures on prospective financial statements must include a summary of significant assumptions

A

TRUE

270
Q

TF: Financial forecasts are for general use ONLY

A

FALSE; general AND limited use

271
Q

Financial projections are for ______ ONLY

A

limited use

272
Q

TF: In a typical comfort letter, the accountants express an opinion concerning the F/S compliance with the pertinent accounting requirements of the SEC

A

TRUE

273
Q

An accountant’s report on the unaudited financial statements of a nonissuer should:

A

state that the accountant does NOT express an opinion on the F/S

274
Q

After obtaining an understanding of the entity and its environment, includings its internal control, an auditor decided to perform tests of controls because:

A

the auditor’s risk assessment is based on the effective operation of controls

275
Q

Before applying substantive tests to the details of accounts at an interim date prior to the B/S date, an auditor should:

A

consider whether the amounts of the year-end balances selected for interim testing are reasonably predictable

276
Q

Testing an entity’s controls of credit approval is in support of management’s financial statement assertion of:

A

valuation and allocation

277
Q

TF: A report on significant deficiencies for a F/S audit of a nonissuer must be restricted

A

TRUE

278
Q

TF: Auditing standards for federal financial financial assistance require extra fieldwork and reporting standards

A

TRUE

279
Q

TF: Attestation engagements performed in conformity with Government Auditing Standards includes expanded requirements

A

TRUE

280
Q

An audit organization performing engagements in accordance with GAGAS must have a peer review every ____ years

A

3

281
Q

TF: When reporting on I/C under GAGAS, you must report all fraud and illegal acts

A

TRUE

282
Q

Under GAGAS, a written report on I/C includes the assertion that evaluating compliance with laws, rules, and regulations with a direct and material effect on the F/S is part of developing a(n) _________ on F/S

A

opinion

283
Q

TF: Under GAGAS, a written report on I/C includes the assertion that specific controls relating to the financial reporting are NOT included

A

FALSE; ARE included

284
Q

Under GAGAS, a written report on I/C includes an indication either no weaknesses were found or that __________ (reportable conditions) were found, and an indication whether those deficiencies were material

A

significant deficiencies

285
Q

__________ threat cannot be prevented by safeguards

A

Management participation

286
Q

The audit threshold for federal audit requirements is expenditure of ________ of federal financial assistance

A

$750K

287
Q

TF: Single audits are generally required unless the restrictive requirements of a program-specific audit are met

A

TRUE

288
Q

Program specific audits are used when the expenditures are made under only one program and the terms of the award do not require a ____________

A

F/S audit

289
Q

TF: A single audit includes a separate evaluation of materiality for each major program selected

A

TRUE

290
Q

For low risk auditees, the auditor must test ____ percent of the total federal awards expended

A

20

291
Q

For high risk auditees, the auditor must test ____ percent of the total federal awards expended

A

40

292
Q

TF:A schedule of findings and questions costs is required by Government Auditing Standards

A

FALSE; Single Audit Act

293
Q

Under GAGAS, if material instances of noncompliance are identified, the auditor should express a _____ or ______ opinion

A

qualified; adverse

294
Q

TF: Per Government Auditing Standards, audit documentation should contain sufficient information so that supplementary oral explanations are NOT required

A

TRUE

295
Q

GAGAS prescribes additional standards on the direct reporting of illegal acts AND:

A

reporting on I/C

296
Q

A single audit represents a combined audit of both the entity’s F/S and _____________________

A

federal financial assistance programs

297
Q

A report on internal control over compliance will provide a(n) _________ opinion

A

DISCLAIMER OF

298
Q

TF: Tests of operating effectiveness of controls may be required if the risk assessment includes an explanation of the operating effectiveness of controls over compliance

A

TRUE

299
Q

Under GAGAS, independence in mind and appearance is under the __________ ethics principle

A

objectivity

300
Q

TF: An engagement to examine an entity’s internal control over financial reporting is an attest engagement

A

TRUE

301
Q

A review of a nonpublic company’s pro forma F/S should be in accordance with ______

A

SSARS

302
Q

Examinations of prospective F/S include _____ assurance regarding whether the statements are presented in conformity with AICPA guidelines and whether the underlying assumptions provide a reasonable basis for the F/S

A

POSITIVE

303
Q

Reports on prospective financial statements are covered under ______

A

SSAE

304
Q

Compilation of financial statements for a nonpublic entity is covered under ______

A

SSARS

305
Q

There is a requirement that documentation related to each material account balance or transaction class be included on a separate page

A

FALSE

306
Q

Examining paid vendor invoices provides evidence about ______ and ______

A

rights and obligations; valuation and allocation

307
Q

_______ assurance is provided on compliance with contractual or regulatory requirements related to audited F/S

A

Negative

308
Q

_____ assurance is provided in a report on other comprehensive basis of accounting F/S

A

Positive

309
Q

_____ assurance is provided in a report on a specified account in a F/S

A

Positive

310
Q

______ assurance is provided in a report on a financial presentation to comply with contractual agreements or regulatory requirements

A

Positive

311
Q

A special report on F/S prepared on the cash basis of accounting should include an emphasis of matter paragraphs that refers to the _____ that explains cash basis of accounting

A

NOTE

312
Q

TF: Registered firms must provide to the audit committee a schedule of unadjusted differences

A

TRUE

313
Q

When a single item is changed in the F/S _____ the original date of the auditor’s report, the auditor would likely return to examine this one event and would then dual date his/her report

A

AFTER

314
Q

A material change in accounting principle would result in the addition of a(n) ________________ paragraph to the unmodified opinion

A

emphasis of matter

315
Q

TF: A justified departure from GAAP does NOT result in an emphasis of matter paragraph

A

FALSE; DOES

316
Q

A(n) _____ opinion does NOT result in the modification of the introductory paragraph

A

ADVERSE

317
Q

TF: If I/C was evaluated as part of an audit, the auditor must restrict the use of the report on I/C

A

TRUE

318
Q

TF: An error in a balance does NOT mean that controls are not working

A

TRUE

319
Q

TF: Confirmations provide evidence for valuation and allocation

A

FALSE; not the best/accurate valuations

320
Q

Limited (or negative) assurance is provided in a _____ engagement

A

REVIEW

321
Q

A report on I/C during a(n) ______ would include a restricted use paragraph

A

audit

322
Q

Who is a comfort letter addressed to?

A

The underwriter

323
Q

TF: A representation letter is NOT required for a compilation

A

TRUE

324
Q

Inquiries for a review engagement are for ______ personnel

A

INTERNAL

325
Q

Financial statements prepared on the cash basis of accounting provides _______ assurance

A

Positive

326
Q

_____ assurance is provided for agreed upon procedures

A

NO

327
Q

The AICPA code of professional conduct applies to:

A

compilations and reviews of the F/S of NONISSUERS