aud Flashcards
The assessment of the risks of material misstatement at the financial statement level is affected by the auditor’s understanding of the control environment. Weaknesses in the control environment ordinarily will lead the auditor to
a. Conduct some audit procedures at an interim date rather than at period end
b. Modify the nature of audit procedures to obtain more persuasive audit evidence
c. Decrease the number of locations to be included in the audit scope
d. Have more confidence in internal control and the reliability of audit evidence generated internally
b. Modify the nature of audit procedures to obtain more persuasive audit evidence
What is the primary means of dealing with risk in planning decisions related to audit evidence?
a. Selection of more effective tests of details of balances
b. Application of the audit risk model
c. Establishing a lower preliminary judgment about materiality
d. Allocating materiality judgment to segments
b. Application of the audit risk model
If an auditor establishes a relatively high level for materiality, then the auditor will
a. Accumulate approximately the same evidence as would be the case were materiality lower
b. Accumulate more evidence than if a lower level had been set
c. Accumulate less evidence than if a lower level had been set
d. Accumulate an undetermined amount of evidence
c. Accumulate less evidence than if a lower level had been set
Which of the following best describes why an independent auditor reports on financial statements?
a. Independent auditors are likely to detect fraud
b. Misstated account balances are generally corrected by an independent audit
c. Conflict of interest may exist between management and the users of the statements
d. Ineffective internal controls may exist
c. Conflict of interest may exist between management and the users of the statements
An audit in accordance with PSAs is performed on the premise that management and, where appropriate, those charged with governance have responsibilities that are fundamental to the conduct of the audit. Which of the following is not one of those responsibilities?
a. To provide the auditor with all information, such as records and documentation, and other matters that are relevant to the preparation and presentation of the financial statements
b. To provide unrestricted access to those within the entity from whom the auditor determines it necessary to obtain audit evidence
c. To comply with all relevant PSAs in the preparation and presentation of the entity’s financial statements
d. To design, implement, and maintain internal control relevant to the preparation and presentation of financial statements that are free from material misstatement, whether caused by fraud or error
c. To comply with all relevant PSAs in the preparation and presentation of the entity’s financial
statements
Users of financial statements demand independent audits because
a. Management relies on the auditor to improve the entity’s internal control
b. Management may not be objective in reporting
c. Users expect auditors to correct errors of management
d. Users want assurance that fraud does not exist
b. Management may not be objective in reporting
Among the possible reasons why an auditor will discontinue servicing an audit client is
a. Too many errors have to be adjusted to make the financial statements conform with GAAPs
b. The auditor is also rendering at the same time, a management advisory engagement for the same client, and the audit was the engagement contracted first
c. The auditor has to use a specialist in verifying inventory valuation
d. A change in the client management and the auditor is worried about the reputation of the new management
d. A change in the client management and the auditor is worried about the reputation of the new
management
A CPA was engaged by a group of royalty recipients to apply agreed-upon procedures to financial data supplied by ABC Co. regarding its compliance with contractual requirements to pay royalties. The report on these agreed-upon procedures should contain a(an):
a. Disclaimer of opinion about the fair presentation of ABC’s financial statements
b. List of the procedures performed (or reference thereto) and the CPA’s findings
c. Opinion about the effectiveness of ABC’s internal control activities concerning royalty payments
d. Acknowledgement that the sufficiency of the procedures is solely CPA’s responsibility
b. List of the procedures performed (or reference thereto) and the CPA’s findings
In which of the following order would the auditors perform the following steps?
a. Determine audit risk; assess control risk; determine detection risk; set materiality
b. Set materiality; determine audit risk; assess control risk; determine detection risk
c. Set materiality; assess control risk; determine detection risk; determine audit risk
d. Determine audit risk; set materiality; assess control risk; determine detection risk
b. Set materiality; determine audit risk; assess control risk; determine detection risk
A CPA has been engaged to perform review services for a client. Identify which of the following is a correct statement
a. The CPA must perform the basic audit procedures necessary to determine that the statements are in conformity with the applicable financial reporting framework.
b. The financial statements are primarily representations of the CPA
c. The CPA may prepare the statements from the books but may not assist in adjusting and closing the books
d. The CPA is performing a limited assurance engagement
d. The CPA is performing a limited assurance engagement
Which of the following statements concerning consulting services is false?
a. The performance of consulting services for audit clients does not, in and of itself, impair the auditor’s independence
b. Consulting services differ fundamentally from the CPA’s function of attesting to the assertions of other parties
c. Consulting services ordinarily involves external reporting
d. Most CPAs, including those who provide audit and tax services, also provide consulting services to their clients
c. Consulting services ordinarily involves external reporting
When accountants are not independent, which of the following reports can nevertheless be issued?
a. Compilation report
b. Standard audit report
c. Review report
d. Examination report on a forecast
a. Compilation report
Which of the following statements best describes what is meant by setting control risk at 100%?
a. Controls are effective
b. Controls are relevant
c. Controls are ineffective
d. Cannot be determined from the information given
c. Controls are ineffective
Which of the following is most likely to occur at the beginning of an initial audit engagement?
a. Prepare a rough draft of the financial statements and of the auditor’s report
b. Study and evaluate the client’s system of internal control
c. Determine the client’s reason for an audit
d. Testing of the financial statement balances
c. Determine the client’s reason for an audit
Of the following statements about internal controls, which one is least likely to be correct?
a. No one person should be responsible for the custodial responsibility and the recording responsibility
for an asset
b. Transactions must be properly authorized before such transactions are processed
c. Because of the cost-benefit relationship, a client may apply controls only on selected processes
d. Control procedures reasonably ensure that collusion among employees cannot occur
d. Control procedures reasonably ensure that collusion among employees cannot occur
In obtaining an understanding of internal control relevant to the audit, the auditor may trace several transactions through the system, including how the transactions interface with any service organizations whose services are part of the entity’s information system. The primary objective of this procedure is to
a. Determine the effectiveness of internal control
b. Detect fraud
c. Evaluate the design of internal control and determine whether it has been implemented
d. Replace substantive tests
c. Evaluate the design of internal control and determine whether it has been implemented
An audit program is created to specify which of the following?
a. The type of audit opinion to be rendered based upon procedures performed
b. The audit procedures that will be performed every year for the client
c. How an auditor should think while performing audit procedures
d. Audit objectives and procedures to be followed during the audit process
d. Audit objectives and procedures to be followed during the audit process
Which of the following statements about internal control is not correct?
a. The costs of the control should not exceed the benefits
b. The auditor’s acceptable level of detection risk is inversely related to the assessment of control risk
c. Stronger internal controls result in an increase in the number of required substantive audit procedures
d. Management is responsible for the maintenance of internal control
c. Stronger internal controls result in an increase in the number of required substantive audit
procedures
After obtaining an understanding of an entity’s internal controls, an auditor may assess control risk at the maximum for some assertions because the auditor
a. Determines that internal control is not well-documented
b. Performs tests of controls to restrict detection of risk to an acceptable level
c. Believes internal control activities are unlikely to be effective
d. Identifies control activities that are likely to prevent material misstatements
c. Believes internal control activities are unlikely to be effective
In connection with the study of internal control, an auditor encounters the following flowcharting symbols The auditor would conclude that
a. A document has been generated by a manual operation
b. A master file has been created by a computer operation
c. A document has been generated by a computer operation
d. A master file has been created by a manual operation
a. A document has been generated by a manual operation
The sets the scope, timing and direction of the audit, and guides the development of the more
detailed _____.
a. Overall audit strategy; audit plan
b. Audit plan; overall audit strategy
c. Audit risk plan; substantive tests
d. Audit plan; risk assessment procedures
a. Overall audit strategy; audit plan
Which of the following statements correctly describes the objective of an auditor in an audit of financial statements?
a. To prepare the financial statements in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework
b. To obtain reasonable assurance whether the financial statements are free from misstatements, whether due to fraud or error, in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework
c. To express an opinion on the fairness ofthe financial statements in accordance with the PSAs
d. To provide reasonable assurance as to whether the financial statements are fairly stated in all material respects in accordance with applicable financial reporting framework such as the PFRSs
d. To provide reasonable assurance as to whether the financial statements are fairly stated in all
material respects in accordance with applicable financial reporting framework such as the PFRSs
Which of the following is a step in an auditor’s decision to assess control risk at below the maximum?
a. Apply analytical procedures to both financial data and nonfinancial information to detect conditions that may indicate weak controls
b. Perform tests of details of transactions and account balances to identify potential errors and irregularities
c. Identify specific internal control policies and procedures that are likely to detect or prevent material misstatements
d. Document that the additional audit effort to perform tests of controls exceeds the potential reduction in substantive testing
c. Identify specific internal control policies and procedures that are likely to detect or prevent material
misstatements
This element of system of quality management requires a CPA firm to establish policies and procedures to provide it with reasonable assurance that engagements are performed in accordance with professional standards and regulatory and legal requirements, and that the firm or the engagement partners issue reports that are appropriate in the circumstances
a. Ethical requirements
b. Monitoring and remediation
c. Engagement performance
d. Engagement resources
c. Engagement performance
Which of the following is not an appropriate implication of this decision?
a. More evidence needs to be obtained
b. Less evidence needs to be obtained
c. Special care is required in selecting audit staff
d. Review of audit documentation is performed by personnel not assigned to the engagement
b. Less evidence needs to be obtained
The internal auditor recognizes that certain limitations are inherent in any internal control system. Which one of the following scenarios is the result of an inherent limitation of internal control?
a. The firm sells to customers on account, without credit approval
b. An employee, who is unable to read, is assigned custody of the firm’s computer tape library and run manuals that are used during the third shift
c. The comptroller both makes and records cash deposits
d. A security guard allows one of the warehouse employees to remove company assets from the premises without authorization
d. A security guard allows one of the warehouse employees to remove company assets from the
premises without authorization
Which statement is correct relating to a potential successor auditor’s responsibility for communicating with the predecessor auditors in connection with a prospective new audit client?
a. The successor auditors have no responsibility to contact the predecessor auditors
b. The successor auditors should contact the predecessors regardless of whether the prospective client authorizes contact
c. The successor auditors need not contact the predecessors if the successors are aware of all available relevant facts
d. The successor auditors should obtain permission from the prospective client to contact the predecessor auditors
d. The successor auditors should obtain permission from the prospective client to contact the
predecessor auditors
The accounts payable department usually has the responsibility for verifying the propriety of acquisitions by comparing the details on the
a. Vendor’s invoice and the purchase requisition
b. Purchase order, receiving report, and vendor’s invoice
c. Vendor’s invoice and the receiving report
d. Purchase requisition, purchase order and receiving report
b. Purchase order, receiving report, and vendor’s invoice
The risk that the audit will fail to uncover a material misstatement is eliminated .
a. If client has good internal control
b. If client follows the Philippine Financial Reporting Standards (PFRS)
c. When the auditor has complied with Standards on Auditing
d. Under no circumstances
d. Under no circumstances
Which of the following factors most likely would cause a CPA to not accept a new audit engagement?
a. The prospective client has fired its prior auditor
b. The prospective client is unwilling to make financial records available to the CPA
c. The CPA lacks a thorough understanding of the prospective client’s operations and industry
d. The CPA is unable to review the predecessor auditor’s working papers
b. The prospective client is unwilling to make financial records available to the CPA
Reports on compilation engagements should contain the following, except
a. A statement that the engagement was performed in accordance with the PSA applicable to compilation
b. A statement that the accountant does not express an opinion but expresses only limited assurance on the financial statements
c. A statement that management is responsible for the financial information compiled by the accountant
d. Identification of the financial information noting that it is based on information from the management
b. A statement that the accountant does not express an opinion but expresses only limited assurance
on the financial statements
In the purchasing/disbursement cycle, of the order of activities listed, which is in the best order of a typical sequence of activities?
a. Ordering goods, receiving vendor’s invoice, receiving goods, payment activity
b. Selecting authorized vendor, receiving vendor’s invoice, receiving goods, payment activity
c. Ordering goods, receiving vendor’s invoice, selecting authorized vendor, payment activity
d. Ordering goods, receiving goods, receiving vendor’s invoice, cash pay
d. Ordering goods, receiving goods, receiving vendor’s invoice, cash pay