AUD Flashcards

1
Q

Audit Opinions

A

Audit issues: Disclaimer or Qualified depending on pervasiveness
FS issues: Qualified or Adverse depending on pervasiveness
No issues: Unmodified/Unqualified

On the exam, both adverse and disclaimer is an incorrect answer. They’re looking for only FS side or Audit side extremes.

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2
Q

A departure from GAAP is permissible

A

When presenting the statements in accordance with GAAP is misleading. A departure from GAAP in this case would lead to an Unmodified opinion

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3
Q

Opinion section of auditor’s report

A

Indicates the nature of the engagement, the FS covered in the audit, the name of the entity, and the dates covered by the statements

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4
Q

Basis of opinion section of auditor’s report

A

References GAAS (not GAAP), independence, and statement of whether appropriate audit evidence was obtained to provide an opinion

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5
Q

An issuer

A

Should reference PCAOB and GAAP

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6
Q

Disclaiming auditor responsibilities

A

Is never permitted

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7
Q

Non issuer qualified opinion due to inadequate disclosure

A

“In our opinion, except for the omission of the information described in the basis for qualified opinion section of the report”

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8
Q

Omission of a financial statement from part of the audit

A

Requires a qualified opinion

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9
Q

The substantive reasons for the financial statements being incorrect or misleading

A

Are discussed in the Basis for Adverse opinion section, not the opinion section

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10
Q

Inadequate disclosure

A

Results in a qualified or Adverse opinion

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11
Q

Client imposed scope restrictions always result in

A

A disclaimer of opinion or Qualified opinion

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12
Q

Refusal of the clients attorney to respond to an inquiry

A

Is an example of a scope limitation

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13
Q

When an auditor qualifies an opinion because of a scope limitation

A

The wording in the opinion paragraph should indicate the possible effects on the financial statements

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14
Q

Unmodified opinion with an emphasis of matter paragraph

A

Does not include unjustified accounting changes or material weaknesses

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15
Q

Emphasis of matter paragraph

A

Identifies the nature of the change and refers to the financial statement note that discusses the change in detail

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16
Q

Emphasis of matter is required when

A

A company reports using a special purpose framework

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17
Q

Emphasis of matter is required when

A

There is a justified change in accounting principle that has a material effect on the entitys FS

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18
Q

Other matter paragraph is used when

A

Matters other than those presented or disclosed in the FS are relevant to the readers understanding

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19
Q

If the auditor is able to obtain sufficient evidence about consistency

A

Consistency need not be mentioned in this case or if it’s not material

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20
Q

If prior year comparative financials are changed to conform to GAAP

A

Opinion must be changed

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21
Q

When a succeeding auditor’s report is not included in the current report, and an Unmodified opinion was determined

A

It should be indicated in an other-matters paragraph

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22
Q

If comparative financial statements are corrected to be in conformance with GAAP

A

An Unmodified opinion is used

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23
Q

If the preceding auditor issued a qualified opinion

A

The successor should indicate the reason for the qualified opinion in the current opinion

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24
Q

The new auditor must obtain letters of representation from

A

The old Auditor and clients management team

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25
Q

The engagement partner

A

Need not reference the prior auditor if they have a good reputation and are independent

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26
Q

Dividing responsibility

A

Does not impact the opinion

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27
Q

Nonrecognized subsequent events

A

Occur after the date of the FS or arise after the date of the FS. They should be disclosed in the footnotes and should not include any adjustments to the FS

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28
Q

If a sale did not occur until year 2

A

There shouldn’t be a receivable in year 1

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29
Q

After determining the reliability of subsequent info

A

The auditor must determine whether there are people relying on the FS who would attach importance to the information

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30
Q

If an auditor cuts ties with a client and then subsequent events occur

A

The auditor must go back to management and determine if the FS need revised

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31
Q

When other information is included with the clients FS

A

The auditor includes a section titled “other information” clarifying the auditors responsibility

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32
Q

The presentation of selected financial data

A

The auditor should only be limited to the data on the FS in the report

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33
Q

When supplementary info is required to be reported

A

A separate section of the report is included that references the required information (think GASB)

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34
Q

A auditor cannot

A

Perform a review or express negative assurance on supplementary info

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35
Q

When statements are prepared under an OCBOA

A

An emphasis of matter paragraph alerting readers about the preparation using the OCBOA is added

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36
Q

A description of how an OCBOA differs from GAAP

A

Is put in the notes to the financials

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37
Q

The engagement letter

A

Includes a statement saying that management is responsible for the fair presentation of the financials

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38
Q

Those charged with governance

A

Do not approve audit scope

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39
Q

The following is included in the engagement letter

A

“Management is responsible for making all financial records and related information available to us”

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40
Q

Financial statement notes

A

Are not compiled by the auditor. This violates independence

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41
Q

The management rep letter

A

Is obtained at the end of the audit

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42
Q

Inquiry of the predecessor auditor

A

Is a required pre-acceptance procedure. However, consent of the prospective client must be obtained before a CPA can make the inquiry

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43
Q

A change in engagement type

A

Need not be disclosed if the CPA agrees to it

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44
Q

If the predecessor auditor refuses to give the current auditor access to documentation

A

The current auditor should review the risk assessment of the opening balances to the financials

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45
Q

AICPA statements on quality control

A

Includes assigning personnel to engagements

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46
Q

Six interrelated elements of quality control

A

HR, engagement/client acceptance and continuance, leadership responsibilities, performing the engagement, monitoring, relevant ethical requirements

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47
Q

Audit documentation

A

Can serve as a reference point for clients

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48
Q

Audit documentation should be prepared in enough detail so that

A

An experienced auditor who has no previous connection with audit can understand the procedures performed

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49
Q

Under SOX 2002

A

Public accounting firms must maintain audit work papers and supporting docs for seven years

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50
Q

According to PCAOB standards

A

The documentation completion date is 45 days following the released report

For NONISSUERS it is 60 days

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51
Q

After the document completion date

A

An auditor cannot delete any audit documentation. Additional documentation can be included but it must be documented as such

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52
Q

Oral explanations

A

Do not represent adequate support for the work performed and conclusions reached

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53
Q

Required retention periods:

A

Non issuer - 5 years
Issuer - 7 years

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54
Q

Three entity objectives

A

Reliability of financial reporting, the effectiveness and efficiency of operations, and compliance with laws and regulations

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55
Q

Senior management and the board of directors

A

Have primary responsibility for establishing, implementing, and enforcing internal controls

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56
Q

Control environment

A

Includes HR functions

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57
Q

The nature, extent, and timing of procedures

A

Is included in the audit plan, not the audit strategy

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58
Q

When developing an audit strategy

A

The scope and reporting objectives of the audit are considered

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59
Q

Planning memo

A

While recommended, is not required under GAAS

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60
Q

An audit plan outlining in detail the procedures necessary to accomplish the entity’s objectives

A

Is required under GAAS

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61
Q

Income statement accounts

A

Can be tested before the balance sheet date

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62
Q

A change in the level of tolerable misstatement

A

Does not impact control risk. It calls for an increase in the extent of procedures and calls for the audit to begin sooner (closer to the balance sheet date)

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63
Q

Performing tests on interim BS balances

A

Increases risk. The tests do not have to be redone

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64
Q

The work of internal auditors

A

May affect the nature, timing, and extent of the audit including procedures the auditor performs when obtaining an understanding of an entity’s internal control system, assessing risk, and performing substantive procedures

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65
Q

As the degree of subjectivity increases

A

The need for the auditor to perform tests of the assertions increases

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66
Q

Testing fixed asset additions

A

Involves very little subjectivity. Therefore the work performed by the internal auditor may reduce the auditor’s testing in this area

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67
Q

Performing tests of controls with internal auditors

A

The independent auditor should supervise, review, evaluate, and test the work performed by internal auditors

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68
Q

GAAS defines a specialist as

A

A person or firm with special skills in a field other than accounting or auditing

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69
Q

The internal auditor

A

Can perform tests of controls, although not extensive tests

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70
Q

Example of a management specialist

A

Client use of an actuary to assist in technical matters related to the client’s FS prep

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71
Q

If the auditor references to a specialist in the report

A

The report must indicate that the reference to the specialist does not reduce the auditor’s responsibility for issuing an opinion

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72
Q

Because the FS are interrelated

A

Materiality levels are generally considered in terms of the smallest level of misstatement that could be material to any one of the statements

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73
Q

An auditor would most likely use

A

The PY FS as a preliminary judgment for materiality

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74
Q

An increase in the RMM (combined assessment of inherent and control risk)

A

Would cause a decrease in allowable detection risk

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75
Q

Derivatives entered into as hedges

A

Are part of inherent risk due to their complex nature

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76
Q

Control risk

A

Includes availability of data and complexity of computer operations

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77
Q

As detection risk decreases

A

The extent of substantive tests should increase

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78
Q

Control risk

A

Is correlated with substantive testing sample size

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79
Q

Detection risk increases when

A

Analytics are performed at an interim date

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80
Q

Inadequate organizational structure

A

Is not a fraud risk factor

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81
Q

Fraud involving an officer making JE’s

A

Should be reported to those charged with governance

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82
Q

When the auditor obtains evidence that fraud exists

A

It is important that the matter be brought to the attention to the appropriate level of management. This is true even if the fraud is immaterial

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83
Q

Leading vs. Lagging indicators

A

Leading indicators predict economic activity. Examples include: Orders for goods, building permits, and unfulfilled orders

Lagging indicators change at approximately the same time as the whole economy. Number of employees on payroll, production and sales are examples

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84
Q

FS disclosures for unusual transactions or unexpected balances

A

Are performed by managers and partners at the end (review stage) of an audit

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85
Q

The planning process should include

A

a comparison of recorded financial information with anticipated results from the budget and forecast

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86
Q

Analytical procedures

A

Involve the comparison of recorded amounts to independent expectations developed by the auditor

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87
Q

Performing tests of controls

A

Is not recommended by the PCAOB during the planning stage. Instead, it should be performed in conjunction with substantive audit procedures if they are deemed insufficient

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88
Q

The trough of the economic cycle

A

Is characterized by low profits. Firms often try to reduce the size of their workforce at this point

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89
Q

During the expansionary phase of the economic cycle

A

Businesses increase their capital investment

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90
Q

Coincident indicators

A

Occur in correlation to economic activity. Industrial production is an example

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91
Q

Since automated controls are consistent

A

It is not necessary for the auditor to test a sample. Testing the control once is sufficient

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92
Q

An auditor is not required

A

to evaluate the operating effectiveness as part of understanding the system of internal control

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93
Q

If business risk is identified

A

The auditor should analyze the risk in conjunction with other known business risks, rather than just the economic risk

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94
Q

Dual purpose test

A

Test of controls and test of details

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95
Q

An audit of internal control over financial reporting for an issuer

A

Does not require substantive procedures to be performed. They are performed during the FS audit

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96
Q

If detection risk cannot be reduced through substantive procedures

A

A test of controls should be performed to support a lower level of assessed control risk

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97
Q

Evidence concerning proper segregation of duties

A

Is typically observed

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98
Q

Procedure to be performed concerning litigation, claims, and assessments

A

Discussion with management concerning controls adopted for evaluating and accounting for litigation, claims, and assessments

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99
Q

If there is substantial doubt considering going concern

A

The auditor is required to include a separate section in the audit report using the phrases “substantial doubt” and “going concern”

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100
Q

If a client refuses to accept the auditor’s report as modified due to an act of noncompliance

A

The auditor should withdraw from the engagement. The auditor should also notify TCWG

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101
Q

A retrospective review of estimates in the FS

A

Is performed by the auditor to check whether a bias by management existed

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102
Q

Emphasis of matter vs. other matter paragraphs

A

Emphasis: Emphasizes a matter that is appropriately presented or disclosed in the FS

Other: Used to refer to matters other than those presented or disclosed in the FS

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103
Q

Actions to mitigate going concern issues

A

Increase equity ownership, borrow money, restructure debt, sell assets, and reduce or delay expenditures

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104
Q

The auditor should rely on evidence that is considered

A

Persuasive. Persuasiveness is a subjective concept, and is unique to each audit.

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105
Q

Sales invoices

A

Would not be considered corroborating evidence. They are considered to be underlying accounting records

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106
Q

The auditor’s risk assessment

A

Affects the nature, extent, and timing of audit procedures

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107
Q

Relationships found during analytical procedures

A

Are most easily found for IS accounts because they represent transactions over a period of time

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108
Q

To determine if transactions have been recorded properly

A

The auditor should trace back to the source document

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109
Q

When to use test of details vs. analytics

A

Lots of activity - analytics
Minimal activity - test of details

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110
Q

Tracing from supporting docs to accounting records

A

Tests the completeness assertion

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111
Q

Tracing from accounting records to supporting documentation

A

Tests the existence assertion

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112
Q

Final analytics

A

Generally include a determination of the adequacy of evidence gathered in response to unexpected balances identified during planning

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113
Q

To further improve the reliability of electronic confirms received

A

The auditor should contact the person who filled out the confirm directly

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114
Q

an auditor most likely would stratify a population into meaningful groups if

A

The population has highly variable recorded amounts.

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115
Q

Calculating projected mistatement

A

Step 1: Recorded amount - audited amount
Step 2: Value from step 1 / audited amount
Step 3: Percentage from step 2 / sampling interval

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116
Q

Ratio estimation sampling is most effective over other sampling techniques when

A

The calculated audit amounts approximate the client’s book amounts

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117
Q

Stratified mean per unit (MPU) is more efficient than unstratified MPU usually

A

it produces the desired level of precision with a smaller sample size

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118
Q

Stratification

A

involves the grouping of transactions sharing some characteristic (such as recorded amounts). The goal of stratification is to ensure selection of items for which potential misstatements may individually equal or exceed tolerable misstatement

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119
Q

When using probability proportional to size (PPS) sampling, also known as dollar unit sampling

A

the auditor controls the risk of incorrect acceptance by specifying the risk level for the sampling plan. The inputs for PPS are tolerable misstatement, risk of incorrect acceptance (reliability factor), and the recorded amount of the population being sampled. The primary objective of this method is to identify overstatement errors

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120
Q

No comparison should be made

A

Between the true deviation rate and the risk of assessing control risk too low. If the actual deviation rate in the population exceed the maximum deviation rate based on the sample, control risk is understated because the control will be less effective than sample results would indicate

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121
Q

Advantage of statistical vs. non statistical sampling

A

The auditor can quantify sampling risk to assist in lowering it. Statistical sampling does not remove auditor judgment. The tolerable and likely rate of deviation is chosen by the auditor

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122
Q

Incorrect acceptance

A

A population originally thought to be free of MM actually contains MM’s. The risk of incorrect acceptance is established when designing the audit procedure

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123
Q

If control risk is assessed too low

A

The deviation rate in the sample is less than the tolerable rate, but the deviation in the population exceeds the tolerable rate. The other way around results in an increase in control risk

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124
Q

If the deviation rate of the sample and the population both exceed or are below the tolerable rate

A

Control risk is at the appropriate level

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125
Q

The risk of incorrect acceptance and assessing control risk too low

A

Relates to the effectiveness of the audit

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126
Q

Nonsampling risk examples

A

Inappropriate audit procedures, inappropriate audit evidence, and failure by the auditor to recognize misstatements

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127
Q

If an auditor cannot test a control nor perform alternative procedures

A

The item is treated as a control deviation

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128
Q

Population size

A

Does NOT determine sample size

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129
Q

As tolerable deviation increases

A

The sample size decreases

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130
Q

If the upper deviation rate (which is the sample rate of deviation plus the allowance for sampling risk) exceeds the tolerable rate

A

The auditor should reduce the planned reliance on the prescribed control

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131
Q

Sample deviation rate + allowance for sampling risk (aka the upper deviation rate)

A

Should be below the tolerable rate. If not, the planned assessed level of control risk needs to be readdressed

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132
Q

Steps in determining sample size – test of controls

A
  1. Determine the expected error rate – this is based on the difficulty of the task and how well the employees understood their role.
    a. If errors are expected, the sample size must be increased.
  2. Determine the tolerable deviation rate – this sets the highest error rate that the auditor would be comfortable with based on their professional judgment.
    a. The importance of the activity as well as the presence of other controls will both influence the auditor’s tolerable deviation. AS TOLERABLE DEVIATION RISES, THE SAMPLE SIZE DECREASES because you tolerate more errors.
  3. Determine sampling risk – There is always a chance that the population does not represent the population as a whole.
    a. Auditor sets their confidence level. This is known as the ALLOWABLE LEVEL OF SAMPLING RISK. As the allowable level of sampling risk decreases, sample size increases.
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133
Q

Scatter plots

A

Are used to display the information gathered from analytics because they are used for relationship type data

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134
Q

Analytics

A

Provide enhanced fraud detection

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135
Q

Analytic types

A

Descriptive - describe what happened with data
Diagnostic - explain why something happened
Predictive - predicts outcome based on historical data
Prescriptive - provides a recommendation to achieve goals

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136
Q

Accuracy and Occurrence

A

Can only be tested using substantive procedures

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137
Q

The control to ensure all credit sales are recorded

A

The billing department supervisor matches pre numbered shipping docs with entries in the sales journal

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138
Q

The two documents generated during the revenue cycle

A

Credit memos and Sales invoices

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139
Q

Shipping documents

A

Provide proof that a transaction occurred. Therefore selecting from a population of shipping docs allows the auditor to test whether a corresponding invoices exists

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140
Q

Preparing invoices and recording the related receivable

A

Is okay because they are both record keeping functions. Handling cash and recording is not allowed

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141
Q

Examining cash receipts and AR

A

Addresses the completeness and Occurrence of sales

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142
Q

Upon receipt of cash

A

A remittance listing should be prepared

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143
Q

Reconciling control totals for sales invoices with the AR subledger

A

Wouldn’t catch improper invoice creation

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144
Q

The pre list of individual checks

A

Is prepared by a clerk opening the mail

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145
Q

The remittance advice

A

Is prepared by the customer and is mailed with the check

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146
Q

The cashier

A

Receives remittances and prepares the daily deposit slip

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147
Q

To detect an understatement of sales

A

An auditor compares the shipping docs to the invoices. This relates to the completeness assertion and provides evidence that shipments to customers were properly invoiced

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148
Q

If an auditor is worried that the client is overstating revenue

A

They can vouch sales invoices to shipping docs since no related shipment would have occurred

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149
Q

Sending confirms

A

Supports the existence assertion

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150
Q

PO number

A

Is unlikely to be used for an analytic related to the revenue cycle. It is more likely to be used for an expenditure cycle analytic

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151
Q

The term “trace”

A

May be used when testing the existence or completeness assertion

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152
Q

Emailed responses confirming AR

A

Are less reliable than mailed responses because anything digital can be altered

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153
Q

Confirms of AR don’t satisfy the completeness assertion because

A

Customers may not be inclined to report understatement errors in their accounts

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154
Q

Negative AR confirm requests are used when

A

The combined assessed level of inherent and control risk is low. This is because the auditor has no reason to believe the confirms will be ignored

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155
Q

Positive AR confirms are better than negative because

A

Those responding to negative confirms may not have checked their account information

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156
Q

To test completeness

A

The auditor would be looking for unrecorded receivables

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157
Q

Negative confirms are used when

A

Control risk is low, there are many small balances, and the consideration by the recipient is likely

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158
Q

Negative confirms

A

Only request a response if the amount stated is incorrect

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159
Q

To improve the response rate of AR confirms

A

The auditor should include information along with the confirm that constitute the balance. Typically a PBC schedule showing the account details that make up the balance

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160
Q

Blank confirms should be used if

A

Recipients are likely to sign confirms without careful consideration

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161
Q

Population for AR confirms

A

AR detail listing as of YE

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162
Q

When using positive confirms

A

The auditor should have the client reach out to the selected individuals if they’re not received

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163
Q

Purchase orders

A

Should be issued by the purchasing department, not the AP department

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164
Q

Vouchers payable department

A

Is responsible for approving vouchers for payment, indicating the expense account to be debited, and reconciling the vendor invoice with the related receiving report

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165
Q

Internal control is enhanced when

A

The treasury department handles cash

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166
Q

Mailing disbursement checks and remittance advices

A

Should be done by the employee who signs the check last. Usually a treasury department employee

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167
Q

The authority to accept incoming goods in receiving should be based on

A

An approved PO

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168
Q

Expenditure cycle jobs

A

Purchasing department - responsible for preparing the PO
AP department - responsible for matching documents
Treasury - responsible for making payments

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169
Q

The person who signs the check

A

Should be the person mailing the check

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170
Q

By stamping the voucher as “paid”

A

The check signer cancels the voucher so it is not double counted

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171
Q

Reconciling the AP ledger

A

Is an independent function and can’t be performed by the same employee who matches documents

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172
Q

The AP department

A

Matches invoices with receiving reports and can recompute the calculations on the invoice a separate employee must post to the AP records since a single employee can not record and authorize

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173
Q

The AP department should compare the info on each invoice with the

A

Receiving report and PO

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174
Q

A debit memo

A

Is used when nonconforming goods are returned to the vendor. This reduces AP

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175
Q

Employees who approve POs

A

Should also Negotiate terms with vendors

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176
Q

AP shouldn’t be confirmed because

A

The documents to support AP balances already come from external sources

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177
Q

Receiving reports

A

Are used to test the completeness assertion for AP

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178
Q

When using confirms to test the completeness assertion for AP

A

The appropriate population is vendors with whom the entity has previously done business with. This is because they should be properly included in AP

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179
Q

Upon receiving the clients bank cutoff statement

A

The auditor would trace the PY checks listed in the cutoff statement to the YE outstanding checklist

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180
Q

Deposits in transit

A

Are not included on a bank statement. They’re included in a bank rec

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181
Q

Check kiting

A

Occurs when a check drawn from one bank is deposited in another bank and no record is made of the disbursement in the balance of the first bank

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182
Q

Check lapping

A

Occurs when an employee uses the current remittances to conceal remittances that have been stolen previously. To uncover check lapping, the auditor would compare the dates checks are deposited per the bank statement with the date remittance credits are recorded because a lag exists in check clearings

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183
Q

Control to deter lapping

A

Segregation of duties between receiving cash posting to the ledger

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184
Q

The bank confirmation

A

Primarily is used to corroborate information regarding deposits and loan balances. It can also be used to seek information on contingent liabilities and security agreements in addition to information related to balances

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185
Q

To gain assurance that all inventory items in a client’s inventory listing schedule are valid (exist)

A

The auditor traces Items listed in the inventory listings to inventory tags and the auditor’s count sheets. This satisfies the existence assertion.

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186
Q

The word “valid”

A

Is used to test existence: records to source

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187
Q

The control objective of verification of the existence of inventory is achieved when

A

The physical inventory count is performed

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188
Q

The physical inventory count

A

Provides evidence to support BOTH the existence and completeness assertions

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189
Q

If the assessed level of control risk is high

A

The auditor would request that the client schedules the inventory observation at the end of the year. This is because the assessment of control risk affects the nature, timing, and extent of substantive audit procedures

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190
Q

To obtain assurance that slow-moving and obsolete items included in inventories are properly identified

A

The auditor would examine an analysis of inventory turnover. An auditor would least likely test the computation of OH rates

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191
Q

Interim testing for inventory

A

Is permitted when the risk of material misstatement is low. Interim testing is generally not appropriate when an entity maintains periodic inventory records because periodic inventory records are only updated on the date when a physical inventory is taken and the books are adjusted to actual.

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192
Q

Testing the completeness assertion for inventory

A

Is achieved by performing cutoff procedures, as this test provides assurance that goods in transit are appropriately included or excluded from inventory. The completeness assertion is focused on unrecorded transactions

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193
Q

If an insignificant portion of a client’s inventory is in public warehouses

A

Auditors can most efficiently test this inventory through confirmations. Since it is insignificant, no observation has to take place

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194
Q

rights and obligations related to inventories

A

Is tested by inspecting agreements to determine if any inventory is pledged as collateral or subject to liens

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195
Q

procedure that best addresses the adequacy of presentation and disclosure for inventory

A

Obtaining confirmation of inventories that are pledged under loan agreements provides evidence of proper disclosure

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196
Q

The auditor is not required to disclose

A

A balance breakdown between petty cash and short term investments

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197
Q

When good external evidence is available to support AP

A

Confirms are not required

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198
Q

An auditor tests the reasonableness of dividend income

A

By computing amounts received by referring to dividend record books produced by investment advisory services such as “Moody’s Dividend Record”

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199
Q

If the auditor cannot count the securities kept in a bank safe deposit box

A

The auditor can request that the bank seal the box at year end until the auditor can count the securities. Banks cannot confirm the balances of safety deposit boxes

200
Q

To test the valuation of a delinquent loan receivable

A

An auditor can request a current value appraisal

201
Q

Even if a related party misstatement is below ML

A

It is still considered a misstatement due to the nature of related party transactions

202
Q

When evaluating misstatements

A

The auditor should evaluate misstatements in both the CY and PY

203
Q

The reasonableness of significant assumptions used for accounting estimates

A

Is included in the management rep letter

204
Q

Management should address written representations about a firms annual audit

A

To the auditor

205
Q

The management rep letter

A

Should disclose knowledge of fraud, actual or suspected

206
Q

The management rep letter

A

Must include a statement saying that management believes the effects of uncorrected misstatements are IM to the FS as a whole, and a summary of the uncorrected misstatement should be included

207
Q

When control risk is assessed at maximum level

A

Tests of controls aren’t required

208
Q

In performing a search for unrecorded retirements of fixed assets

A

The auditor vouches a sample of assets in the property ledger to those on hand at the client’s facility

209
Q

If control risk is low

A

Tests of controls still must be performed to support that assessed level. Assuming controls are operating effectively, only limited substantive testing will be performed

210
Q

Repairs and maintenance

A

Is tested to support the assertion that all expenditures for PP&E have not been charged to expense

211
Q

A supervisors approval of the timecard

A

Is the best control to ensure that payment is made only for work performed

212
Q

The population in which a payroll control existence test is made

A

Is from the payroll entry. After the selection is made, time cards are obtained

213
Q

If control risk is low

A

Testing payroll involves recalculating accruals and applying analytics

214
Q

When auditing payroll

A

An auditor would most likely compare payroll costs with entity standards or budgets

215
Q

When testing stock option grants, an auditor should

A

Trace the authorization to board minutes

216
Q

Renewal of a note payable

A

Speaks to management’s assertion of presentation and classification

217
Q

Examining bond trust indentures

A

Should be included in an audit program of long term debt to assure that the client was not in violation of any covenants in the indentures

218
Q

Significant deficiencies

A

Should be reported in writing. The document should also say that 1. An opinion is issued on the FS and not internal control 2. Include the definition of a material weakness and 3. Include a restriction on use

219
Q

An auditor is required to

A

Communicate certain matters to those charged with governance, including disagreements with management about audit adjustments (whether or not they were resolved)

220
Q

Because of the potential for misinterpretation

A

An auditor does not issue a written report saying that no significant deficiencies were noted during an audit

221
Q

An auditor may communicate significant deficiencies

A

During an audit or after completion of the audit

222
Q

A material weakness

A

Is a deficiency or set of deficiencies in which there is a reasonable possibility that a material misstatement will not be prevented or detected

223
Q

All material weaknesses

A

Are significant deficiencies. Since a material weakness in internal control is important enough to merit attention by TCWG, it should also be considered a significant deficiency

224
Q

The auditor should separately identify

A

Significant deficiencies that are considered material

225
Q

In an audit of an issuer

A

It is both the auditor’s and management’s responsibility to assess and report on internal control

226
Q

In the audit of an issuer

A

An auditor expresses an opinion on both the FS and Internal Control

227
Q

If a service auditor is unable to obtain a written assertion from the service organization regarding controls

A

The auditor should withdraw from the engagement unless prohibited by law

228
Q

When PLANNING an integrated audit

A

An auditor cannot evaluate the operating effectiveness of controls because they’re only in the planning stage

229
Q

Auditing the internal controls of a nonissuer

A

Will be more expansive in scope than just standard internal control tests

230
Q

For the integrated audit of an issuer

A

Both significant deficiencies and material weaknesses must be communicated to the audit company, but only material weaknesses result in an adverse opinion on the effectiveness of internal control

231
Q

For an integrated audit

A

An auditor is not required to communicate ALL control deficiencies and material weaknesses to those charged with governance

232
Q

In reporting on a nonissuers internal control over financial reporting

A

The auditor’s report should include a paragraph stating that, because of the inherent limitations of internal control, errors or fraud can occur and won’t always be detected

233
Q

If one or more material weaknesses in a clients controls is found

A

An adverse opinion should be expressed on the controls

234
Q

A scope limitation

A

Calls for an disclaimer of opinion

235
Q

An engagement to report on whether a previously reported internal control weakness and been resolved

A

Is a voluntary engagement and not required by PCAOB

236
Q

A CPA is required to comply with the provisions of the Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements (SSAE)

A

When engaged to review management MD&A prepared persuant to the SEC requirements

237
Q

Negative assurance can be expressed when

A

A CPA REVIEWS managements assertions

238
Q

No assurance

A

Is provided for compilations

239
Q

Acronyms and what types of engagements they apply to:

A

Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements (SSAE) used for reviews

Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services (SSARS) used for preparation and compilations or reviewing historical FS

Generally Accepted Auditing Standards (GAAS) should be used for audits

240
Q

Consistency assertion in the MD&A

A

Addresses whether non-financial data has been accurately derived from related records

241
Q

Occurrence assertion in the MD&A

A

Addresses whether reported transactions have occurred during a given period

242
Q

The presentation and disclosure assertion in the MD&A

A

Addresses whether information included is properly classified, described, and disclosed

243
Q

Attest engagements

A

Generally result in the EXAMINATION of reports, review of reports or AUP’s. Examples include reviewing pro-forma financials, examining a financial forecast and examining management’s assertions about a subject

244
Q

An engagement to review the FS of a nonpublic company

A

Is not subject to Attestation standards, but rather, falls under SSARS

245
Q

GAAS vs. SSAE

A

Attestation standards provide a framework for the attest function beyond historical FS

246
Q

When a service organization provides services that affect the initiation, execution, processing or reporting of a companys transactions

A

Those services are considered to be part of the user company’s information system

247
Q

SOC 1 VS SOC 2 and types

A

SOC 1 - Reports on internal controls of over financial reporting at a service organization

SOC 2 - Reports on internal controls related to one or more of the Trust Services Criteria

Type 1 reports - does not contain a statement about operating effectiveness
Type 2 reports - may provide all the information needed to reduce control risk

248
Q

A soc 1 type 1 report

A

Contains MANAGEMENTS description of the service organizations system. It also DISCLAIMS an opinion because it doesn’t test the operating effectiveness of the control

249
Q

When issuing a compliance report

A

The auditor must have audited the FS and issued an unmodified or qualified opinion. The auditor may only issue negative assurance on compliance. An opinion cannot be rendered

250
Q

When an auditor reports on compliance of contractual agreements in a separate report

A

The report should include a reference to specific covenants of the contractual agreements

251
Q

Compliance examination procedures

A

Express an opinion on an entity’s compliance.

252
Q

Negative assurance for compliance

A

Is given with a compliance report issued in connection with audited FS

253
Q

Representations from management regarding compliance with specified requirements

A

Must be in writing. Oral representations are not sufficient

254
Q

Single audit major programs are determined

A

By applying a risk based approach

255
Q

Materiality for a single audit

A

Is determined separately for each major federal assistance program

256
Q

A single audit

A

Is an audit of both the FS and over compliance with federal regulations as prescribed by the Single Audit Act and 2 CFR 200

257
Q

A sub recipient

A

Is a non-federal entity that expends federal awards received from another entity to carry out a federal program

258
Q

Cognizant agencies

A

Are typically the federal awarding agency that provides the most amount of direct funding to a non-federal entity

259
Q

Negative assurance can be expressed

A

When an accountant is reporting on Management’s assertion

260
Q

In a legal letter

A

“Proceeding is nominal in amount” included should not worry the auditor

261
Q

A critical audit matter

A

Is required to be communicated to the audit committee and involves an especially challenging judgement made by the auditor

262
Q

If the auditor assessed control risk too low

A

The deviation rate exceeds the tolerable rate

263
Q

For an integrated audit

A

The auditor is not required to perform tests of controls on the subsequent event

264
Q

According to GAS

A

Auditors should report on the scope of their testing of compliance with laws and regulations and of internal controls

265
Q

When performing a yellow book audit

A

The auditor reports on compliance and internal controls. This represents a greater responsibility than GAAS audits

266
Q

Government auditing standards (GAS)

A

Define three types of audits: Financial audits, attest engagements, and performance audits

267
Q

Under GAGAS

A

An auditor should keep digging on suspected fraud

268
Q

Under a GAS performance audit

A

A concurrent opinion with the FS is not required

269
Q

Under GAS

A

Audit documentation should contain specific information so that oral explanations are not required

270
Q

Under a GAS FS audit

A

An auditor should prepare a written report on the auditor’s understanding of internal control and assessment of control risk. This is required for every GAS audit

271
Q

The auditor’s report on compliance and on internal control over financial reporting

A

Must include the scope of testing

272
Q

Compliance audit work papers

A

Do not express an opinion on the effectiveness of internal controls over conpliance

273
Q

A report on internal control over compliance

A

Includes a disclaimer of opinion. The audit opinion states that the audit was conducted in order to express an opinion on compliance but not for the purpose of expressing an opinion over the effectiveness of internal control over compliance

274
Q

GAGAS prescribes additional standards on

A

Reporting of internal controls and illegal acts

275
Q

Management rep letter for a government audit

A

Identifies management’s interpretation of compliance requirements that are subject to interpretation

276
Q

The COSO cube

A

Shows the three categories of objectives as columns, the five internal control components as rows, and the four levels of an entity’s organization as the third dimension

277
Q

A report on AUP procedures

A

Should be in the form of procedures and findings, no opinion is rendered

278
Q

Under the statements on standards for Attestation Engagements (SSAE)

A

The engagement party acknowledges that the procedures performed were appropriate to meet the intended purpose of the engagement. This is done prior to finalizing

279
Q

Under an attestation agreement

A

The materiality threshold established is included along with the procedures performed and the related findings

280
Q

Under an Attestation Engagement

A

The client takes responsibility for the sufficiency of the AUP, not the practitioner

281
Q

For an AUP engagement

A

The client and accountant must agree, or be able to agree, on the criteria that will be used in the determination of findings. An agreement should be reached on the procedures performed and any materiality limits to be applied

282
Q

In the AUP report

A

A statement should be included referring to the standards established by the AICPA in the application of AUPs

283
Q

A report on AUP procedures

A

Should include a disclaimer of responsibility for the sufficiency of the procedures, as this is the clients responsibility

284
Q

ALL findings

A

Should be included in an AUP report

285
Q

AUPs vs. reviews

A

AUPs provide no assurance
Reviews provided limited (negative) assurance

286
Q

Financial forecasts vs. projections

A

Forecasts - appropriate for general use
Projections - not appropriate for general use

Both are considered “prospective financial statements” and are always appropriate for limited use

287
Q

When compiling prospective FS

A

The practitioner has no responsibility to update the report for events and circumstances occurring after the report date

288
Q

The report on a compilation

A

Should include a statement that the accountant assumes no responsibility to update the report for events subsequent to the report date

289
Q

The date of the AUP report

A

Is the date of the completion of AUP procedures

290
Q

Financial projections

A

Do not include an evaluation of the support for the assumptions underlying the projections

291
Q

For prospective FS issued under SSAE

A

All significant assumptions used to prepare the prospective FS should be disclosed. Significant assertions need not be disclosed

292
Q

An examination of a financial forecast

A

Evaluates the preparation of the prospective FS
Evaluates the support underlying the assumptions
Evaluates the presentation of the prospective FS in accordance with AICPA guidelines
Issues an examination report

293
Q

When a financial forecast is examined that fails to disclose several significant assumptions

A

The accountant issues an adverse opinion

294
Q

A compilation

A

Does not require independence

295
Q

Pro forma FS

A

Are not considered to be prospective FS

296
Q

SSARS applies when

A

An accountant prepares, compiles, or reviews FS. An example would be using information in the GL to prepare FS outside an accounting software system

297
Q

SSARS

A

REQUIRES that a compiled report be issued with compiled FS

298
Q

Drafting FS notes

A

Does not constitute preparation of financial statements

299
Q

SSARS does not apply when

A

An accountant prepares personal financial statements for inclusion in written personal financial plans

300
Q

Preparation engagements

A

Should be prepared under SSARS. They are a non-attest type of engagement and independence is not required. Each page in a prep engagement should include a statement saying that no assurance is provided

301
Q

Attestation Engagements

A

Examinations (reasonable assurance)
Reviews (limited assurance)
AUPs (no assurance)

302
Q

Compilation engagements

A

Are a compilation of a specific element or account of the FS. A comp cannot be relied on to disclose errors, fraud, or illegal acts because it provides no assurance

303
Q

For a compilation engagement

A

The accountant should include the effect that independence impairments, if present, will have on the expected form of the accountants report when establishing an understanding with the client

304
Q

Analytical procedures

A

Are required for a review engagement

305
Q

During a comp, if the accountant believes the FS are materially mistated

A

The accountant should obtain the additional or revised information needed to correct the FS

306
Q

An accountants compilation report on the unaudited FS

A

Should disclaim an opinion on the FS

307
Q

A compilation report

A

Does not contain a title

308
Q

A review report

A

Should include the word “independent” in it’s title

309
Q

A standard compilation report

A

Implies substantially all disclosures required by gaap are included in the FS

310
Q

SSARS does not require

A

A comp report to be on the accountants letterhead or contain a manual signiture

311
Q

FS in one year that contain GAAP disclosures vs FS that do not in the next year

A

Can not be compiled together

312
Q

For compilation engagements

A

If an accountant is not independent, they should specifically disclose the lack of independence. Otherwise independence is implied

313
Q

The standard review report issued in accordance with SSARS

A

Should state that the CPA is not aware of any material modifications that should be made to the FS

314
Q

A review report

A

Does not require corroboration of key account balances

315
Q

Review engagements

A

Do not require testing of processes used by management

316
Q

Ratio analysis vs trend analysis

A

Ratio - BS
Trend - IS

317
Q

Each page of the reviewed FS should contain the following

A

“see independent accountants review report”

318
Q

A material, but not pervasive, finding in a review

A

Calls for a qualified conclusion

319
Q

Modifications to the standard review report

A

Only occur when there is a departure from GAAP

320
Q

A review of the interim FS of a publicly held company

A

Is subject to PCAOB standards. SSARS applies to FS reviews of nonissuers

321
Q

The objective of a review of interim financials for a public entity

A

Is to provide an accountant with a basis for reporting whether material modifications should be made to conform with GAAP

322
Q

If AR confirms were sent during interim and they all look okay

A

There is no need to resend them during fieldwork. The accountant should review supporting docs for large balance occurring after the review date and evaluate any specific changes

323
Q

Interim FS for an issuer

A

Requires an evaluation of internal control. Neither requires inquiry of legal council

324
Q

During a review, the following are usually not performed

A

Verification of changes in key account balances
Inspection of the open PO file
Performance of cutoff tests

325
Q

By ensuring that all required disclosures are adequately disclosed in the footnotes

A

The auditor tests the completeness assertion

326
Q

The attorneys refusal to respond

A

May result in a qualified opinion

327
Q

Allowing for greater management oversight

A

Is the best way to compensate for lack of segregation of duties at a small company

328
Q

The trough in the business cycle

A

Represents unused productive capacity and unwillingness to risk investments

329
Q

If the partner and assistant disagree on something and the assistant wants to be disassociated

A

The disagreement needs to be documented in the report’s conclusion

330
Q

If positive AR confirms are unconfirmed

A

Second requests are sent. If those are not received, the CPA can get the client involved

331
Q

An audit includes

A

Evaluating the reasonableness of significant accounting estimates

332
Q

The ultimate purpose of assessing control risk

A

Is to evaluate risk of material misstatements in the financials

333
Q

In evaluating the reasonableness of an estimate

A

Methods and significant assumptions that deviate from historical patterns are examined

334
Q

The audit plan

A

Should include documentation of specific procedures to be performed in compliance with GAAS

335
Q

Any audit report issued on significant deficiencies

A

Should state that testing controls was not the objective of the audit

336
Q

Testing overstatement vs understatement of sales

A

Overstatement - Test existence, vouch back
Understatement - Test completeness, trace forward

337
Q

Allowance for sampling risk

A

Upper deviation rate/sample deviation rate

Sample deviation rate = (# of bad items/total population)

338
Q

During the planning stage an auditor decides

A

Whether to perform tests at an interim date and whether to rely on the work of internal auditors

339
Q

Even if no misstatements were identified

A

both significant deficiencies and material weaknesses may exist

340
Q

When testing the completeness assertion

A

The auditor does not look at documents that support a transaction. They observe, perform analytics, and trace

341
Q

AR confirms categorized as “exceptions”

A

Are labeled as such when payments mailed to the client have not been recorded

342
Q

In assessing the tolerable rate of deviations of a test of controls that was performed using statistical sampling, an auditor should consider that

A

Deviations from pertinent controls at a given rate ordinarily result in misstatements at a lower rate.

343
Q

a typical comfort letter

A

expresses negative assurance on whether the unaudited condensed financial information complies in form with the accounting requirements of the SEC

344
Q

For COSO

A

Anything “new” happening at a company is part of the risk assessment area. This includes items like new personnel, new tech, and corporate restructuring

345
Q

Sample size (PPS)

A

Total reported amount / sampling interval

346
Q

PPS tainting value

A

(BV - Audited value) / BV

347
Q

PPS projected error

A

Tainting percentage * Sampling interval

348
Q

Purpose of fixing prices to meet economic objectives of price stability and product affordability

A

Demand increases but supply decreases, meaning consumers will buy more and producers will make less

349
Q

Check kiting

A

Auditors look at the receipt date and compare it to the disbursement date. If the receipt date is before year end, and the disbursement date is after year end, it could indicate kiting. Per books/per bank isn’t a factor

350
Q

Reviewing financial statements and disclosures for unusual transactions or unexpected balances

A

Is an analytic performed by the partner at the end of the audit

351
Q

There is no requirement

A

that the auditor’s report on supplementary information required by GAAP be restricted

352
Q

Control environment vs. control activity

A

Ethics demonstrated by management vs. monthly bank rec approval

353
Q

Examples from COSO - integrated framework

A

Policy and procedure deployment falls within control activities
Communication of deficiencies falls within the monitoring component
Identifying and assessing changes falls within the risk assessment component
Specifying objectives falls within the risk assessment component

354
Q

The auditor’s required communication with TCWG

A

needs to include all disagreements with management about significant audit adjustments, whether or not satisfactorily resolved

355
Q

When a group auditor does not assume responsibility for the work performed by the component auditor

A

The opinion paragraph is modified

356
Q

Contact with the predecessor auditor

A

Is mandatory before client acceptance, but client permission is required

357
Q

PCAOB documentation completion date

A

Is 45 days following the report release date

358
Q

Components of internal control examples

A

Periodically updating the mission statement and values is an example of monitoring
Risk assessment occurs when the “what could go wrong” question is asked
Information and communication relates to the periodic reporting of internal control
Control activities involve implementing controls

359
Q

Probability proportional to size (PPS) sampling

A

The auditor controls the risk of incorrect acceptance by specifying that risk level for the sampling plan. The inputs for PPS are tolerable misstatement, risk of incorrect acceptance, and the recorded amount of the population.

Sampling interval is calculated by dividing the recorded amount of the population by sample size.

Overstated units have a higher probability of being sampled, since each unit is given a probability of selection in proportion to its recorded amount

360
Q

Financial projections

A

Are appropriate only for limited use

361
Q

Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services (SSARS)

A

Applies only to nonissuers

362
Q

Tolerable misstatement

A

Isn’t factored when testing controls

363
Q

Management may choose to not

A

Correct the internal control deficiencies identified by the auditor due to cost-benefit considerations, therefore this is not part of the understanding between the auditor and client

364
Q

CPA firm quality control elements

A

HR
Engagement acceptance/continuance
Leadership responsibilities
Performing the engagement
Monitoring
Ethical requirements

365
Q

Cash disbursements internal control weakness example

A

To have the AP department cancel the voucher packages would be a weakness, as voucher packages could be resent to the treasurer again for payment. It is the treasurers responsibility to cancel them

366
Q

Variables sampling

A

Is normally used to estimate a numerical measurement of a population. Random number sampling would be used to select the sample itself. Stop-or-go sampling is a type of attribute sampling used when testing controls

367
Q

If an insurance policy cannot be provided for a piece of equipment

A

It is indicative that a lien is placed on equipment, since the policy would be with the lienholder

368
Q

The five components of internal control

A

Control environment, risk assessment, information and communication systems, monitoring, and existing control activities

369
Q

When a service organization provides services that affect the initiation, execution, processing or reporting of a user company’s transactions

A

Those services are considered to be part of the user company’s information system

370
Q

SSARS applies when an accountant

A

Prepares the FS
Compiles the FS
Reviews the FS

371
Q

SSAE

A

Provides guidance on engagements other than reporting on historical statements

372
Q

Testing credit approval

A

Tests the valuation and allocation assertion of AR

373
Q

Statistical approaches

A

Allow auditors to quantify sampling risk

374
Q

GAS is associated with the following types of engagements

A

Financial statement audits, attest engagements, and performance audits

Does not include single audits which fall under 2 CFR 200 and the single audit act

375
Q

Non statistical samples

A

Require judgment to select a sample

376
Q

Statistical sampling

A

Helps the auditor measure the sufficiency of the audit evidence because the auditor can quantify sampling risk, thus assisting in limiting it to an acceptable level

377
Q

When control risk is set to a low level

A

Tests of controls is required. Tests of details can then be less extensive

378
Q

A management representation

A

Is not required regarding managements consultation with other accountants.

Instances of immaterial fraud only need to be disclosed if a significant member of management is involved

379
Q

A report on the design and implementation of controls (SOC 1)

A

Disclaims an opinion on the operating effectiveness of internal control

380
Q

US Auditing standards require

A

An auditor to use analytical procedures related to revenue

381
Q

Compilation engagements

A

Fall under SSARS. An accountant is not required to be independent, perform inquiries, or perform procedures. No opinion is rendered

382
Q

Under SOX 2002

A

An auditor can’t go to an issuing client as a CEO, CFO, or controller until one audit cycle has been completed

383
Q

An auditor reviews the reconciliation of tax forms that a client is responsible for filing

A

In order to identify potential liabilities for unpaid payroll taxes

384
Q

Top down approach to select controls to test

A

First - evaluation of overall FS risk
Second - evaluation of controls at the entity level
Third - evaluation of accounts, disclosures, and assertions for which there is a reasonable possibility of material misstatement

385
Q

Stratification

A

-Segregates the population into groups
-Each group is treated as a separate population
-Results in a reduced sample size
-Commonly used when population has highly variable recorded amounts

386
Q

Accounting estimates

A

Are not used to measure future events.

If data about past events cannot be accumulated in a timely, cost effective manner, accounting estimates are required.

387
Q

Best way to reduce attestation risk

A

Examination of evidence

388
Q

Use of analytics when testing investments

A

Ascertains the reasonableness of completeness of investment income

389
Q

Examples of control tests over revenue

A

Record count - tests completeness - counts the number of current-period sales records entered into the accounting system

Check digit - tests if all numbers were entered

Run to run - completed to ensure that the total of one processing run, plus the input from the next run, should equal the result of the second processing

Limit tests - tests the reasonableness of data and that the individual sales records were not outside of an expected range

390
Q

Contingent fees are allowed by the AICPA

A

For tax matters, if they are based on findings of governmental agencies, such as representing a client in an IRS examination of a clients federal income tax return

For comps expected to be used by third parties, but only if the member includes a statement that the member is not independent

391
Q

Analytical procedures performed during the overall review stage most likely indicate that

A

additional tests of details are required

392
Q

Periodic physical inspections of PPE by internal auditors

A

Justifies a reduced assessed level of control risk over PPE acquisitions

393
Q

An audit plan

A

Is REQUIRED. It is usually modified

394
Q

A consignment sale

A

Is not a related party sale

395
Q

Range vs reasonableness test

A

Range tests identify items outside of a given range. Reasonableness tests identify items within a given range

396
Q

Deadline for completion of audit documentation per SAS

A

Issuer (PCAOB) - 45 days
Nonissuer - 60 days

397
Q

Management is responsible

A

for providing the rep letter at the end of the audit

398
Q

a bank rec

A

can be performed after month end close

399
Q

Integrated audit report

A

report is titled “Report of Independent Registered Public Accounting Firm”. should reference PCAOB. If there is a significant deficiency or material weakness, a paragraph should be added to the end of the report defining both terms and explaining that this is a departure from GAAP. GAAP should be referenced throughout the report. Financial statements are prepared in accordance with GAAP, not the PCAOB. The audit is performed in accordance with the PCAOB/AICPA based on issuance status.

400
Q

Integrated audits

A

of issuers - performed in accordance with the PCAOB
of non-issuers - performed in accordance with the AICPA

401
Q

Auditing AR

A

If cash received is less than the invoice amount - determine if there were undocumented sales returns

402
Q

For a compilation

A

The accountants report should include a statement saying that the accountant does not express an opinion on the FS

403
Q

For a review under SSARS

A

Includes a statement that the accountant is not aware of any material modifications that should be made to the FS to be in accordance with GAAP

404
Q

Audit documentation per PCAOB

A

Must be retained for 7 years regardless of issuer status

405
Q

If material weaknesses are found

A

An adverse opinion on the entity’s internal control is expressed

406
Q

Mitigate a going concern issue

A

Increase ownership equity (sell stock), borrow money, restructure debt, sell assets, and delay expenditures

407
Q

Predecessor auditor provides

A

Results of the audit procedures and risk assessment procedures

408
Q

Types of audit evidence

A

Internally generated: shipping docs and receiving reports
Externally generated: vendor invoices and packing slips

409
Q

The highest level of risk of material misstatement

A

Is the financial statements. Therefore the auditor focuses on them the most

410
Q

The examination of client records documenting the use of EDP programs

A

Is a test of controls

411
Q

SSARS does not apply when the accountant prepares FS for

A

Developing a personal financial plan
Solely for submission to taxing authorities
In conjunction with litigation services
In conjunction with valuation services

412
Q

When obtaining an understanding of a clients system of internal controls

A

An auditor is required to obtain an understanding of the control design, but not the operating effectiveness (testing of controls)

413
Q

Derivatives on the balance sheet

A

Are not contingencies

414
Q

AUPs should contain

A

A disclaimer of responsibility for the sufficiency of the procedures

415
Q

Few responses to confirmations

A

May be indicative of fraud

416
Q

Proper authorization of write offs should occur

A

By the treasurer since they have no billing responsibilities. Record keeping functions should be separate from authorizing functions

417
Q

A foreign key

A

Is an attribute in one table, that is the primary key in another table

418
Q

A client is allowed

A

To draft their own legal letters

419
Q

GAS requires

A

A report on internal control in every audit

420
Q

When designing the written audit plan

A

An auditor should establish specific audit objectives that relate primarily to the financial statement assertions

421
Q

Observation of inventory counts

A

Is a substantive procedure

422
Q

Preparing the invoice and recording the receivables

A

Are both record keeping functions and are compatible

423
Q

An auditor is unlikely to approach

A

Regulators about fraud

424
Q

Determining how future conditions may impact the clients FV measurements

A

Is not the auditors responsibility

425
Q

AR write offs

A

Need to come from the treasurer. Since the controller is the head of the record keeping function, the approval function (the write off) should be performed by the treasurer

426
Q

Testing client transactions

A

Completeness
Cutoff
Valuation
Existence and occurrence
Presentation and classification

427
Q

After calculating the projected mistatement

A

ADD the allowance for sampling risk

428
Q

Emails sent as AR confirms

A

Aren’t preferred. The auditor should request that the recipient send the form in the mail to them

429
Q

Best way to reduce attestation risk

A

Examination of evidence

430
Q

Examining evidence on a test basis

A

Is explicitly stated in the Auditors Responsibility section of the report. Consistency need not be explicitly stated if there is no issue with consistency

431
Q

If a mistatement causes a shift from a net profit to a net loss

A

It is considered qualitatively material at least

432
Q

when a safety deposit box is opened for investments

A

Proper control is for two board members to have access. An independent person should compare the contents of the deposit box with the amount listed in the investment subledger

433
Q

The communication of significant deficiencies in internal control

A

is not included in the rep letter

434
Q

Fees must be paid

A

before the issuance of the report on the CY financials

435
Q

Shipping documents

A

provide evidence that a sale has occurred, therefore if an auditor is testing controls over sales invoice preparation, they would look at a shipping doc population

436
Q

A change in accounting principle

A

Is put into an emphasis-of-matter paragraph following the opinion, as long as the change was properly accounted for

437
Q

SSAE vs. SSARS: The CPA

A

SSAE:
- Assessed the accounting principles used and significant estimates made by management
- Has no responsibility to update the CPA’s report for events and circumstances occurring after the report’s date
- Believes that there will usually be differences between the projected and actual results.

SSARS:
- Is not aware of any material modifications that should be made to the financial statements.

438
Q

The PCAOB

A

Was established by the SOX act of 2002

439
Q

Management’s responsibilities

A
  • Fair presentation of the FS
  • Design, implementation and maintenance of Internal controls
  • Management will provide access to their documents and employees
440
Q

Engagement Letters

A
  • Agreement of what the auditor will perform
  • What management is responsible for
  • Expected reports to be provided to management
  • Company’s method of accounting
  • Auditors provide reasonable assurance
  • Includes the fees
  • Not going to include ML
  • Not going to mention specific procedures
441
Q

WP’s

A

are property of the auditor. no responsibility to send the WP’s to the client. Main purpose is to document enough evidence to support the opinion and show that the auditors are following the prescribed standards. must be sufficient (quantity) and appropriate (quality)

442
Q

How is the quality of WP’s bolstered

A

Through nature (type), timing (YE vs. interim) and extent (sample size)

443
Q

Planning

A
  • Audit strategy - high level (how much staff? how many hours?)
  • Audit plan - detail level document, required - outline procedures to be performed
  • Analytics must also be performed to identify risk
  • We need to obtain an understanding of the business and industry
  • We need to obtain an understanding of the client’s internal controls (design and implementation)
444
Q

Assessing the operating effectiveness of internal controls

A

Is a separate area as compared to obtaining an understanding internal controls. We would actually be testing controls here

445
Q

Predecessor Auditor

A
  • Current auditor must reach out after client approval
  • Biggest thing is the need to figure out why the client made the switch
446
Q

Who can external auditors rely on?

A

Internal auditors - they are not independent. We can use them for low complexity areas. They need to be competent and objective
Specialists - someone who has special skills other than accounting.
Component auditors - auditor of a sub. they set their own ML. Group auditors review the component auditors work and incorporate it into the audit of the parent
External auditors are still responsible for everything and therefore must obtain an understanding about the approach and skillset

447
Q

Audit risk formula

A

Audit risk is the risk misstatements end up on the FS

IR X CR X DR = AR (also RMM X DR)
IR X CR = RMM

As RMM increases, DR needs to decrease

448
Q

Assessing the risk of RMM

A

Must be assessed at two different levels:

FS level - company level changes, big changes
Relevant assertion level - transaction, account balances, disclosure level risk

449
Q

Management assertions

A

Claims of what is true on the FS

Existence and Occurance: Important for assets, revenue
Completeness: Liabilities, expenses
Classification: Are the items in the correct account?
Cutoff: Is the item in the correct period?
Valuation: Is the item reported for the correct amount?
Rights and Obligations: Does the company have the rights to the assets? Does the company have the obligation to pay for the liabilities
Understandability and Presentation: Are the FN’s clear enough? is there enough context?

450
Q

Fraud risks for cash

A

Lapping - Customer 1 pays for the AR balance. Employee steals that money. Customer 2 pays for their AR balance. Employee appliers that payment to Customer 1’s balance

Kiting - Not stealing, but fraudulent reporting. Company has multiple bank accounts and transfers from one account to another. The company doesn’t write off the transfer

451
Q

Auditing cash

A

Confirm cash with client banks
Reperform client bank rec and verification of significant DIT’s and OS Checks

452
Q

Auditing Revenue and AR

A

AR confirmations (existence)
Subsequent receipt testing
Review of the AR aging

453
Q

Auditing Inventory

A

Company could include inventory on its BS that doesn’t exist
Miscalculate inventory balance
Could have slow moving or obsolete inventory that should be written off

Auditors perform an observation. This is the highest and best source of audit evidence

454
Q

Auditing Investments

A

Auditors recalculate and confirm as the main tests

Also need to review segregation of duties over investments:
- Authorization: Buying and selling the stocks (board of directors)
- Recording: JE’s for investments
- Custody: Custodian that holds investments

455
Q

Auditing PPE

A

Roll forwards for additions and disposals and accumulated depreciation
Recalc gain or loss on disposal
Review R&M expense vs. capitalization

456
Q

Auditing AP

A

Search for unrecord liabilities
Scan the company’s AP aging - if there are any old items, is the company going to pay them?

457
Q

Auditing Debt

A

Long term portion must be broken out, this is current amount of PRINCIPLE owed in the coming year (classification assertion)
Create roll forward for additions to debt, principle payments, and ending debt
Two important docs - Debt agreement and amortization table

458
Q

Auditing Equity

A

Tends to be overstated
Perform a reclac of RE: Beginning RE + Income - dividends paid
Common stock: review board minutes for issuances and buy backs, or if they will declare dividends

459
Q

Audit sampling types

A

Variable Sampling: Auditing dollar amounts, TOD
Attribute sampling: Auditing a rate of occurrence, TOC

460
Q

Sample selection types

A

Statistical sample: use of calculations, each item has an equal chance of being selected
Nonstatistical sample: use of auditor judgment to make the sample

461
Q

Upper deviation rate

A

Sample deviation rate + allowance for sampling risk

Compare this upper deviation rate to the tolerable rate. If it’s above the tolerable rate then we can’t rely on the controls

462
Q

Subsequent events

A

After the FS date and before we issue the audit report

463
Q

management rep letter

A

Is printed on management letterhead. We can’t issue the FS until we have this

464
Q

The auditor’s report

A

Is attached to the FS. First section is the opinion.

465
Q

Pervasiveness

A

Impacts qualified opinions vs. other modified opinion

466
Q

qualified opinons

A

use “except for” in the opinion paragraph

467
Q

Structure of the audit report

A

Non-issuers:
Opinion
Basis of opinion
Going Concern (if an issue)
Key Audit Matters (if required)
Management’s Responsibility
Auditor’s Responsibility

Issuers:
Opinion
Basis of opinion
Critical audit matters

468
Q

Emphasis of Matter paragraph - Used for nonissuers

A

while not enough to modify the opinion, it should still be emphasized. These relate to items in the FS that are key to the reader’s understanding. Always associated with an UNMODIFIED opinion. Use when:
1. There is a justified change in accounting principle
2. Change in the audit opinion from modified to unmodified. Can also be added to an other matter paragraph
3. Special purpose framework is used
4. An uncertainty relating to the future outcome of unusually important litigation or regulatory action
5. A significant subsequent event
6. A major catastrophe that has had or continues to impact the FS
7. Significant transactions with related parties

469
Q

Other matter paragraph - Used for nonissuers

A

Always comes after the emphasis of matter paragraph. Use when:
1. Change in the audit opinion from modified to unmodified. Can also be added to an emphasis of matter paragraph
2. Comparative FS are used with the financial statements that are either reviewed or compiled from the prior period
3. Comparative FS are used with FS that were unaudited
4. When the auditor includes a restricted use alert
5. When the auditor has elected to report on supplementary information, and that information is presented in conjunction with the audit report other than separately.
6. When the auditor refers to the required supplementary information.
7. When the FS of the prior period were audited by a predecessor auditor
8. When an auditor id reporting on compliance, and that report is included in the auditor’s report.
9. If the component auditor include a modified opinion in the report the group auditor should make a reference to this modified opinion. Can also be added to an emphasis of matter paragraph.
10. When the auditor identified material inconsistencies prior to the audit report date.
11. When an auditor is unable to withdraw from an engagement, even though there is a scope limitation
12. Law or generally accepted practice may require or permit the auditor to elaborate on matters that provide further explanation of the auditor’s responsibilities in the audit of the FS.
13. An other matter paragraph does not address the circumstances in which the auditor had other reporting responsibilities that are in addition to the auditor’s responsibilities under GAAS.

470
Q

Explanatory Paragraph - Used for issuers

A

Associated with clean opinions. Used when:
1. The auditor’s opinion is based in part on the report of another auditor
2. There is substantial doubt about the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern
3. There has been a material change between periods in accounting principles or in the method of application
4. Certain circumstances relating to reports on comparative FS exist
5. Selected quarterly financial data required by the SEC regulation S-K has been omitted or has not been reviewed
6. Supplementary information required by the Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) and other regulatory bodies
7. Other information in a document containing audited FS is materially inconsistent with the information appearing in the FS.

471
Q

Professional Auditing Standards

A

PCAOB - Issuers. Must be in compliance with the SEC.
SAS - Non-issuers. Standards set by AICPA. Must be in compliance with the ASB.
GAGAS - Government Entities. Standards set by GAO.
SSAE - Attest engagements (examinations, reviews, AUP’s). Standards set by AICPA. Explicitly for non-issuers.
SSARS - Accounting and Review engagements (reviews, comps, prep engagements). Standards set by AICPA. Explicitly for non-issuers.

472
Q

Review enagagements

A

PCAOB - other 3 quarters must be reviewed for the issuer
SAS - other 3 quarters must be reviewed for nonissuers
SSAE - Applies to review of management assertions, proforma engagements
SSARS - Reviews nonissuers FS who also do not get audited

473
Q

SSAE

A

Applies to forward looking engagements, as long as its not a compilation. That’s SSARS

474
Q

AUP’s

A

No opinion is rendered, but an auditor still must remain independent. A report on the findings that lists the procedures performed is considered an attest engagement

475
Q

Reviews

A

Require independence. In the conclusion, negative assurance is given. “Nothing came to our attention”

476
Q

Revenue document tracing order (completeness)

A

Sales order form -> Shipping doc -> Invoices paid -> Sales Journal -> Subledger -> GL

477
Q

Revenue testing for accuracy/valuation

A

Auditor selects a sample of invoices and verifies the amounts with the other supporting documentation to ensure that amounts are accurate.
The auditor should trace a sales invoice to the sales journal and accounting records to ensure that they are recorded in the correct amount

478
Q

Revenue testing for existence/occurance

A

The auditor should vouch a sample of the sales transactions from the sales journal to the invoices, from the invoice to the shipping doc, and from the shipping doc to the sales order form

479
Q

Revenue testing for presentation/classification

A

The auditor should examine a sample of sales invoices for proper classification into the appropriate revenue accounts

480
Q

Expense document tracing order (completeness)

A

PO -> Receiving reports -> Invoices -> Purchase Journals -> Subledger -> GL

481
Q

Voucher package that the accounting department compares

A

Three way match:
PO, Receiving report, Invoice

482
Q

Expense cutoff testing

A

Compare the dates that are applied to the vouchers with the dates that are recorded in the sales journals. Auditor also performs an AP search

483
Q

Expense valuation testing

A

Auditor should recalc the amounts recorded on the company’s vendor invoices

484
Q

Expense existence and occurance

A

The auditor should determine if the expenditures were properly authorized and whether or not they were accurately presented on the receiving reports

485
Q

Expense understandability and classification

A

The auditor should determine whether or not the company has properly classified their purchases by examining a sample of purchases

486
Q

Payroll document tracing order (completeness)

A

Time sheets -> payroll report -> subledger -> GL

487
Q

Payroll valuation testing

A

The auditor should determine the valuation of payroll expense by comparing the amounts recorded in payroll with the total amount of checks issued and outstanding. The auditor should view labor rates and compare them to reported employee records and payroll reports as well as recalc what is being recorded on a sample of checks

488
Q

Payroll cutoff testing

A

the auditor should pull a sample of time sheets shortly before and after year end, and compare amounts reported to the payroll report in order to determine whether the transaction has been recorded in the correct period

489
Q

Payroll existence testing

A

The auditor should vouch a sample of time sheets as well as entries made in the payroll register from the payroll reports

490
Q

Payroll classification testing

A

The auditor should view a sample of paychecks and determine whether or not they have been classified into the proper expense item on the income statement

491
Q

Fixed assets document tracing order (completeness)

A

Fixed asset requisition (approval) forms -> fixed asset schedules -> GL

492
Q

Fixed asset valuation testing

A

Auditor should recalc to verify portfolio income items that are presented (depreciation expense), as well as recorded gains and losses of discounts and premiums that have been allocated

493
Q

Fixed asset cutoff testing

A

The auditor should examine a listing of FA purchases sales shortly before and after year end. Gains and losses are prone to being overstated if management asserts that fixed assets have been sold prior to the actual sale

494
Q

Fixed asset existence testing

A

Vouch from the receiving reports to the vendor invoice to determine that amounts purchased have been properly received and paid

495
Q

Fixed asset understandability and classification

A

The auditor should verify all changes made to R&M to verify that items have been properly expensed vs. capitlized. Management is prone to over capoitalizing R&M, which overstates assets and undertstates expenses