AUBF QUIZ Flashcards

1
Q

These are fine colorless to yellow needles in clumps or in rosette which when seen in conjunction with leucine crystal and a positive urine chemical test for bilirubin is an indication of a liver disorder.

A. Ampicillin Crystals
B. Cholesterol Crystals 
C. Sulfonamide Crystals 
D. Tryptophan Crystals
E. NO ANSWER
A

E. No answer

It should be TYROSINE

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2
Q

It results from precipitation of antibiotics following massive dosage of this penicillin compound without adequate hydration.

A. Ampicillin Crystals
B. Cholesterol Crystals 
C. Sulfonamide Crystals 
D. Tryptophan Crystals
E. NO ANSWER
A

A. Ampicillin Crystals

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3
Q

These are colorless to yellow-brown crystals that appears in needles, rhombic, whetstones, sheaves of wheat and rosettes which can be distinguished from calcium phosphate crystals upon addition of dilute acetic acid.

A. Ammonium Biurate
B. Amorphous Materials
C. Calcium Carbonate
D. Calcium Oxalate
E. NO ANSWER
A

E.
The answer should be Sulfonamide Crystals

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4
Q

Urinary neutrophils when exposed to a hypotonic solution, absorbs water and swells. The Brownian movement observed within its granules produces a sparkling appearance, thus this cell is also termed as:

A. Crenated Cells
B. Dysmorphic  Cells
C. Ghost Cells
D. Glitter Cells
E. NO ANSWER
A

D. Glitter Cells

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5
Q

In dilute, hyposthenuric urine, these cells absorb water, swell, and lyse rapidly, releasing their hemoglobin and leaving only the cell membrane thus they are called as:

A. Crenated Cells
B. Dysmorphic  Cells
C. Ghost Cells 
D. Glitter Cells
E. NO ANSWER
A

C. Ghost Cells hypO = ghOst

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6
Q

An increased in number of dysmorphic red blood cell in the urine is primarily associated with:

A. Glomerular Bleeding
B. Hemoglobinuria
C. Myoglobinuria
D. Tubular Bleeding
E, NO ANSWER
A

A. Glomerular Bleeding

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7
Q

The urinary sediment when increased in number is often associated with damage to the glomerular membrane or vascular injury with the genitourinary tract:

A. Red Blood Cells
B. RTE Cells
C. White Blood Cells
D. Urothelial Cells
E. NO ANSWER
A

A. Red Blood Cells

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8
Q

These are lipid containing renal tubular cells that is often seen in cases of nephrotic syndrome:

A. Bubble Cells
B. Clue Cells 
C. Glitter Cells
D. Oval Fat Bodies
E. NO ANSWER
A

D. Oval Fat Bodies fat = lipid

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9
Q

The ovum of this parasite is often associated with bladder cancer in other countries thus it is otherwise known as the most common bladder parasite.

A. Schistosoma haematobium
B. Schistosoma japonicum
C. Schistosoma mansoni
D. Schistosoma vaginalis
E. NO ANSWER
A

A. Schistosoma haemotobium

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10
Q

Hyaline cast is physiologically increased in the following conditions, except:

A. Congestive Heart Failure
B. Dehydration
C. Emotional Stress
D. Heat Exposure
E. NO ANSWER
A

A. Congestive Heart Failure
not physio, but pathologically inc

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11
Q

White Blood Cell cast together with the presence of bacteria in the urine is indicative of:

A. Acute Interstitial Nephritis 
B. Chronic Interstitial Nephritis
C. Nephrotic Syndrome
D. Pyelonephritis
A

D. Pyelonephritis

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12
Q

This type of cast can be seen in persons with chronic renal failure, they appear as fragmented cast with jagged ends and notches on their side

A. Broad Cast
B. Mixed Cellular Cast
C. Renal Failure Cast
D. Waxy Cast
A

D. Waxy Cast

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13
Q

This type of cast can be seen in conjunction with oval fat bodies and free fat droplets in disorders causing lipiduria:

A. Fatty Cast
B. Hyaline Cast
C. Waxy Cast
D. WBC Cast
A

A. Fatty Cast all has fats in their names

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14
Q

Monohydrate form of this urine crystals can be seen in person following an ethylene glycol poisoning:

A. Calcium Carbonate
B. Calcium Oxalate
C. Calcium Phosphate
D. Calcium Urates
A

B. Calcium Oxalate

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15
Q

This type of crystal is often associated with the presence of urea-splitting bacteria.

A. Ammonium Phosphate
B. Amorphous Phosphate
C. Calcium Phosphate
D. Triple Phosphate
E. NO ANSWER
A

E. No answer Ammonium Biurate

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16
Q

This urine crystals resemble other urates in that they dissolve at 60°C and convert to uric acid crystals when glacial acetic acid is added.

A. Amorphous Biurate
B. Amorphous Carbonate
C. Amorphous Phosphate
D. Amorphous Urates
E. NO ANSWER
A

NO ANSWER - Ammonium Biurate

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17
Q

Single defect in proximal tubular dysfunction that results in an excessive reabsorption of calcium:

A. Hypercalciuric Familial Hypercalcemia
B. Hypercalciuric Familial Hypocalcemia
C. Hypocalciuric Familial Hypercalcemia
D. Hypocalciuric Familial Hypocalcemia
E. NO ANSWER
A

C. Hypocalciuric Familial Hypercalcemia

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18
Q

Single defect in proximal tubular dysfunction that results in an excessive reabsorption of sodium.

A. Barter's Syndrome
B. Fanconi Syndrome
C. Gordon's Syndrome
D. Liddle's Syndrome
E. NO ANSWER
A

C. Gordon’s Syndrome

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19
Q

Distal tubular dysfunction that results in an excessive reabsorption of sodium. (Choices from Question # 18)

A. Barter’s Syndrome
B. Fanconi Syndrome
C. Gordon’s Syndrome
D. Liddle’s Syndrome
E. NO ANSWER
A

D. Liddle’s Syndrome

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20
Q

Most common cause of acute allograft rejection of a transplanted kidney.

A. Acute Cystitis.
B. Acute Pyelonephritis
C. Chronic Interstitial Nephritis
D. Chronic Pyelonephritis
E. NO ANSWER
A

E. NO ANSWER - Acute Interstitial Nephritis

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21
Q

Qualitative screening test for the detection of phenylketonuria:

A. Ammoniacal Silver Nitrite Test
B. Ferric Chloride Test
C. Nitrosonaphthol Test
D. Sodium Chloride Test
A

B. Ferric Chloride Test Alkaptonuria, PKU, MSUD, Melanoma

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22
Q

An autosomal recessive disorder wherein the kidney is unable to reabsorbed dibasic amino acids such as arginine, lysine and ornithine.

A. Cystinuria
B. MSUD
C. PKU
D. Tyrosinuria
A

A. Cystinuria

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23
Q

An autosomal recessive disorder wherein the kidney is unable to reabsorbed branched-chain amino acids such as leucine, isoleucine &valine.(Choices from Question # 22)

A. Cystinuria
B. MSUD
C. PKU
D. Tyrosinuria
A

B. MSUD

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24
Q

Single defect in proximal, tubular dysfunction that results in an excessive reabsorption of phosphate.

A. Hartnup Disease
B. Nephrogenic. Phosphaturia
C. Pseudohypoparathyroidism
D. Renal Phosphaturia
A

C. Pseudohypoparathyroidism

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25
Q

Distal tubular dysfunction that results in an inability of the kidney to reabsorbed inorganic phosphates. (Choices from Question #24)

A. Hartnup Disease
B. Nephrogenic Phosphaturia
C. Pseudohypoparathyroidism
D. Renal Phosphaturia
A

D. Renal Phosphaturia

26
Q

A urine sample tested with the following result as follows: Protein in the urine >3.5g/day, Plasma albumin of 1.2g/dL, presence of oval fat bodies and fatty cast in the urine is indicative of what renal disease?

A. Acute Tubular Necrosis
B. Glomerulonephritis
C. Nephritic Syndrome
D. Nephrotic Syndrome
A

D. Nephrotic Syndrome

27
Q

An excessive excretion of the metabolite of phenylalanine that imparts a black color to an alkaline urine from persons with inborn errors of metabolism

A. Alkaptonuria
B. Melanuria
C. Phenylketonuria
D. Tyrosinuria
A

A. Alkaptonuria inborn error of metabolism - homogentisic acid

28
Q

A chronic renal failure that progresses to advanced renal disease:

A. Acute Stage Renal Disease
B. End Stage Renal Disease
C. Familial Stage Renal Disease
D. All of these
A

B. End Stage Renal Disease

29
Q

Develops when permanent inflammation of renal tissue causes permanent scarring that involves the renal calyces & pelvis:

A. Acute Pyelonephritis
B. Chronic Pyelonephritis
C. Lower UTI
D. Upper UTI
A

B. Chronic Pyelonephritis

30
Q

An upper urinary tract infection that involves the renal pelvis alone:

A. Cystitis
B. Pyelitis
C. Pyelonephritis
D. Urethritis
A

B. Pyelitis

31
Q
  1. Four tubes were extracted using lumbar tap from a patient suspected with bacterial meningitis. These tubes were labeled 1-4 based on the order of collection from last to first (first tube-4, last tube-1), Which of these four tubes is to be used for culture and sensitivity testing ?A.1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
A

C. 3 di ko gets yung question dito

32
Q
  1. A patient diagnosed with tuberculosis undergoing treatment was admitted to the hospital with chief complaint of extreme headache and dizziness. The attending physician requested for a lumbar puncture. During collection, the physician and medical technologist observed that the CSF of the patient is reddish-orange in color. What is the possible cause of the discoloration?a. Intracranial Bleeding
    b. Presence of Oxyhemoglobin
    c. Rifampicin Medication
    d. Traumatic Tap
A

c. Rifampicin Medication

33
Q

Predominant of LD5 and LD4 in CSF is consistent with what condition
A. Bacterial meningitis
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Neoplastic syndrome
D. Viral meningitis

A

A. Bacterial meningitis

34
Q
  1. A CSF sample was received in the clinical chemistry section and was stored in the refrigerator prior to testing. The medical technologist observed a web-like pattern on the surface of the sample. Which of the following is not consistent with the condition?
    I. Tubercular meningitis II. Bacterial meningitis
    III. Increased Lactate IV. Decreased Protein

A. I, III
B. II, III, IV
C. II, IV
D. III, IV

35
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about Lecithin / Sphingomyelin Ratio?A. Amniotic sample for testing is stored in the refrigerator
    B. Assess the severity of fetal hemolytic disease
    C. Reference method of Fetal Age Determination
    D. All of these
    E. NO ANSWER
A

C. Reference method of Fetal Age Determination

36
Q
  1. Most probable cause of bacterial meningitis among HIV patients

A. Group B Streptococci
B. Haemophilus influenza
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Neisseria gonorrhea

A

C. Listeria monocytogenes HIV -immunocompromised

37
Q
  1. True of alcoholic stool, except

A.Caused by bile duct blockagepn
B. May be caused by Barium Sulfate
C. May be caused by Bismuth medication
D. Pale colored stool

A

C. May be caused by Bismuth medication

38
Q
  1. The following exhibits oligoclonal bands in CSF electrophoresis but not in serum electrophoresis, except

A. Cancer
B. Multiple Sclerosis
C. Neurosyphilis
D. All of these
E. None of the above

A

E. None of the above
Neoplasmic disorder is a type of cancer

39
Q
  1. A severe damage to the blood brain barrier has a CSF/Serum Albumin index of:

A. >30
B. 9 to 14
C. 15 to 30
D. 100

40
Q
  1. Trichloroacetic acid is the preferred method of protein fraction determination. It utilizes sodium sulfate to precipitate globulin

A. Both statements are false
B. Both statements are true
C. Only 1st statement is true
D. Only 2nd statement is true

A

A. Both statements are false 1st: TCA is a test for TOTAL Protein 2nd: For SSA, not TCA

41
Q
  1. True of Guiac Test:

A. Method of quantitation of fecal fats
B. Method of determination of muscle fibers in stool
C. Principle employed in Clinitest
D. Utilizes the pseudoperoxidase activity of Hemoglobin present in stool

A

D. Utilizes the pseudoperoxidase activity of Hemoglobin present in stool

42
Q
  1. Agent of Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis:

A. Acanthamoeba sp.
B. Balamuthia mandrillaris
C. Naegleria fowleri
D. Both Acanthamoeba and Balamuthia

A

C. Naegleria fowleri

43
Q
  1. Elevated CD4/CD8 ratio in Bronchoalveolar lavage?

A. Connective Tissue disorder
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Both
D. Neither

44
Q
  1. The presence of Gram-negative bacterial endotoxin induces ____ of horseshoe crab to produce

A. Amoebocyte; Amylase
B. Amoebocyte; Lysate
C. Hemocyanin; Cobalt
D. Hemocyanin; Copper

A

D. Hemocyanin; Copper

45
Q
  1. True of Mature Fetal Lung, except:

A. Amniotic fluid creatinine = >2.0 mg/dL
B. Foam Stability Index = ≥47
C. Lecithin: Sphongomyelin Ratio = ≥2.0
D. Presence of Phosphatidylglycerol

A

B. Foam Stability Index = ≥47 must be 0.47

46
Q
  1. Stain/s used in diagnosing pulmonary alveolar proteinosis

A. Oil Red O
B. Periodic Acid Schiff
C. Both
D. Neither

47
Q
  1. Creatinine level is a more useful parameter than Glucose to distinguish amniotic acid from maternal urine. Fern like crystal appear on completely dried vaginal fluid is indicative of amniotic fluid

A. Both statements are false
B. Both statements are true
C. 1st statement is true
D. 2nd statements is true

A

B. Both statements are true

48
Q
  1. CSF is formed by ultrafiltration of plasma through the:

A. Arachnoid Vili
B. Choroid Plexus
C. Sagittal sinus
D. Subarachnoid space

A

B. Choroid Plexus

49
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is most often associated with normal CSF Glucose and Protein

A. Multiple Sclerosis
B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
C. Tubercular meningitis
D. Viral meningitis
E. NO ANSWER

A

E. NO ANSWER - All types of Meningitis have increased Protein; N glucose = Viral

50
Q
  1. Protein found in the beta region of CSF electrophoresis that is not present in serum

A. Beta 2-transferrin
B. Ceruloplasmin
C. Pre-albumin
D. Tau protein

A

D. Tau protein

51
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true about fungal meningitis?

A. Decreased Glucose
B. Decreased Lactate
C. Pleocytosis is evident
D. All of these

A

B. Decreased Lactate Increased in all forms of Meningitis except Viral

52
Q
  1. True of Multiple Sclerosis, except:

A. Associated with immune-mediated destruction of axons
B. Increased CSF IgG index
C. Increased Plasma cells
D. Presence of CSF Myelin Basic Protein

A

A. Associated with immune-mediated destruction of axons

53
Q
  1. All are associated with polyhydramnios, except:

A. Decreased fetal swallowing
B. Erythroblastosis fetalis
C. Spina bifida
D. All of these
E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

A

E. NONE OF THE ABOVE

Erythroblastosis fetalis is a disease associated with HDFN, therefore it is associated with Polyhydramnios (increase amniotic fluid)

54
Q
  1. A medical technologist received a yellowish CSF, which of the following is not a probable cause?

A. Bilirachia
B. Damage in BBB resulting to increased protein
C. Iodine contamination
D. Presence of carotene

A

D. Presence of carotene carotene = carrots = orange

55
Q
  1. Which of the following correct on differentiating traumatic tap and intracranial hemorrhage?

A. Intracranial hemorrhage - negative for D-dimer
B. Intracranial hemorrhage - presence of erythropage
C. Traumatic tap - even blood distribution
D. All of these

A

B. Intracranial hemorrhage - presence of erythropage contains Hemosiderin, Hematoidin

56
Q
  1. True of Stratorrhea:

A. Presence of blood in stool
B. Presence of fat in stool
C. Presence of muscle fibers
D. All of these

A

B. Presence of fat in stool

57
Q
  1. A CSF GLucose is requested on a CSF sample received. Which of the following is not true about CSF Glucose?

A. Blood glucose is performed 2 hrs prior to spinal tap
B. Increased Diabetes mellitus
C. Increased in meningitis caused by Enterovirus
D. Markedly decrease in case of bacterial meningitis

A

C. Increased in meningitis caused by Enterovirus Glucose and Lactate are NORMAL in Viral Meningitis

58
Q
  1. Reagent used in Foam test:

A. 70% ethanol
B. 70% Isopropanol
C. 90% Isopropanol
D. 95% ethanol

A

D. 95% ethanol

59
Q
  1. True about Amniotic Fluid collection, except:

A. Maximum volume is 30 mL
B. Termed as amniocentesis
C. Total amniotic fluid collected from puncture is utilized for laboratory
D. All of these

A

C. Total amniotic fluid collected from puncture is utilized for laboratory first 2 to 3 mL is discarded, may be contaminated with Maternal blood, T. fluid, Cells

60
Q
  1. Stain used to determine cell viability in bronchoalveolar lavage

A. Oil Red O
B. Periodic Acid Schiff
C. Sudan Black III
D. Trypan Blue

A

D. Trypan Blue