AUBF pt 2 Flashcards

1
Q

A clear red urine reacted with ammonium sulfate yielded a negative blood reagent strip reaction on the supernatant after centrifugation. What is the most probable cause of this reaction?

a. Myoglobin
b. Bilirubin
c. Porphyrin
d. Hemoglobin

A

d. Hemoglobin

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2
Q

Reaction time for Vitamin C reagent strip:

a. 45 seconds
b. 120 seconds
c. 60 seconds
d. 30 seconds

A

c. 60 seconds

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3
Q

A hazard index of “3” indicates:

a. Deadly
b. Extreme danger
c. Slight hazard
d. Serious hazard

A

d. Serious hazard

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4
Q

A possible physical hazard in the hospital is:

a. Wearing closed-toed shoes
b. Having short hair
c. Not wearing jewelry
d. Running to answer the telephone

A

d. Running to answer the telephone

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5
Q

A red discoloration from an infant’s diapers may be suspected of

a. Congenital porphyria
b. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
c. Lead poisoning porphyria
d. Hartnup disease

A

a. Congenital porphyria

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6
Q

A reagent strip with a brown color reaction on the pad impregnated with potassium iodide indicates:

a. Proteinuria
b. Bilirubinuria D
c. Glucosuria
d. Hemoglobinuria/Myoglobinuria

A

c. Glucosuria

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7
Q

A specimen containing 1 g/dL of protein and 2g/dL of glucose has a specific gravity reading of 1.030 using a urinometer. The specimen temperature is 35OC and the urinometer is calibrated at 20OC. What is the corrected specific
gravity reading?

a. 1.024
b. 1.030
c. 1.019
d. 1.014

A

a. 1.024

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8
Q

A type of fire formed by burning magnesium and other metals can be extinguished by

a. Dry chemicals
b. Halon foam
c. Metal X
d. Pressurized water

A

c. Metal X

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9
Q

A urine specimen with high concentration of urochrome may indicate:

a. Recent fluid intake
b. Isosthenuria
c. Dehydration
d. Presence of amorphous urates in the sediment

A

c. Dehydration

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10
Q

A urine tested with Clinitest exhibits a passthrough reaction and is diluted by adding 2 drops of urine to 10 drops of water. This is a dilution of

a. 1 is to 8
b. 1 is to 5
c. 1 is to 4
d. 1 is to 6

A

b. 1 is to 5

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11
Q

A urine with characteristic ‘hops’ odor may be seen in:

a. Acute renal failure
b. Methionine malabsorption
c. Glutaric acidemia
d. Trimethylaminuria

A

b. Methionine malabsorption

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12
Q

A yellow-colored semen specimen is received in the laboratory. The analysis is normal except for decreased sperm motility. What is the most probable cause of these findings?

a. Medication
b. Infertility
c. Prolonged abstinence
d. Urine contamination

A

d. Urine contamination

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13
Q

Acetest tablets detects:

a. Sugars
b. Bilirubin
c. Blood
d. Ketones

A

d. Ketones

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14
Q

Acute pyelonephritis and late stages of chronic pyelonephritis are differentiated by

a. The presence of waxy and broad casts on the former
b. The presence of bacteria, WBC and WBC casts on the former
c. The presence of waxy and broad casts on the latter
d. Cannot be differentiated

A

c. The presence of waxy and broad casts on the latter

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15
Q

After consumption of cranberry juice, what is the expected urine pH?

a. Acidic
b. Alkaline
c. Variable
d. Neutral

A

a. Acidic

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16
Q

An inherited defect of tubular to response to ADH is

a. A and B
b. Neurogenic diaetes insipidus
c. Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion
d. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A

d. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

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17
Q

An excessive consumption of clorets may cause urine with a characteristic ______ color

a. Orange
b. Blue-green
c. Brown-black
d. Yellow-green

A

b. Blue-green

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18
Q

At the bottom quadrant of the NFPA hazardous material symbol shows a “W” with a strikethrough. What does this indicate?

a. For washing purposes only
b. Do not use water
c. Use water only
d. Will not burn

A

b. Do not use water

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19
Q

Bicarbonate is reabsorbed primarily in which part of the nephron?

a. Collecting duct
b. Proximal convoluted tubule
c. Distal convoluted tubule
d. Loop of Henle

A

b. Proximal convoluted tubule

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20
Q

Bilirubin absorbs light at ____ nm

a. 550
b. 365
c. 410
d. 450

A

d. 450

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21
Q

Components of the chain of infection:
1Source,
2 Mode of transmission,
3 Susceptible host,
4 Handwashing

a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4

A

b. 1, 2 and 3

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22
Q

Components of the triple screening test prior to amniocentesis:

1Inhibin A
2Unconjugated estriol
3Alphafetoprotein
4Human chorionic gonadotropin

a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3

A

b. 2, 3 and 4

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23
Q

Correct procedure when collecting midstream clean-catch specimen, EXCEPT:

a. None of these
b. Wash hands before beginning the collection
c. Void first into the toilet, then collect urine in a sterile container, and finish voiding into the toilet
d. Mild antiseptic towelettes are recommended

A

a. None of these

24
Q

Creatinine is filtered by the glomeruli, not reabsorbed, but minimally secreted by the renal tubules. Measurement of creatinine clearance is a reliable indicator even in patients suffering from muscle-wasting diseases.

a. Both statements are false
b. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false
c. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true
d. Both statements are true

A

b. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false

25
Cyanide nitroprusside test is positive in: a. Cystinuria b. Cystinosis c. None of these d. Both of these
d. Both of these
26
Ehrlich's reagent was added to a urine specimen. It resulted to a red color. Watson-Schwartz differential test was performed to identify the cause. If indican was present in the sample, which of the following sets of results will confirm its presence? a. Red top layer and colorless bottom layer after chloroform extraction; Colorless top layer and red bottom layer after butanol extraction b. Colorless top layer and red bottom layer after chloroform extraction; Red top layer and colorless bottom layer after butanol extraction c. Red top layer and colorless bottom layer after chloroform extraction; Red top layer and colorless bottom layer after butanol extraction d. Colorless top layer and red bottom layer after chloroform extraction; Colorless top layer and red bottom layer after butanol extraction
c. Red top layer and colorless bottom layer after chloroform extraction; Red top layer and colorless bottom layer after butanol extraction
26
Device used to calibrate the speed of a centrifuge: a. All of the choices b. Stopwatch c. Strobe light d. Tachometer
a. All of the choices
27
Elevated WBC count with predominant lymphocytes and monocytes on the differential can be seen in, 1Bacterial meningitis, 2Normal condition 3Fungal meningitis 4Tubercular meningitis a. 4 only b. 2, 3 and 4 c. 1 only d. 3 and 4
d. 3 and 4
28
Factors that favour the formation of renal calculi are pH, urinary stasis and chemical concentration. Microscopic hematuria is the primary urinalysis finding in renal lithiasis. a. Both statements are false b. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false c. Both statements are true d. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true
c. Both statements are true
29
Given the following conditions, identify the transudative effusion(s), 1Congestive heart failure 2Tuberculosis 3Malnutrition 4Lymphoma a. 2 and 4 b. 1 only c. 1 and 3 d. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1 and 3
30
He identified the first case of phenylketonuria in Norway when a mother with other mentally retarded children reported a peculiar mousy odor to her child's urine. a. Thudichum b. Garrod c. Ivan Folling d. Wollaston
c. Ivan Folling
31
Identify the correct match(es) regarding qualitative chemical tests 1Sulkowitch - calcium, 2Rothera - ketones 3Esbach - sugars, 4Schlesinger - bilirubin a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 1 and 2 c. 1, 2 and 4 d. 2, 3 and 4
b. 1 and 2
32
If the print is not seen through urine, the urine transparency may be reported as a. Cloudy b. Turbid c. Hazy d. Milk
b. Turbid
33
In Lesch-Nyhan disease, the gene that codes for ____ enzyme is absent a. Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase b. Phenylalanine hydroxylase c. Homogentisic acid oxidase d. Uridine diphosphate glucuronyl transferase
a. Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase
34
Increased parameters in an unpreserved urine a. Protein, glucose, odor, nitrite b. Nitrite, odor, bacteria, pH c. pH, bacteria, urobilinogen, nitrite d. Bilirubin, casts, clarity, color
b. Nitrite, odor, bacteria, pH
35
It is not unusual to have a high urine specific gravity when a patient is deprived of fluids for a long period of time. In chronic renal failure, the urine specific gravity is usually similar to that of the glomerular filtrate. a. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true b. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false c. Both statements are true d. Both statements are false
c. Both statements are true
36
Methyl red produces a color change from red to yellow in the pH range 6.0 to 9.0. Bromthymol blue turns from yellow to blue in the range of 4.0 to 6.0. a. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false b. Both statements are true c. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true d. Both statements are false
d. Both statements are false
37
Oval fat bodies are: a. Squamous epithelial cells that contain lipids b. Free-floating fat droplets c. White blood cells with phagocytised lipids d. Renal tubular epithelial cells that contain lipids
d. Renal tubular epithelial cells that contain lipids
38
Phenolsulfonphthalein dye test is used to assess the glomerular filtration of the kidney. Osmolarity is one of the obsolete tests to evaluate the reabsorption function of the tubules. a. 1st statement is true, 2nd statement is false b. 1st statement is false, 2nd statement is true c. Both statements are true d. Both statements are false
d. Both statements are false
39
Reagent pads impregnated with diazonium salt, 1Leukocytes, 2Bilirubin, 3Urobilinogen, 4Nitrite a. 1, 2 and 4 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
40
Soluble with heat: a. Radiographic contrast media b. Uric acid crystals c. Bacteria d. Amorphous phosphates
b. Uric acid crystals
41
Specimen(s) used in the Guthrie bacterial inhibition test: (Strasinger, 5th Ed p.162) a. Urine only b. Blood, urine and feces c. Blood only d. Blood and urine
c. Blood only
42
The foam or shake test detects what substance in the amniotic fluid? a. Phospholipid b. Alcohol c. Protein d. Bilirubin
a. Phospholipid
43
The only enzyme present in significant amount in bile is: a. ALP b. AMS c. LPS d. ALT
a. ALP
44
The required amount of time for dipping thereagent strip is: a. 1.5 seconds b. 5 seconds c. 1 second d. Not more than 2 seconds
c. 1 second
45
True about glomerulus, 1Nonselective filter of plasma substances with a MW of <70kDa, 2 Albumin is normally filtered because it has a MW of 66kDa, 3 Positively-charged, 4 Concentration tests are used to evaluate glomerular filtration a. 1 and 4 b. 1 only c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 only
46
True about nitrite reagent strip reaction, 1 One of the reagents used is tetrahydrobenzoquinolin, 2 Pink spots or edges are considered as a positive result, 3 four-hour urine specimen is preferred, 4 Yeast infection is usually nitrite positive a. 1 and 3 b. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1, 3 and 4 d. 3 only
a. 1 and 3
47
Upon arriving at work, a technologist notices that a urine specimen left beside the sink by a personnel on the nightshift has a black color. The specimen has a pH of 6.0 and was sitting uncapped. What is the most probable cause of the black color? a. Melanin b. Methemoglobin c. Homogentisic acid d. Ketones
a. Melanin
48
What is the purpose of blotting the edge of the strip on an absorbent paper after dipping into a urine specimen? a. To prevent delay of reactions on the pad b. To absorb interfering substances present on the specimen c. To prevent leaching of reagents from the pads d. To avoid runover between chemicals on adjacent pads
d. To avoid runover between chemicals on adjacent pads
49
Which of the following is the preservative of choice for routine urine analysis? a. Saccomanno's fiative b. Formaldehyde c. Refrigeration d. Boric acid
c. Refrigeration
50
Which of the following sets of casts is most indicative of end-stage renal disease? a. Fatty and RTE b. WBC and bacterial c. Waxy and broad d. Hyaline and granular
c. Waxy and broad
51
Which of the following situations will be requested for a repeat collection? 1A yellow-green specimen with negative test results for bilirubin and glucose, 2A dark yellow specimen that produces a large amount of white foam, 3A cloudy urine with a strong odor of ammonia, 4A hazy specimen with a specific gravity of 1.040 by refractometer a. 2 and 4 b. 3 only c. 1, 3 and 4 d. 1 and 3
d. 1 and 3
52
Urine samples should be examined within one hour of voiding because: a. Bacterial contamination will cause alkalinization of the urine b. Ketones will increase due to bacterial and cellular metabolism c. RBCs, leukocytes and casts agglutinate on standing for several hour at room temperature d. Urobilinogen increases and bilirubin decreases after prolonged exposure to light
a. Bacterial contamination will cause alkalinization of the urine
53
rine that turns black standing may contain: a. Melanin b. Homogenistic acid c. neither d. both
d. both
54
Which of the following are pathologic causes of turbid urine? 1.WBCs 2. radiographic dye 3. Yeast 4. A. urates a. 1 &; 3 b. 1 &; 2 c. 1 , 2 , 3 &; 4 d. 2 & 3
a. 1 &; 3
55
Which of the following is associated with sweaty feet odor? a. trimethylaminuria b. isovaleric academia c. tyrosinemia d. phenylketonuria
b. isovaleric academia