AUBF Flashcards

1
Q

Determining the specific gravity of urine that measures the number of solute particles per unit of solvent

a. refractometry
b. osmolality
c. uranometry
d. use of reagent strip

A

b. osmolality

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2
Q

The reagent strip for measuring the specific gravity, low SG will produce _____ color and high SG will produce ______ color

a. green, blue
b. blue, green
c. yellow, green
d. green, yellow

A

d. green, yellow

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3
Q

The initial plasma concentrate is 1.010. When the SG of a urine sample is 1.010, it is said to be hyposthenuric.

a. first statement is correct
b. second statement is correct.
c. both statements are correct.
d. neither of the statements are correct.

A

a. first statement is correct

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4
Q

Abnormal urine odor indicates the following, except:

a. pathologic conditions
b. improper handling
c. improper storage
d. hydration status

A

d. hydration status

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5
Q

rancid: tyrosinemia; _______: trimethylaminuria

a. mousy
b. sweaty feet
c. rotting fish
d. cabbage

A

c. rotting fish

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6
Q

Oliguria accompanies the following states, except:

a. diarrhea
b. perspiration
c. severe burns
d. water retention

A

d. water retention

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7
Q

Testing of urine specimen should be done within 3 hours after collection. Cellular elements are stable at room temperature in an unpreserved specimen.

a. first statement is correct
b. second statement is correct.
c. both statements are correct.
d. neither of the statements are correct.

A

d. neither of the statements are correct.

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8
Q
  1. Methyl red and bromthymol blue in the reagent strips are used in the determination of:

a. pH
b. specific gravity
c. glucose
d. nitrite

A

a. pH

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9
Q

Which of the following is true for renal proteinuria?

a. may be the result of either glomerular or tubular damage.
b. caused by the addition of protein as the urine passes through the lower urinary tract.
c. caused by conditions affecting the plasma prior to reaching the kidneys.
d. not indicative of true renal disease

A

a. may be the result of either glomerular or tubular damage.

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10
Q

Glucose is excreted into the urine when the plasma level exceeds the renal threshold of .

a. 120 - 150 mg/dL.
b. 100 - 150 mg/dL
c. 160-180 mg/dL
d. 160-200 mg/dL

A

c. 160-180 mg/dL

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11
Q

The ff are the ketone bodies present in urine, except:

a. acetoacetic acid
b. acetone
c. 3-hydroxybutryrate
d. hydroxyacetic acid

A

d. hydroxyacetic acid

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12
Q

The positive reaction with ketone produces a _____ color

a. lavender
b. blue
c. yellow
d. maroon

A

d. maroon

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13
Q

Free hemoglobin can be detected microscopically. Microscopic determination provides the most accurate means for determining the presence of blood in a specimen.

a. first statement is correct
b. second statement is correct.
c. both statements are correct.
d. neither of the statements are correct.

A

d. neither of the statements are correct.

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14
Q

Bilirubin is not normally detectable in urine. Its presence indicates the ff., except:

a. hepatitis cirrhosis
b. liver carcinoma
c. gallstones
d. kidney stones

A

d. kidney stones

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15
Q

All are true of urobilinogen, except:

a. less than 1mg/dL or Ehrlich unit - is normal.
b. resulting color - light yellow to brown-orange.
c. results are reported as Ehrlich units.
d. preservation in formalin is a false positive reaction interference.

A

d. preservation in formalin is a false positive reaction interference.

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16
Q

The following are factors that contribute to crystal formation, except:

a. temperature
b. concentration
c. pH
d. color

A

d. color

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17
Q

The specific gravity of radiographic dye

a. >1.040
b. <1.040
c. > 1.020
d. <1.020

A

a. >1.040

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18
Q

Urinary neutrophils when exposed to a hypotonic solution, absorbs water and swells. The Brownian movement observed within its granules produces a sparkling appearance, thus this cell is also termed as:

a. crenated cells
b. dysmorphic cells
c. ghost cells
d. glitter cells

A

d. glitter cells

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19
Q

Urinary sediment when increased in number is often associated with damage to the glomerular membrane or vascular injury with the genitourinary tracts

a. Red blood cells
b. RTE Cells
c. white blood cells
d. urothelial cells

A

a. Red blood cells

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20
Q

are lipid-containing renal tubular cells that is often seen in cases of acute tubular necrosis:

a.
b. clue cells
c. glitter cells
d. oval fat bodies

A

d. oval fat bodies

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20
Q

are lipid-containing renal tubular cells that is often seen in cases of acute tubular necrosis:

a.
b. clue cells
c. glitter cells
d. oval fat bodies

A

d. oval fat bodies

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21
Q

ovum this parasite is often associated with bladder cancer in other countries thus it is otherwise known as the most common bladder parasite.

a. S. haematobium
b. S. japonicum
c. S. mansoni
d. S. vaginalis

A

a. S. haematobium

22
Q

White blood cell cast together with the presence of bacteria in the urine is indicative of

a. Interstitial Nephritis
b. Chronic Interstitial Nephritis
c. Nephrotic Syndrome
d. Pyelonephritis

A

d. Pyelonephritis

23
Q

this type of crystal is often associated with the presence of urea-splitting bacteria.

a. …phosphate
b. amorphous phosphate
c. calcium phosphate
d. triple phosphate

A

d. triple phosphate

24
Q

wedge, hexagonal and 4 sided flat plate crystals that can be mistaken as cystine crystal.

a. …phosphate
b. uric acid
c. calcium phosphate
d. tiple phosphate

A

b. uric acid

25
Q

may be dihydrate or monohydrate and are increased with high ascorbic acid diet

a. …phosphate
b. uric acid
c. calcium oxalate
d. tiple phosphate

A

c. calcium oxalate

26
Q

The following are normal crystals found in urine, except:

a. phosphates
b. uric acid
c. apatite
d. leucine

A

d. leucine

27
Q

initiating cholesterol crystals from radiographic dye crystals, one must consider the ff., except.

a. … di kita -baka patient history eto emz
b. correlation with other urinalysis results
c. pH of urine sample
d. specific gravity of urine sample

28
Q

(di kita yung umpisa) urine specimen was at room temperature for 4 hours in an unsterile container. Which one of the following sets of actions can occur?

a. bacteria decrease, ketones decrease, glucose decrease, pH decreases.
b. bacteria decrease, ketones increase, glucose decrease, pH increase.
c. Bacteria increase, ketones decrease, glucose decreases, pH increases.
d. Bacteria increase, ketones increase, glucose decreases, pH decreases.

A

c. Bacteria increase, ketones decrease, glucose decreases, pH increases.

29
Q

below regarding renal function is true?

a. more permeable to water and salt than other capillaries.
b. reabsorbs sodium and secretes potassium in response to aldosterone.
C. The collecting duct is permeable to water only in the presence of ADH.
d. All the above.

A

a. more permeable to water and salt than other capillaries.

30
Q

(di kita) below regarding the kidneys are true except:

a. in salt deprivation the kidneys will conserve sodium at the expense of potassium.
b. potassium is not excreted when serum concentration is below 3.5 mmol/L.
c. the amount of phenolsulfonphthalein (PSP) dye excreted in urine after 15 mins is determined by tubular secretion.
d. normal kidneys reabsorb 100% of filtered sodium when serum levels are low.

A

a. in salt deprivation the kidneys will conserve sodium at the expense of potassium.

31
Q

which of the following is inappropriate when collecting urine for bacteriological culture?

a. the container must be sterile.
b. the midstream void technique must be used.
c. the collected sample must be refrigerated if not plated immediately.
d. the container should contain 10 mL of 6N HCl

A

d. the container should contain 10 mL of 6N HCl

32
Q

which statement about sample collection for routine urinalysis is true?

a. preservative tablets should be used for collecting random urine specimens.
b. containers may be washed and reused, if rinsed in deionized water.
c. samples may be stored at room temperature for up to 2 hours.
d. random samples are acceptable when renal disease is suspected.

A

c. samples may be stored at room temperature for up to 2 hours.

33
Q

A doctor sent the laboratory a sample of a fluid he aspirated from the abdomen of one of his patients. To determine if the fluid is urine, the clinical laboratory scientist should measure which one of the following groups of substances.

a. Urea, creatinine, sodium, and chloride
b. Glucose, protein, blood, and nitrates
c. Urochrome, urobilin, bilirubin, urobilinogen
d. Glucose, protein, urea, chloride

A

a. Urea, creatinine, sodium, and chloride

34
Q

Which of the following is inappropriate when collecting a 24-hour urine?

a. Urine in the bladder is voided and discarded at the start of the tests.
b. At 24 hours any urine in the bladder is voided and added to the collection.
c. All urine should be collected in a single container that is kept refrigerated.
d. HCl is added to the container after the 24-hour urine volume is measured.

35
Q

Urine production of less than 400 mL per day is:

a. Consistent with normal renal function and water balance
b. Defined as oliguria
c. Termed isosthenuria
d. Associated with Diabetes Mellitus

A

b. Defined as oliguria

36
Q

All of the statements below about creatinine clearance are true except:

a. Clearance will be overestimated when filtrate flow is less than 1.5 mL/min.
b. Creatinine is filtered 100% by the glomeruli.
c. Creatinine is partially reabsorbed by the renal tubules.
d. Creatinine clearance is dependent upon lean body mass.

A

d. Creatinine clearance is dependent upon lean body mass.

37
Q

All of the statements below regarding creatinine clearance are true except:

a. Serum creatinine levels are independent of diet.
b. Results are slightly higher than insulin clearance owing to tubular secretion.
c. Creatinine clearance is an accurate expression of glomerular…
d. Creatinine clearance may be normal when serum creatinine…

A

a. Serum creatinine levels are independent of diet.

38
Q

Given the date below, calculate the creatinine clearance
Serum creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL Urine creatinine: 115 mg/dL
Urine volume: 1.5 mL/min Body surface area 1.73 m2

a. 47 mL/min
b. 97 mL/min
c. 100 mL/min
d. 115 mL/min

A

a. 47 mL/min

39
Q

Urine from patients with diabetes mellitus has:

a. decreased volume and decreased specific gravity.
b. decreased volume and increased specific gravity.
c. increased volume and decreased specific gravity.
d. increased volume and increased specific gravity.

A

d. increased volume and increased specific gravity.

40
Q

An unpreserved specimen collected at 8:00 AM and remaining at room temperature until the afternoon shift arrives can be expected to have:
1. decreased glucose and ketones
2. Increased bacteria and nitrite
3. Decreased pH and turbidity
4. Decreased cellular elements.

a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1, 2, and 4
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 4 only

A

b. 1, 2, and 4

41
Q

Given the data for creatinine clearance below, select the most appropriate course of action.
Volume 2.8 L/day Surface area: 1.73 m2
Urine creatinine 100 mg/dL Serum creatinine 1.2 mg/dL

a. Report a creatinine clearance of 162 mL/min.
b. Repeat the urine creatinine, results point to a dilution error.
c. Request a new 24-hour urine sample.
d. Request patient’s age and sex.

A

c. Request a new 24-hour urine sample.

42
Q

Which of the following conditions is known to cause glomerulonephritis?

a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Autoimmune damage following recent respiratory infection with Group A Streptococcus
c. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

43
Q

Acute pyelonephritis I commonly caused by:

a. Bacterial infection of medullary interstitium
b. Circulatory failure
c. Renal calculi
d. Antigen-antibody reactions within the glomeruli

A

a. Bacterial infection of medullary interstitium

44
Q

Which of the following is the most definitive test for PKU?

a. Blood level of phenylalanine
b. Guthrie tests on the blood of newborn
c. measurement of liver enzymes
d. Phenistic test on freshly voided urine

A

b. Guthrie tests on the blood of newborn

45
Q

Degree of Hazard: 3

a. slight hazard
b. moderate hazard
c. extreme hazard
d. serious hazard

A

d. serious hazard

46
Q

The best aid for chemical spills in flushing the are with large amounts of water for at least ___ minutes then seek medical attention.

a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30

47
Q

renal disease whose etiology is the deposition of anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody to glomerular and alveolar basement membranes.

a. Berger’s disease
b. Wageners granulomatosis
c. Good pasture syndrome
d. Membranous glomerulonephritis

A

c. Good pasture syndrome

48
Q

Sweaty feet odor of urine

a. Alkaptonuria
b. Organic Acidemia
c. MSUD
d. PKU

A

E. NOTA (Isovaleric acid)

49
Q

All of the ff statements regarding urinary calculi are true except:

a. Most of the kidney stones are composed of uric acid.
b. Hyperparathyroidism is a common cause of hypercalciuria.
c. Hyperparathyroidism promotes calcium phosphate calculi by increasing urine pH.
d. Calculi often are associated with urinary tract infection.

A

c. Hyperparathyroidism promotes calcium phosphate calculi by increasing urine pH.

50
Q

Also known as the vampire’s disease

a. Purine disorders
b. mucopolysaccharide disorder
c. porphyrin disorder
d. tryptophan disorder

A

c. porphyrin disorder

51
Q

It is the most common method of reporting results

a. though calls
b. electronic transmission
c. verbal communication
d. Point out

A

b. electronic transmission

52
Q

Centrifuge should be calibrated every _____

a. 2 weeks
b. 4 weeks
c. 8 weeks
d. 12 weeks

A

d. 12 weeks

53
Q

All of the following are seen in nephrotic syndrome, except?

a. Proteinuria
b. Waxy casts
c. Hematuria
d. Glucosuria

A

b. Waxy casts