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Question 1

1. These are fine colorless to yellow needles in clumps or in rosette which when seen in
   conjunction with leucine crystal and a positive urine chemical test for bilirubin is an
   indication of a liver disorder.
   a. Ampicillin Crystals
   b. Cholesterol Crystals
   c. Sulfonamide Crystals
   d. Tryptophan Crystals
   e. NO ANSWER

Answer 1

e. NO ANSWER - Tyrosine

Question 2

2. It results from precipitation of antibiotics following massive dosage of this penicillin
   compound without adequate hydration.
   a. Ampicillin Crystals
   b. Cholesterol Crystals
   c. Sulfonamide Crystals
   d. Tryptophan Crystals
   e. NO ANSWER

Answer 2

a. Ampicillin Crystals

Question 3

3. These are colorless to yellow-brown crystals that appears in needles, rhombic,
   whetstones, sheaves of wheat and rosettes which can be distinguished from calcium
   phosphate crystals upon addition of dilute acetic acid.
   a. Ammonium Biurate
   b. Amorphous Materials
   c. Calcium Carbonate
   d. Calcium Oxalate
   e. NO ANSWER

Answer 3

e. NO ANSWER - Sulfonamide

Question 4

4. Urinary neutrophils, when exposed to a hypotonic solution, absorbs water and swells.
   The Brownian movement observed within its granules produces a sparkling appearance,
   thus this cell is also termed as:
   a. Crenated Cells
   b. Dysmorphic Cells
   c. Ghost Cells
   d. Glitter Cells
   e. NO ANSWER

Answer 4

d. Glitter Cells

Question 5

5. In dilute, hyposthenuric urine, these cells absorb water, swell, and lyse rapidly, releasing
   their hemoglobin and leaving only the cell membrane thus they are called as:
   a. Crenated Cells
   b. Dysmorphic Cells
   c. Ghost Cells
   d. Glitter Cells
   e. NO ANSWER

Answer 5

c. Ghost Cells hypO = ghOst

Question 6

6. An increased in number of dysmorphic red blood cell in the urine is primarily associated
   with:
   a. Glomerular Bleeding
   b. Hemoglobinuria
   c. Myoglobinuria
   d. Tubular Bleeding
   e. NO ANSWER

Answer 6

a. Glomerular Bleeding

Question 7

8. These are lipid containing renal tubular cells that is often seen in cases of nephrotic
   syndrome:
   a. Bubble Cells
   b. Clue Cells
   c. Glitter Cells
   d. Oval Fat Bodies
   e. NO ANSWER

Answer 7

d. Oval Fat Bodies fat = lipid

Question 8

9. The ovum of this parasite is often associated with bladder cancer in other countries thus
   it is otherwise known as the most common bladder parasite.
   a. Schistosoma haematobium
   b. Schistosoma japonicum
   c. Schistosoma mansoni
   d. Schistosoma vaginalis
   e. NO ANSWER

Answer 8

a. Schistosoma haematobium

Question 9

10. Hyaline cast is physiologically increased in the following conditions, except:
    a. Congestive Heart Failure
    b. Dehydration
    c. Emotional Stress
    d. Heat Exposure
    e. NO ANSWER

Answer 9

a. Congestive Heart Failure not physio, but pathologically inc

Question 10

11. White Blood Cell cast together with the presence of bacteria in the urine is indicative of:
    a. Acute Interstitial Nephritis
    b. Chronic Interstitial Nephritis
    c. Nephrotic Syndrome
    d. Pyelonephritis

Answer 10

d. Pyelonephritis

Question 10

11. White Blood Cell cast together with the presence of bacteria in the urine is indicative of:
    a. Acute Interstitial Nephritis
    b. Chronic Interstitial Nephritis
    c. Nephrotic Syndrome
    d. Pyelonephritis

Question 11

This type of cast can be seen in persons with chronic renal failure, they appear as
fragmented cast with jagged ends and notches on their side
a. Broad Cast
b. Mixed Cellular Cast
c. Renal Failure Cast
d. Waxy Cast

Answer 11

d. Waxy Cast

Question 12

This type of cast can be seen in conjunction with oval fat bodies and free fat droplets in
disorders causing lipiduria:
a. Fatty Cast
b. Hyaline Cast
c. Waxy Cast
d. WBC Cast

Answer 12

a. Fatty Cast all has fats in their names

Question 13

Monohydrate form of this urine crystals can be seen in person following an ethylene
glycol poisoning:
a. Calcium Carbonate
b. Calcium Oxalate
c. Calcium Phosphate
d. Calcium Urates

Answer 13

b. Calcium Oxalate

Question 14

This type of crystal is often associated with the presence of urea-splitting bacteria.
a. Ammonium Phosphate
b. Amorphous Phosphate
c. Calcium Phosphate
d. Triple Phosphate
e. NO ANSWER

Answer 14

e. NO ANSWER - Ammonium Biurate

Question 15

This urine crystals resemble other rates in that they dissolve at 60°C and convert to uric
acid crystals when glacial acetic acid is added.
a. Amorphous Biurate
b. Amorphous Carbonate
c. Amorphous Phosphate
d. Amorphous Urates
e. NO ANSWER -

Answer 15

e. NO ANSWER - Ammonium Biurate

Question 16

Single defect in proximal tubular dysfunction that results in an excessive reabsorption of
calcium:
a. Hypercalciuric Familial Hypercalcemia
b. Hypercalciuric Familial Hypocalcemia
c. Hypocalciuric Familial Hypercalcemia
d. Hypocalciuric Familial Hypocalcemia

Answer 16

c. Hypocalciuric Familial Hypercalcemia

Question 17

Single defect in proximal tubular dysfunction that results in an excessive reabsorption of
sodium.
a. Barter’s Syndrome
b. Fanconi Syndrome
c. Gordon’s Syndrome
d. Liddle’s Syndrome

Answer 17

c. Gordon’s Syndrome

Question 18

Distal tubular dysfunction that results in an excessive reabsorption of sodium. (Choices
from Question # 18)
a. Barter’s Syndrome
b. Fanconi Syndrome
c. Gordon’s Syndrome
d. Liddle’s Syndrome

Answer 18

d. Liddle’s Syndrome

Question 19

Most common cause of acute allograft rejection of a transplanted kidney.
a. Acute Cystitis.
b. Acute Pyelonephritis
c. Chronic Interstitial Nephritis
d. Chronic Pyelonephritis
e. NO ANSWER

Answer 19

e. NO ANSWER - Acute Interstitial Nephritis

Question 20

Qualitative screening test for the detection of phenylketonuria:
a. Ammoniacal Silver Nitrite Test
b. Ferric Chloride Test
c. Nitrosonaphthol Test
d. Sodium Chloride Test

Answer 20

b. Ferric Chloride Test Alkaptonuria, PKU, MSUD, Melanoma

Question 21

An autosomal recessive disorder wherein the kidney is unable to reabsorbed dibasic
amino acids such as arginine, lysine and ornithine.
a. Cystinuria
b. MSUD
c. PKU
d. Tyrosinuria

Answer 21

a. Cystinuria

Question 22

An autosomal recessive disorder wherein the kidney is unable to reabsorbed
branched-chain amino acids such as leucine, isoleucine &valine.
a. Cystinuria
b. MSUD
c. PKU
d. Tyrosinuria

Answer 22

b. MSUD

Question 23

Single defect in proximal, tubular dysfunction that results in an excessive reabsorption of
phosphate.
a. Hartnup Disease
b. Nephrogenic. Phosphaturia
c. Pseudohypoparathyroidism
d. Renal Phosphaturia

Answer 23

c. Pseudohypoparathyroidism

Question 24

Distal tubular dysfunction that results in an inability of the kidney to reabsorbed inorganic phosphates. a. Hartnup Disease b. Nephrogenic Phosphaturia c. Pseudohypoparathyroidism d. Renal Phosphaturia

Answer 24

d. Renal Phosphaturia

Question 25

A urine sample tested with the following result as follows: Protein in the urine >3.5g/day, Plasma albumin of 1.2g/dL, presence of oval fat bodies and fatty cast in the urine is indicative of what renal disease? a. Acute Tubular Necrosis b. Glomerulonephritis c. Nephritic Syndrome d. Nephrotic Syndrome

Answer 25

d. Nephrotic Syndrome

Question 26

An excessive excretion of the metabolite of phenylalanine that imparts a black color to an alkaline urine from persons with inborn errors of metabolism a. Alkaptonuria b. Melanuria c. Phenylketonuria d. Tyrosinuria

Answer 26

a. Alkaptonuria *inborn error of metabolism - homogentisic acid*

Question 27

A chronic renal failure that progresses to advanced renal disease: a. Acute Stage Renal Disease b. End Stage Renal Disease c. Familial Stage Renal Disease d. All of these

Answer 27

b. End Stage Renal Disease

Question 28

Develops when permanent inflammation of renal tissue causes permanent scarring that involves the renal calyces & pelvis: a. Acute Pyelonephritis b. Chronic Pyelonephritis c. Lower UTI d. Upper UTI

Answer 28

b. Chronic Pyelonephritis

Question 29

An upper urinary tract infection that involves the renal pelvis alone: a. Cystitis b. Pyelitis c. Pyelonephritis d. Urethritis

Answer 29

b. Pyelitis

Question 30

Four tubes were extracted using lumbar tap from a patient suspected with bacterial meningitis. These tubes were labeled 1-4 based on the order of collection from last to first (first tube-4, last tube-1), Which of these four tubes is to be used for culture and sensitivity testing ? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 *di ko gets yung question dito* d. 4

Answer 30

d. 3

Question 31

A patient diagnosed with tuberculosis undergoing treatment was admitted to the hospital with chief complaint of extreme headache and dizziness. The attending physician requested for a lumbar puncture. During collection, the physician and medical technologist observed that the CSF of the patient is reddish-orange in color. What is the possible cause of the discoloration? a. Intracranial Bleeding b. Presence of Oxyhemoglobin c. Rifampicin Medication d. Traumatic Tap

Answer 31

c. Rifampicin Medication

Question 32

Predominant of LD5 and LD4 in CSF is consistent with what condition a. Bacterial meningitis b. Multiple sclerosis c. Neoplastic syndrome d. Viral meningitis

Answer 32

a. Bacterial meningitis

Question 33

A CSF sample was received in the clinical chemistry section and was stored in the refrigerator prior to testing. The medical technologist observed a web-like pattern on the surface of the sample. Which of the following is not consistent with the condition? I. Tubercular meningitis II. Bacterial meningitis III. Increased Lactate IV. Decreased Protein

Answer 33

c. II, IV

Question 34

Which of the following is true about Lecithin / Sphingomyelin Ratio? a. Amniotic sample for testing is stored in the refrigerator b. Assess the severity of fetal hemolytic disease c. Reference method of Fetal Age Determination d. All of these e. NO ANSWER

Answer 34

e. NO ANSWER

Question 35

Most probable cause of bacterial meningitis among HIV patients a. Group B Streptococci b. Haemophilus influenza c. Listeria monocytogenes d. Neisseria gonorrhea

Answer 35

c. Listeria monocytogenes *HIV - immunocompromised*

Question 36

True of alcoholic stool, except a. Caused by bile duct blockagepn b. May be caused by Barium Sulfate c. May be caused by Bismuth medication d. Pale colored stool

Answer 36

c. May be caused by Bismuth medication

Question 37

The following exhibits oligoclonal bands in CSF electrophoresis but not in serum electrophoresis, except a. Cancer b. Multiple Sclerosis c. Neurosyphilis d. All of these

Answer 37

E. None of the above

Question 38

A severe damage to the blood brain barrier has a CSF/Serum Albumin index of: a. >30 b. 9 to 14 c. 15 to 30 d. 100

Answer 38

a. >30

Question 39

Trichloroacetic acid is the preferred method of protein fraction determination. It utilizes sodium sulfate to precipitate globulin a. Both statements are false *1st: TCA is a test for TOTAL Protein 2nd: For SSA, not TCA* b. Both statements are true c. Only 1st statement is true d. Only 2nd statement is true

Answer 39

NO ANSWER

Question 40

True of Guiac Test: a. Method of quantitation of fecal fats b. Method of determination of muscle fibers in stool c. Principle employed in Clinitest d. Utilizes the pseudoperoxidase activity of Hemoglobin present in stool

Answer 40

d. Utilizes the pseudoperoxidase activity of Hemoglobin present in stool

Question 41

Agent of Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis: a. Acanthamoeba sp. b. Balamuthia mandrillaris c. Naegleria fowleri d. Both Acanthamoeba and Balamuthia

Answer 41

c. Naegleria fowleri

Question 42

Elevated CD4/CD8 ratio in Bronchoalveolar lavage? a. Connective Tissue disorder b. Sarcoidosis c. Both d. Neither

Answer 42

c. Both

Question 43

The presence of Gram-negative bacterial endotoxin induces ____ of horseshoe crab to produce a. Amoebocyte; Amylase b. Amoebocyte; Lysate c. Hemocyanin; Cobalt d. Hemocyanin; Copper

Answer 43

d. Hemocyanin; Copper

Question 44

True of Mature Fetal Lung, except: a. Amniotic fluid creatinine = >2.0 mg/dL b. Foam Stability Index = ≥47 *must be 0.47* c. Lecithin: Sphongomyelin Ratio = ≥2.0 d. Presence of Phosphatidylglycerol

Answer 44

b. Foam Stability Index = ≥47 *must be 0.47*

Question 45

Stain/s used in diagnosing pulmonary alveolar proteinosis a. Oil Red O b. Periodic Acid Schiff c. Both d. Neither

Answer 45

c. Both

Question 46

Creatinine level is a more useful parameter than Glucose to distinguish amniotic acid from maternal urine. Fern like crystal appear on completely dried vaginal fluid is indicative of amniotic fluid a. Both statements are false b. Both statements are true 1st: sure true 2nd: not sure c. 1st statement is true d. 2nd statements is true

Answer 46

NO ANSWER

Question 47

CSF is formed by ultrafiltration of plasma through the: a. Arachnoid Vili b. Choroid Plexus c. Sagittal sinus d. Subarachnoid space

Answer 47

b. Choroid Plexus

Question 48

Which of the following conditions is most often associated with normal CSF Glucose and Protein a. Multiple Sclerosis b. Subarachnoid hemorrhage c. Tubercular meningitis d. Viral meningitis e. NO ANSWER - All types of Meningitis have increased Protein; N glucose = Viral

Answer 48

e. NO ANSWER - All types of Meningitis have increased Protein; N glucose = Viral

Question 49

Protein found in the beta region of CSF electrophoresis that is not present in serum a. Beta 2-transferrin b. Ceruloplasmin c. Pre-albumin d. Tau protein

Answer 49

d. Tau protein

Question 50

Which of the following is not true about fungal meningitis? a. Decreased Glucose b. Decreased Lactate c. Pleocytosis is evident d. All of these

Answer 50

b. Decreased Lactate *Increased in all forms of Meningitis except Viral*

Question 51

True of Multiple Sclerosis, except: a. Associated with immune-mediated destruction of axons b. Increased CSF IgG index c. Increased Plasma cells d. Presence of CSF Myelin Basic Protein

Answer 51

a. Associated with immune-mediated destruction of axons

Question 52

All are associated with polyhydramnios, except: a. Decreased fetal swallowing b. Erythroblastosis fetalis c. Spina bifida d. All of these

Answer 52

E. None of the above

Question 53

A medical technologist received a yellowish CSF, which of the following is not a probable cause? a. Bilirachia b. Damage in BBB resulting to increased protein c. Iodine contamination d. Presence of carotene *carotene = carrots = orange*

Answer 53

d. Presence of carotene *carotene = carrots = orange*

Question 54

Which of the following correct on differentiating traumatic tap and intracranial hemorrhage? a. Intracranial hemorrhage - negative for D-dimer b. Intracranial hemorrhage - presence of erythropage c. Traumatic tap - even blood distribution d. All of these

Answer 54

b. Intracranial hemorrhage - presence of erythropage *contains Hemosiderin, Hematoidin*

Question 55

True of Stratorrhea: a. Presence of blood in stool b. Presence of fat in stool c. Presence of muscle fibers d. All of these

Answer 55

b. Presence of fat in stool

Question 56

A CSF GLucose is requested on a CSF sample received. Which of the following is not true about CSF Glucose? a. Blood glucose is performed 2 hrs prior to spinal tap b. Increased Diabetes mellitus c. Increased in meningitis caused by Enterovirus d. Markedly decrease in case of bacterial meningitis

Answer 56

c. Increased in meningitis caused by Enterovirus *Glucose and Lactate are NORMAL in Viral Meningitis*

Question 57

Reagent used in Foam test: a. 70% ethanol b. 70% Isopropanol c. 90% Isopropanol d. 95% ethanol

Answer 57

d. 95% ethanol

Question 58

True about Amniotic Fluid collection, except: a. Maximum volume is 30 mL b. Termed as amniocentesis c. Total amniotic fluid collected from puncture is utilized for laboratory *first 2 to 3 mL is discarded, may be contaminated with Maternal blood, T. fluid, Cells* d. All of these

Answer 58

c. Total amniotic fluid collected from puncture is utilized for laboratory *first 2 to 3 mL is discarded, may be contaminated with Maternal blood, T. fluid, Cells*

Question 59

Stain used to determine cell viability in bronchoalveolar lavage a. Oil Red O b. Periodic Acid Schiff c. Sudan Black III d. Trypan Blue

Answer 59

d. Trypan Blue