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aubf Flashcards

1
Q
  1. These are fine colorless to yellow needles in clumps or in rosette which when seen in
    conjunction with leucine crystal and a positive urine chemical test for bilirubin is an
    indication of a liver disorder.
    a. Ampicillin Crystals
    b. Cholesterol Crystals
    c. Sulfonamide Crystals
    d. Tryptophan Crystals
    e. NO ANSWER
A

e. NO ANSWER - Tyrosine

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2
Q
  1. It results from precipitation of antibiotics following massive dosage of this penicillin
    compound without adequate hydration.
    a. Ampicillin Crystals
    b. Cholesterol Crystals
    c. Sulfonamide Crystals
    d. Tryptophan Crystals
    e. NO ANSWER
A

a. Ampicillin Crystals

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3
Q
  1. These are colorless to yellow-brown crystals that appears in needles, rhombic,
    whetstones, sheaves of wheat and rosettes which can be distinguished from calcium
    phosphate crystals upon addition of dilute acetic acid.
    a. Ammonium Biurate
    b. Amorphous Materials
    c. Calcium Carbonate
    d. Calcium Oxalate
    e. NO ANSWER
A

e. NO ANSWER - Sulfonamide

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4
Q
  1. Urinary neutrophils, when exposed to a hypotonic solution, absorbs water and swells.
    The Brownian movement observed within its granules produces a sparkling appearance,
    thus this cell is also termed as:
    a. Crenated Cells
    b. Dysmorphic Cells
    c. Ghost Cells
    d. Glitter Cells
    e. NO ANSWER
A

d. Glitter Cells

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5
Q
  1. In dilute, hyposthenuric urine, these cells absorb water, swell, and lyse rapidly, releasing
    their hemoglobin and leaving only the cell membrane thus they are called as:
    a. Crenated Cells
    b. Dysmorphic Cells
    c. Ghost Cells
    d. Glitter Cells
    e. NO ANSWER
A

c. Ghost Cells hypO = ghOst

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6
Q
  1. An increased in number of dysmorphic red blood cell in the urine is primarily associated
    with:
    a. Glomerular Bleeding
    b. Hemoglobinuria
    c. Myoglobinuria
    d. Tubular Bleeding
    e. NO ANSWER
A

a. Glomerular Bleeding

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7
Q
  1. These are lipid containing renal tubular cells that is often seen in cases of nephrotic
    syndrome:
    a. Bubble Cells
    b. Clue Cells
    c. Glitter Cells
    d. Oval Fat Bodies
    e. NO ANSWER
A

d. Oval Fat Bodies fat = lipid

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8
Q
  1. The ovum of this parasite is often associated with bladder cancer in other countries thus
    it is otherwise known as the most common bladder parasite.
    a. Schistosoma haematobium
    b. Schistosoma japonicum
    c. Schistosoma mansoni
    d. Schistosoma vaginalis
    e. NO ANSWER
A

a. Schistosoma haematobium

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9
Q
  1. Hyaline cast is physiologically increased in the following conditions, except:
    a. Congestive Heart Failure
    b. Dehydration
    c. Emotional Stress
    d. Heat Exposure
    e. NO ANSWER
A

a. Congestive Heart Failure not physio, but pathologically inc

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10
Q
  1. White Blood Cell cast together with the presence of bacteria in the urine is indicative of:
    a. Acute Interstitial Nephritis
    b. Chronic Interstitial Nephritis
    c. Nephrotic Syndrome
    d. Pyelonephritis
A

d. Pyelonephritis

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10
Q
  1. White Blood Cell cast together with the presence of bacteria in the urine is indicative of:
    a. Acute Interstitial Nephritis
    b. Chronic Interstitial Nephritis
    c. Nephrotic Syndrome
    d. Pyelonephritis
A
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11
Q

This type of cast can be seen in persons with chronic renal failure, they appear as
fragmented cast with jagged ends and notches on their side
a. Broad Cast
b. Mixed Cellular Cast
c. Renal Failure Cast
d. Waxy Cast

A

d. Waxy Cast

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12
Q

This type of cast can be seen in conjunction with oval fat bodies and free fat droplets in
disorders causing lipiduria:
a. Fatty Cast
b. Hyaline Cast
c. Waxy Cast
d. WBC Cast

A

a. Fatty Cast all has fats in their names

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13
Q

Monohydrate form of this urine crystals can be seen in person following an ethylene
glycol poisoning:
a. Calcium Carbonate
b. Calcium Oxalate
c. Calcium Phosphate
d. Calcium Urates

A

b. Calcium Oxalate

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14
Q

This type of crystal is often associated with the presence of urea-splitting bacteria.
a. Ammonium Phosphate
b. Amorphous Phosphate
c. Calcium Phosphate
d. Triple Phosphate
e. NO ANSWER

A

e. NO ANSWER - Ammonium Biurate

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15
Q

This urine crystals resemble other rates in that they dissolve at 60°C and convert to uric
acid crystals when glacial acetic acid is added.
a. Amorphous Biurate
b. Amorphous Carbonate
c. Amorphous Phosphate
d. Amorphous Urates
e. NO ANSWER -

A

e. NO ANSWER - Ammonium Biurate

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16
Q

Single defect in proximal tubular dysfunction that results in an excessive reabsorption of
calcium:
a. Hypercalciuric Familial Hypercalcemia
b. Hypercalciuric Familial Hypocalcemia
c. Hypocalciuric Familial Hypercalcemia
d. Hypocalciuric Familial Hypocalcemia

A

c. Hypocalciuric Familial Hypercalcemia

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17
Q

Single defect in proximal tubular dysfunction that results in an excessive reabsorption of
sodium.
a. Barter’s Syndrome
b. Fanconi Syndrome
c. Gordon’s Syndrome
d. Liddle’s Syndrome

A

c. Gordon’s Syndrome

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18
Q

Distal tubular dysfunction that results in an excessive reabsorption of sodium. (Choices
from Question # 18)
a. Barter’s Syndrome
b. Fanconi Syndrome
c. Gordon’s Syndrome
d. Liddle’s Syndrome

A

d. Liddle’s Syndrome

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19
Q

Most common cause of acute allograft rejection of a transplanted kidney.
a. Acute Cystitis.
b. Acute Pyelonephritis
c. Chronic Interstitial Nephritis
d. Chronic Pyelonephritis
e. NO ANSWER

A

e. NO ANSWER - Acute Interstitial Nephritis

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20
Q

Qualitative screening test for the detection of phenylketonuria:
a. Ammoniacal Silver Nitrite Test
b. Ferric Chloride Test
c. Nitrosonaphthol Test
d. Sodium Chloride Test

A

b. Ferric Chloride Test Alkaptonuria, PKU, MSUD, Melanoma

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21
Q

An autosomal recessive disorder wherein the kidney is unable to reabsorbed dibasic
amino acids such as arginine, lysine and ornithine.
a. Cystinuria
b. MSUD
c. PKU
d. Tyrosinuria

A

a. Cystinuria

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22
Q

An autosomal recessive disorder wherein the kidney is unable to reabsorbed
branched-chain amino acids such as leucine, isoleucine &valine.
a. Cystinuria
b. MSUD
c. PKU
d. Tyrosinuria

A

b. MSUD

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23
Q

Single defect in proximal, tubular dysfunction that results in an excessive reabsorption of
phosphate.
a. Hartnup Disease
b. Nephrogenic. Phosphaturia
c. Pseudohypoparathyroidism
d. Renal Phosphaturia

A

c. Pseudohypoparathyroidism

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24
Q

Distal tubular dysfunction that results in an inability of the kidney to reabsorbed inorganic
phosphates.
a. Hartnup Disease
b. Nephrogenic Phosphaturia
c. Pseudohypoparathyroidism
d. Renal Phosphaturia

A

d. Renal Phosphaturia

25
Q

A urine sample tested with the following result as follows: Protein in the urine >3.5g/day,
Plasma albumin of 1.2g/dL, presence of oval fat bodies and fatty cast in the urine is
indicative of what renal disease?
a. Acute Tubular Necrosis
b. Glomerulonephritis
c. Nephritic Syndrome
d. Nephrotic Syndrome

A

d. Nephrotic Syndrome

26
Q

An excessive excretion of the metabolite of phenylalanine that imparts a black color to
an alkaline urine from persons with inborn errors of metabolism
a. Alkaptonuria
b. Melanuria
c. Phenylketonuria
d. Tyrosinuria

A

a. Alkaptonuria inborn error of metabolism - homogentisic acid

27
Q

A chronic renal failure that progresses to advanced renal disease:
a. Acute Stage Renal Disease
b. End Stage Renal Disease
c. Familial Stage Renal Disease
d. All of these

A

b. End Stage Renal Disease

28
Q

Develops when permanent inflammation of renal tissue causes permanent scarring that
involves the renal calyces & pelvis:
a. Acute Pyelonephritis
b. Chronic Pyelonephritis
c. Lower UTI
d. Upper UTI

A

b. Chronic Pyelonephritis

29
Q

An upper urinary tract infection that involves the renal pelvis alone:
a. Cystitis
b. Pyelitis
c. Pyelonephritis
d. Urethritis

A

b. Pyelitis

30
Q

Four tubes were extracted using lumbar tap from a patient suspected with bacterial
meningitis. These tubes were labeled 1-4 based on the order of collection from last to
first (first tube-4, last tube-1), Which of these four tubes is to be used for culture and
sensitivity testing ?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3 di ko gets yung question dito
d. 4

A

d. 3

31
Q

A patient diagnosed with tuberculosis undergoing treatment was admitted to the hospital
with chief complaint of extreme headache and dizziness. The attending physician
requested for a lumbar puncture. During collection, the physician and medical
technologist observed that the CSF of the patient is reddish-orange in color. What is the
possible cause of the discoloration?
a. Intracranial Bleeding
b. Presence of Oxyhemoglobin
c. Rifampicin Medication
d. Traumatic Tap

A

c. Rifampicin Medication

32
Q

Predominant of LD5 and LD4 in CSF is consistent with what condition
a. Bacterial meningitis
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Neoplastic syndrome
d. Viral meningitis

A

a. Bacterial meningitis

33
Q

A CSF sample was received in the clinical chemistry section and was stored in the
refrigerator prior to testing. The medical technologist observed a web-like pattern on the surface
of the sample. Which of the following is not consistent with the condition?
I. Tubercular meningitis II. Bacterial meningitis
III. Increased Lactate IV. Decreased Protein

A

c. II, IV

34
Q

Which of the following is true about Lecithin / Sphingomyelin Ratio?
a. Amniotic sample for testing is stored in the refrigerator
b. Assess the severity of fetal hemolytic disease
c. Reference method of Fetal Age Determination
d. All of these
e. NO ANSWER

A

e. NO ANSWER

35
Q

Most probable cause of bacterial meningitis among HIV patients
a. Group B Streptococci
b. Haemophilus influenza
c. Listeria monocytogenes
d. Neisseria gonorrhea

A

c. Listeria monocytogenes HIV - immunocompromised

36
Q

True of alcoholic stool, except
a. Caused by bile duct blockagepn
b. May be caused by Barium Sulfate
c. May be caused by Bismuth medication
d. Pale colored stool

A

c. May be caused by Bismuth medication

37
Q

The following exhibits oligoclonal bands in CSF electrophoresis but not in serum
electrophoresis, except
a. Cancer
b. Multiple Sclerosis
c. Neurosyphilis
d. All of these

A

E. None of the above

38
Q

A severe damage to the blood brain barrier has a CSF/Serum Albumin index of:
a. >30
b. 9 to 14
c. 15 to 30
d. 100

A

a. >30

39
Q

Trichloroacetic acid is the preferred method of protein fraction determination. It utilizes
sodium sulfate to precipitate globulin
a. Both statements are false 1st: TCA is a test for TOTAL Protein 2nd: For SSA, not
TCA
b. Both statements are true
c. Only 1st statement is true
d. Only 2nd statement is true

A

NO ANSWER

40
Q

True of Guiac Test:
a. Method of quantitation of fecal fats
b. Method of determination of muscle fibers in stool
c. Principle employed in Clinitest
d. Utilizes the pseudoperoxidase activity of Hemoglobin present in stool

A

d. Utilizes the pseudoperoxidase activity of Hemoglobin present in stool

41
Q

Agent of Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis:
a. Acanthamoeba sp.
b. Balamuthia mandrillaris
c. Naegleria fowleri
d. Both Acanthamoeba and Balamuthia

A

c. Naegleria fowleri

42
Q

Elevated CD4/CD8 ratio in Bronchoalveolar lavage?
a. Connective Tissue disorder
b. Sarcoidosis
c. Both
d. Neither

A

c. Both

43
Q

The presence of Gram-negative bacterial endotoxin induces ____ of horseshoe crab to
produce
a. Amoebocyte; Amylase
b. Amoebocyte; Lysate
c. Hemocyanin; Cobalt
d. Hemocyanin; Copper

A

d. Hemocyanin; Copper

44
Q

True of Mature Fetal Lung, except:
a. Amniotic fluid creatinine = >2.0 mg/dL
b. Foam Stability Index = ≥47 must be 0.47
c. Lecithin: Sphongomyelin Ratio = ≥2.0
d. Presence of Phosphatidylglycerol

A

b. Foam Stability Index = ≥47 must be 0.47

45
Q

Stain/s used in diagnosing pulmonary alveolar proteinosis
a. Oil Red O
b. Periodic Acid Schiff
c. Both
d. Neither

A

c. Both

46
Q

Creatinine level is a more useful parameter than Glucose to distinguish amniotic acid from
maternal urine. Fern like crystal appear on completely dried vaginal fluid is indicative of amniotic
fluid
a. Both statements are false
b. Both statements are true 1st: sure true 2nd: not sure
c. 1st statement is true
d. 2nd statements is true

A

NO ANSWER

47
Q

CSF is formed by ultrafiltration of plasma through the:
a. Arachnoid Vili
b. Choroid Plexus
c. Sagittal sinus
d. Subarachnoid space

A

b. Choroid Plexus

48
Q

Which of the following conditions is most often associated with normal CSF Glucose and
Protein
a. Multiple Sclerosis
b. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
c. Tubercular meningitis
d. Viral meningitis
e. NO ANSWER - All types of Meningitis have increased Protein; N glucose = Viral

A

e. NO ANSWER - All types of Meningitis have increased Protein; N glucose = Viral

49
Q

Protein found in the beta region of CSF electrophoresis that is not present in serum
a. Beta 2-transferrin
b. Ceruloplasmin
c. Pre-albumin
d. Tau protein

A

d. Tau protein

50
Q

Which of the following is not true about fungal meningitis?
a. Decreased Glucose
b. Decreased Lactate
c. Pleocytosis is evident
d. All of these

A

b. Decreased Lactate Increased in all forms of Meningitis except Viral

51
Q

True of Multiple Sclerosis, except:
a. Associated with immune-mediated destruction of axons
b. Increased CSF IgG index
c. Increased Plasma cells
d. Presence of CSF Myelin Basic Protein

A

a. Associated with immune-mediated destruction of axons

52
Q

All are associated with polyhydramnios, except:
a. Decreased fetal swallowing
b. Erythroblastosis fetalis
c. Spina bifida
d. All of these

A

E. None of the above

53
Q

A medical technologist received a yellowish CSF, which of the following is not a probable
cause?
a. Bilirachia
b. Damage in BBB resulting to increased protein
c. Iodine contamination
d. Presence of carotene carotene = carrots = orange

A

d. Presence of carotene carotene = carrots = orange

54
Q

Which of the following correct on differentiating traumatic tap and intracranial hemorrhage?
a. Intracranial hemorrhage - negative for D-dimer
b. Intracranial hemorrhage - presence of erythropage
c. Traumatic tap - even blood distribution
d. All of these

A

b. Intracranial hemorrhage - presence of erythropage contains Hemosiderin,
Hematoidin

55
Q

True of Stratorrhea:
a. Presence of blood in stool
b. Presence of fat in stool
c. Presence of muscle fibers
d. All of these

A

b. Presence of fat in stool

56
Q

A CSF GLucose is requested on a CSF sample received. Which of the following is not true
about CSF Glucose?
a. Blood glucose is performed 2 hrs prior to spinal tap
b. Increased Diabetes mellitus
c. Increased in meningitis caused by Enterovirus
d. Markedly decrease in case of bacterial meningitis

A

c. Increased in meningitis caused by Enterovirus Glucose and Lactate are NORMAL in
Viral Meningitis

57
Q

Reagent used in Foam test:
a. 70% ethanol
b. 70% Isopropanol
c. 90% Isopropanol
d. 95% ethanol

A

d. 95% ethanol

58
Q

True about Amniotic Fluid collection, except:
a. Maximum volume is 30 mL
b. Termed as amniocentesis
c. Total amniotic fluid collected from puncture is utilized for laboratory first 2 to 3 mL
is discarded, may be contaminated with Maternal blood, T. fluid, Cells
d. All of these

A

c. Total amniotic fluid collected from puncture is utilized for laboratory first 2 to 3 mL
is discarded, may be contaminated with Maternal blood, T. fluid, Cells

59
Q

Stain used to determine cell viability in bronchoalveolar lavage
a. Oil Red O
b. Periodic Acid Schiff
c. Sudan Black III
d. Trypan Blue

A

d. Trypan Blue

boboratfinals (3 decks)

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