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OPT 533 > Atypical Lid Bumps > Flashcards

Atypical Lid Bumps Flashcards

1
Q

In terms of primary dermatological descriptors, what is a purpura?

A

Circumscribed deposit of blood or blood products greater than 1cm

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2
Q

In terms of primary dermatological descriptors, what is a papule?

A

Circumscribed, elevated discoloration less than 1cm

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3
Q

In terms of secondary dermatological descriptors, describe “ulcer”

A

Irregularly sized and shaped excavations extending into the dermis

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4
Q

In terms of primary dermatological descriptors, what is a macule?

A

Circumscribed, flat discoloration less than 1cm

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5
Q

In terms of secondary dermatological descriptors, what does papillomatous mean?

A

Lesion exhibiting a surface resembling a cauliflower or artichoke

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6
Q

Name the type of lesion: Lesion on a stalk

A

Pedunculated

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7
Q

Describe the lesion: Circumscribed, elevated discoloration less than 1cm

A

Papule

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8
Q

Name the type of lesion: Shedding, dead epidermal cells, dry or greasy

A

Scales

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9
Q

Describe the lesion: Solid lesion with depth above, level, or below surface less than 1cm

A

Nodule

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10
Q

In terms of secondary dermatological descriptors, describe “scales”

A

Shedding, dead epidermal cells, dry or greasy

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11
Q

In terms of primary dermatological descriptors, what is a petechia?

A

Circumscribed deposit of blood or blood products less than 1cm

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12
Q

In terms of primary dermatological descriptors, what is a vesicle?

A

Circumscribed elevation containing serous fluid less than 1cm

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13
Q

Describe the lesion: Circumscribed, elevated discoloration greater than 1cm

A

Plaque

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14
Q

Describe the lesion: Circumscribed, flat discoloration less than 1cm

A

Macule

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15
Q

Name the type of lesion: Lesion exhibits a central crater like an umbilicus or belly button

A

Umbilicated

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16
Q

Describe the lesion: Circumscribed elevation containing serous fluid greater than 1cm

A

Bulla

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17
Q

Describe the lesion: Circumscribed, flat discoloration greater than 1cm

A

Patch

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18
Q

Describe the lesion: Circumscribed deposit of blood or blood products greater than 1cm

A

Purpura

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19
Q

In terms of primary dermatological descriptors, what is a tumor?

A

Solid lesion with depth above, level, or below surface greater than 1cm

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20
Q

Name the type of lesion: Dried masses of skin exudates

A

Crusts

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21
Q

In terms of primary dermatological descriptors, what is plaque?

A

Circumscribed, elevated discoloration greater than 1cm

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22
Q

Name the type of lesion: Irregularly sized and shaped excavations extending into the dermis

A

Ulcer

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23
Q

In terms of primary dermatological descriptors, what is a nodule?

A

Solid lesion with depth above, level, or below surface less than 1cm

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24
Q

Name the type of lesion: Lesion exhibiting a surface resembling a cauliflower or artichoke

A

Papillomatous

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25
In terms of secondary dermatological descriptors, describe "crusts"
Dried masses of skin exudates
26
In terms of primary dermatological descriptors, what is a bulla?
Circumscribed elevation containing serous fluid greater than 1cm
27
In terms of secondary dermatological descriptors, what does umbilicated mean?
Lesion exhibits a central crater like an umbilicus or belly button
28
In terms of primary dermatological descriptors, what is a patch?
Circumscribed, flat discoloration greater than 1cm
29
In terms of secondary dermatological descriptors, what does sessile mean?
Lesion fixed to the skin on a broad base
30
Name the type of lesion: Lesion fixed to the skin on a broad base
Sessile
31
Describe the lesion: Circumscribed deposit of blood or blood products less than 1cm
Petechia
32
Describe the lesion: Circumscribed elevation containing serous fluid less than 1cm
Vesicle
33
In terms of secondary dermatological descriptors, what does pedunculated mean?
Lesion on a stalk
34
Describe the lesion: Solid lesion with depth above, level, or below surface greater than 1cm
Tumor
35
What is a mass of new cells which proliferate without control and serve no useful purpose?
Neoplasia
36
What is a growth which loses resemblance to cell of origin?
Anaplasia (tumor, cancer)
37
What is it called when there is a change in type of adults cells which is abnormal for that tissue?
Metaplasia
38
Define: anaplasia
Growth which loses resemblance to cell of origin (also known as a tumor, or cancer)
39
Define: neoplasia
Mass of new cells which proliferate without control and serve no useful purpose
40
Define: hyperplasia
Increase in the number of cells
41
Define: dysplasia
Alteration in size, shape, organization of adult cells
42
What is an increase in the number of cells called?
Hyperplasia
43
What is it called when there is an alteration in size, shape, organization of adult cells?
Dysplasia
44
Define: metaplasia
Change in type of adults cells which is abnormal for that tissue
45
What is a tumor of normally present tissue called?
Hamartoma
46
What is a tumor of blood vessels/vasculature called?
Hemangioma
47
What is a tumor of CT that develops into cartilage/bone, fat, muscle called?
Sarcoma
48
What is a tumor derived from embryonic cells called?
Blastoma
49
What is a tumor of epithelial tissue called?
Carcinoma
50
Define: hamartoma
Tumor of normally present tissue
51
Define: carcinoma
Tumor of epithelial tissue
52
Define: sarcoma
Tumor of CT that develops into cartilage/bone, fat, muscle
53
Define: hemangioma
Tumor of blood vessels/vasculature
54
Define: blastoma
Tumor derived from embryonic cells
55
What is a tumor of lymph tissue called?
Lymphoma
56
Define: melanoma
Tumor of pigmented cells
57
What is a tumor of pigmented cells called?
Melanoma
58
Define: lymphoma
Tumor of lymph tissue
59
What is an ephilis?
A freckle
60
True or false: if a person has ephilis, they have more melanocytes than normal.
False; there are the same number of melanocytes but they are bigger.
61
What sort of inheritance pattern is observed with ephilis?
Autosomal dominant
62
What is another name for a solar lentigine?
Liver spot
63
True or false: solar lentigines persist in the absence of sunlight
True.
64
What age group has a higher incidence of solar lentigines?
Middle to older age
65
Which type of nevus is most common and may be raised or flat? Where is it located?
Dermal; located in dermus
66
Which type of nevus is superficial, usually flat, and can convert to melanoma? Where is it located?
Junctional; dermoepidermal junction
67
True or false: a nevus is always pigmented
False; they can be amelanotic
68
Do malignant melanomas make up a large part of primary skin cancers?
No, only about 3%, but they make up the majority of skin cancer related deaths at 79%
69
There are two types of malignant melanoma: superficial spreading melanoma and nodular melanoma. Which grows faster? Which metastasizes earlier?
Superficial grows faster; nodular metastasizes earlier
70
What are two scales used to measure mortality due to melanoma? Which is more accurate?
Clark's level and Breslow depth; Breslow depth is more accurate
71
What is the most common malignant lid tumor?
Basal cell carcinoma
72
What are some factors that may contribute to basal cell carcinoma?
UV exposure, old age, fair skin
73
What are the two types of basal cell carcinoma?
Sclerosing (scar-like appearance) and noduloulcerative
74
Nodularulcerative basal cell carcinoma has what type of appearance?
Pearly, rolled borders, ulceration
75
True or false: metastasis of basal cell carcinoma is very common
False; it is uncommon
76
A basal cell carcinoma located at which side of the lid requires more rapid attention?
Inner canthus
77
What are some treatment options for basal cell carcinoma?
Excision, radiation, cryotherapy, curettage, electrodessication, imiquimod cream, 5-FU, PDT
78
Which type of tumor is the 3rd most common, ocular-wise?
Squamous cell carcinoma
79
True or false: squamous cell carcinoma is the 2nd most common skin cancer
True.
80
How might a patient describe a lesion that turns out to be a squamous cell carcinoma? How might you describe it?
Patient: scab won't heal; You: reddish, raised scaly plaque
81
What are some treatment options for squamous cell carcinoma?
Excision, radiation, PDT
82
What type of carcinoma may be mistaken for a recurrent meibomian gland chalazion?
Meibomian gland carcinoma (surprise!)
83
What are some treatment options for meibomian gland carcinoma?
Excision, radiation
84
What is actinic keratosis?
Also called sun spots, it is a dysplasia of squamous cells
85
What is keratoacanthoma?
Papular lesion originating from sebaceous cells; benign but grows fast
86
What would you need to rule out in the case of keratoacanthoma?
Squamous cell carcinoma
87
Lentigo maligna is a subtype of melanoma in situ. What is it also known as?
Hutchinson's freckle
88
In what age range does lentigo maligna usually develop?
Above age 40
89
True or false: lentigo maligna is generally found on the head and neck, and generally in fair-skinned people
True.
90
What are the chances that lentigo maligna might turn malignant?
15%
91
True or false: lentigo maligna is generally regularly colored and has regular margins
False; both pigmentation and margins are usually irregular
92
What is an acrochordon?
A skin tag; due to paucity of elastic tissue
93
True or false: papilloma is a benign epithelial tumor
True.
94
Are papilloma vascular or avascular? Are they flat or raised?
Avascular; they can be flattened (sessile) or elongated (pedunculated)
95
What benign skin lesion is sometimes referred to as "barnacles of old age"? What type of tissue does it involve?
Seborrheic keratosis; basal cell
96
What would seborrheic keratosis look like?
Flat or slightly elevated, 1-6 mm round, waxy, greasy, or scaly
97
Which skin condition involves itching and flat topped violaceous papules? What other area of the body does it commonlny affect? What are some management options?
Lichen planus; commonly affects buccal mucosa; manage with steroids, vitamin A, and retinoids
98
What are verrucae?
Viral warts caused by HPV
99
Which skin condition resembles basal cell carcinoma due to its umbilicated nodule with central core, elevated, round, pearly appearance?
Molluscum contagiosum
100
Follicles in the cojunctiva are indivative of what skin condition?
Moluscum contagiosum

OPT 533 (4 decks)

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