ATPL Theory Flashcards
What are the ICAO wake turbulence categories and weights?
J - Super - 560T
H - Heavy - >=136000Kg
M - Medium <7000 - 136000>
L - Light <= 7000Kg
Define ASDA?
Accelarate- Stop distance available.
TORA + stopway if provided.
Define TORA
Take-off Run available.
Length of runway declared and suitable for the ground run of an airplane taking off.
Define TODA
Take-off Distance available.
TORA + clearway if provided.
Define Stopway
Length of unprepared surface at the end of the runway capable of supporting an aircraft in the event of a rejected takeoff.
Define Clearway
An area beyond the take-off runway under the control of the airport authorities which terrain or fixed obstacles may not extend above specified limits
What is a cardinal altitude?
“Odd” or “Even” thousand-foot altitudes or flight levels; e.g., 5000, 6000, 7000, FL60, FL250, FL260, FL270.
What is a balked landing?
A landing manoeuvre that is unexpectedly discontinued below DA(H)/ MDA(H) or beyond MAP
What is a blind transmission?
A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where two-way communication cannot be established but where it is believed that the called sta- tion is able to receive the transmission.
What is the definition of DA or DH?
A specified altitude or height in the precision approach or approach with vertical guidance at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established.
What are the 3 phases of an emergency?
Uncertainty - INCERFA - A situation wherein uncertainty exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
Alert phase - ALERFA - A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.
Distress phase - DETRESFA - A situation wherein there is a reasonable certainty that an aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger or require immediate assistance.
What are approach categories based on?
Aircraft are grouped by speed at threshold, based on 1.3 times the stall speed in the landing config at maximum gross landing weight.
A <91kts
B 91-120
C 121-140
D 141-165
E >165
What is the definition of QNE?
The constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches of mercury or 1013.25 hectopascals or 1013.25 millibars, used for expressing flight levels.
What is the definition of QNH?
The atmospheric pressure setting which, when set in the aircraft’s altimeter, will cause the altimeter to read altitudes referenced to mean sea level.
What is the definition of QFE?
The atmospheric pressure setting which, when set in the aircraft’s altimeter, will cause the altimeter to read zero when at the reference datum of the airfield.
What is ADS-B?
A surveillance system in which an aircraft or vehicle to be detected is fitted with coop- erative equipment in the form of a data link transmitter. The aircraft or vehicle periodically broad- casts its GPS-derived position and other information such as velocity over the data link, which is received by a ground-based transmitter/receiver (transceiver) for processing and display at an air traffic control facility.
What is an EAT?
Expected approach time. The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing.
What is MORA?
Minimum off route altitude. The lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and in the USA assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 22NM of a VOR.
What is the NTZ, No transgression zone?
In the context of independent parallel approaches, a corridor of airspace of defined dimensions located centrally between the two extended runway centre lines, where a penetration by an aircraft requires a controller intervention to manoeuvre any threatened aircraft on the adjacent approach.
What are near parallel runways?
Non-intersecting runways whose extended centre lines have an angle of convergence/divergence of 15 degrees or less.
How do you define dry snow?
Snow which can be blown if loose or, if compacted by hand, will fall apart upon release
How do you define wet snow?
Snow which, if compacted by hand, will stick together and tend to or form a snow- ball
What is TCAS?
TRAFFIC ALERT AND COLLISION AVOIDANCE SYSTEM.
TCAS-I generates traffic advisory only;
TCAS-II generates traffic advisories, and resolution (collision avoidance) advisories in the vertical plane.
What does the term “Negative RVSM” mean?
phrase used to report RVSM non-approved status
What does the term “Unable RVSM due (equipment, turbulence)” mean
to report that the equipment of an aircraft has degraded be- low minimum aviation system performance standards or when severe tur- bulence affects the capability of an aircraft to maintain height- keeping requirements for RVSM
Decode MIFG
Shallow Fog
What is the minimum altitude for a turn on takeoff?
400’ (394’)
What does a steady green light gun signal mean on ground?
Cleared for takeoff
What does a steady green light gun signal mean in flight?
Cleared to land
What does a flashing green light gun signal mean on the ground?
Cleared to taxi
What does a flashing green light gun signal mean in flight?
Return to airfield for landing
What does a steady red light gun signal mean on ground?
Stop
What does a flashing red light gun signal mean in flight?
Give way, continue to circle
What does a flashing red light gun signal mean on ground?
Taxi clear of runway
What does a flashing red light gun signal mean in flight?
Do not land
What does CAVOK mean?
- Visibility >10km
- No CB/TCU,
- No Sig Wx within airport vicinity
- No cloud below 5000’ or MSA whichever is higher
What letter on a flight plan indicates RVSM approved?
W
What letter on a flight plan indicates MNPS approved?
X
What are the 4 takeoff segments?
- 15/35’ to gear up (+ive climb)
- gear up to 400’ (2.4%)
- 400’ to flaps up
- flaps up to 1500’ (1.2%)
What is parasite drag?
Parasite (Parasitic) Drag (DP) is defined as all drag that is not associated with the production of lift. Form, friction, interference.
What is induced drag?
Induced Drag is an inevitable consequence of lift and is produced by the passage of an aerofoil (e.g. wing or tailplane) through the air.
Define MAPt
Missed Approach Point - That point in an instrument approach procedure at or before which the prescribed missed approach procedure must be initiated in order to ensure that the minimum obstacle clearance is not infringed.
Concerning ETOPS, what is a suitable airport?
An airport that meets the aircraft requirements in terms of
- Performance
- RFF
- Lighting (for night time)
- Basic instrument approach available
- Aerodrome is open
When does the second segment begin?
Begins at the end of the 1st segment (gear up) and is continued to not less than 400’ AGL. Requires 2.4% climb gradient and 3.0% for 4 engines.
What are the ICAO ILS protected areas?
35 degrees within 10nm
10 degrees within 18nm
What clearance does the MSA provide?
1000’ of all objects
Define MOCA
Minimum obstacle clearance altitude - The lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and in the USA assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 22NM of a VOR.
What is the maximum overshoot or undershoot height permitted in RVSM airspace?
150’
What equipment is required for RVSM?
Two independent altitude measurement systems;
An altitude alerting system;
An automatic altitude control system; and
A secondary surveillance radar (SSR) transponder with altitude reporting system that can be connected to the altitude measurement system in use for altitude keeping.
What points along the runway is RVR measured?
TD
MP
RO/SE
What are the ICAO holding speeds?
<=14000’ 230 kts
>14000<=20000 240 kts
>20000<=34000 265 kts
34000> M.83
Define fail passive?
No out of trim condition will exist when autopilot disengages but landing continue manually if required viz references present
Define fail operational?
An autopilot system that, with failure of one autopilot will complete the approach flare and landing using its other system.
What colour are runway edge lights?
White, except for the last 600m / 2000’ where it is amber
What colour are centreline lights?
White, except last 900m/3000’ where it alternates red/white, and the last 300m/1000’ where it is red
The following are METAR Descriptors, what do they mean?
MI - BC - PR - DR - BL - SH - TS - FZ - VC
MI - Shallow
BC - Patches
PR - Partial
DR - Low drifting
BL - Blowing
SH - Shower(s)
TS - Thunderstorm
FZ - Freezing
VC - Vicinity (w/i 5nm)
Identify the following METAR Wx phenomena:
SG - PL - GR - GS - BR - FU - VA - DU - SA - PO - SQ - SS - DS
SG - Snow grains
PL - Ice pellets
GR - Hail
GS - Small hail / snow pellets
BR - Mist
FU - Smoke
VA - Volcanic Ash
DU - Widespread Dust
SA - Sand
PO - Dust/Sand whirls
SQ - Squall
SS - Sandstorm
DS - Duststorm
What is NTZ?
No transgression zone, and area 2000’ wide between parallel runways that is monitored by ATC.
In the context of independent parallel approaches, a cor- ridor of airspace of defined dimensions located centrally between the two extended runway centre lines, where a penetration by an aircraft requires a controller intervention to manoeuvre any threatened aircraft on the adjacent approach.
Density is _________________ proportional to temperature. Fill in the blank
Inversely
Define prohibited area
An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited.
How long is a TREND valid?
2 hours maximum
What does PBN/S1 mean on a flight plan?
PBN = RNP/RNAV approach capability
S1 = RNP Approach
What is density altitude?
Density Altitude is pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature.
Convert C to F
C x 9/5 + 32
What direction does air blow in the northern hemisphere in a low pressure?
Anticlockwise
RVSM basic altimetry requirements
75’ of airfield elevation before takeoff and 50’ difference between primary altimeters
