Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Airline Assessment > ATPL Theory > Flashcards

ATPL Theory Flashcards

1
Q

What are the ICAO wake turbulence categories and weights?

A

J - Super - 560T
H - Heavy - >=136000Kg
M - Medium <7000 - 136000>
L - Light <= 7000Kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define ASDA?

A

Accelarate- Stop distance available.
TORA + stopway if provided.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define TORA

A

Take-off Run available.
Length of runway declared and suitable for the ground run of an airplane taking off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define TODA

A

Take-off Distance available.
TORA + clearway if provided.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define Stopway

A

Length of unprepared surface at the end of the runway capable of supporting an aircraft in the event of a rejected takeoff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define Clearway

A

An area beyond the take-off runway under the control of the airport authorities which terrain or fixed obstacles may not extend above specified limits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a cardinal altitude?

A

“Odd” or “Even” thousand-foot altitudes or flight levels; e.g., 5000, 6000, 7000, FL60, FL250, FL260, FL270.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a balked landing?

A

A landing manoeuvre that is unexpectedly discontinued below DA(H)/ MDA(H) or beyond MAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a blind transmission?

A

A transmission from one station to another station in circumstances where two-way communication cannot be established but where it is believed that the called sta- tion is able to receive the transmission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the definition of DA or DH?

A

A specified altitude or height in the precision approach or approach with vertical guidance at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 3 phases of an emergency?

A

Uncertainty - INCERFA - A situation wherein uncertainty exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.

Alert phase - ALERFA - A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.

Distress phase - DETRESFA - A situation wherein there is a reasonable certainty that an aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger or require immediate assistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are approach categories based on?

A

Aircraft are grouped by speed at threshold, based on 1.3 times the stall speed in the landing config at maximum gross landing weight.
A <91kts
B 91-120
C 121-140
D 141-165
E >165

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the definition of QNE?

A

The constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches of mercury or 1013.25 hectopascals or 1013.25 millibars, used for expressing flight levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the definition of QNH?

A

The atmospheric pressure setting which, when set in the aircraft’s altimeter, will cause the altimeter to read altitudes referenced to mean sea level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the definition of QFE?

A

The atmospheric pressure setting which, when set in the aircraft’s altimeter, will cause the altimeter to read zero when at the reference datum of the airfield.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is ADS-B?

A

A surveillance system in which an aircraft or vehicle to be detected is fitted with coop- erative equipment in the form of a data link transmitter. The aircraft or vehicle periodically broad- casts its GPS-derived position and other information such as velocity over the data link, which is received by a ground-based transmitter/receiver (transceiver) for processing and display at an air traffic control facility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is an EAT?

A

Expected approach time. The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is MORA?

A

Minimum off route altitude. The lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and in the USA assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 22NM of a VOR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the NTZ, No transgression zone?

A

In the context of independent parallel approaches, a corridor of airspace of defined dimensions located centrally between the two extended runway centre lines, where a penetration by an aircraft requires a controller intervention to manoeuvre any threatened aircraft on the adjacent approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are near parallel runways?

A

Non-intersecting runways whose extended centre lines have an angle of convergence/divergence of 15 degrees or less.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do you define dry snow?

A

Snow which can be blown if loose or, if compacted by hand, will fall apart upon release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do you define wet snow?

A

Snow which, if compacted by hand, will stick together and tend to or form a snow- ball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is TCAS?

A

TRAFFIC ALERT AND COLLISION AVOIDANCE SYSTEM.

TCAS-I generates traffic advisory only;
TCAS-II generates traffic advisories, and resolution (collision avoidance) advisories in the vertical plane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does the term “Negative RVSM” mean?

A

phrase used to report RVSM non-approved status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does the term “Unable RVSM due (equipment, turbulence)” mean

A

to report that the equipment of an aircraft has degraded be- low minimum aviation system performance standards or when severe tur- bulence affects the capability of an aircraft to maintain height- keeping requirements for RVSM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Decode MIFG

A

Shallow Fog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the minimum altitude for a turn on takeoff?

A

400’ (394’)

28
Q

What does a steady green light gun signal mean on ground?

A

Cleared for takeoff

29
Q

What does a steady green light gun signal mean in flight?

A

Cleared to land

30
Q

What does a flashing green light gun signal mean on the ground?

A

Cleared to taxi

31
Q

What does a flashing green light gun signal mean in flight?

A

Return to airfield for landing

32
Q

What does a steady red light gun signal mean on ground?

A

Stop

33
Q

What does a flashing red light gun signal mean in flight?

A

Give way, continue to circle

34
Q

What does a flashing red light gun signal mean on ground?

A

Taxi clear of runway

35
Q

What does a flashing red light gun signal mean in flight?

A

Do not land

36
Q

What does CAVOK mean?

A
  • Visibility >10km
  • No CB/TCU,
  • No Sig Wx within airport vicinity
  • No cloud below 5000’ or MSA whichever is higher
37
Q

What letter on a flight plan indicates RVSM approved?

A

W

38
Q

What letter on a flight plan indicates MNPS approved?

A

X

39
Q

What are the 4 takeoff segments?

A
  • 15/35’ to gear up (+ive climb)
  • gear up to 400’ (2.4%)
  • 400’ to flaps up
  • flaps up to 1500’ (1.2%)
40
Q

What is parasite drag?

A

Parasite (Parasitic) Drag (DP) is defined as all drag that is not associated with the production of lift. Form, friction, interference.

41
Q

What is induced drag?

A

Induced Drag is an inevitable consequence of lift and is produced by the passage of an aerofoil (e.g. wing or tailplane) through the air.

42
Q

Define MAPt

A

Missed Approach Point - That point in an instrument approach procedure at or before which the prescribed missed approach procedure must be initiated in order to ensure that the minimum obstacle clearance is not infringed.

43
Q

Concerning ETOPS, what is a suitable airport?

A

An airport that meets the aircraft requirements in terms of
- Performance
- RFF
- Lighting (for night time)
- Basic instrument approach available
- Aerodrome is open

44
Q

When does the second segment begin?

A

Begins at the end of the 1st segment (gear up) and is continued to not less than 400’ AGL. Requires 2.4% climb gradient and 3.0% for 4 engines.

45
Q

What are the ICAO ILS protected areas?

A

35 degrees within 10nm
10 degrees within 18nm

46
Q

What clearance does the MSA provide?

A

1000’ of all objects

47
Q

Define MOCA

A

Minimum obstacle clearance altitude - The lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and in the USA assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 22NM of a VOR.

48
Q

What is the maximum overshoot or undershoot height permitted in RVSM airspace?

A

150’

49
Q

What equipment is required for RVSM?

A

Two independent altitude measurement systems;
An altitude alerting system;
An automatic altitude control system; and
A secondary surveillance radar (SSR) transponder with altitude reporting system that can be connected to the altitude measurement system in use for altitude keeping.

50
Q

What points along the runway is RVR measured?

A

TD
MP
RO/SE

51
Q

What are the ICAO holding speeds?

A

<=14000’ 230 kts
>14000<=20000 240 kts
>20000<=34000 265 kts
34000> M.83

52
Q

Define fail passive?

A

No out of trim condition will exist when autopilot disengages but landing continue manually if required viz references present

53
Q

Define fail operational?

A

An autopilot system that, with failure of one autopilot will complete the approach flare and landing using its other system.

54
Q

What colour are runway edge lights?

A

White, except for the last 600m / 2000’ where it is amber

55
Q

What colour are centreline lights?

A

White, except last 900m/3000’ where it alternates red/white, and the last 300m/1000’ where it is red

56
Q

The following are METAR Descriptors, what do they mean?
MI - BC - PR - DR - BL - SH - TS - FZ - VC

A

MI - Shallow
BC - Patches
PR - Partial
DR - Low drifting
BL - Blowing
SH - Shower(s)
TS - Thunderstorm
FZ - Freezing
VC - Vicinity (w/i 5nm)

57
Q

Identify the following METAR Wx phenomena:

SG - PL - GR - GS - BR - FU - VA - DU - SA - PO - SQ - SS - DS

A

SG - Snow grains
PL - Ice pellets
GR - Hail
GS - Small hail / snow pellets
BR - Mist
FU - Smoke
VA - Volcanic Ash
DU - Widespread Dust
SA - Sand
PO - Dust/Sand whirls
SQ - Squall
SS - Sandstorm
DS - Duststorm

58
Q

What is NTZ?

A

No transgression zone, and area 2000’ wide between parallel runways that is monitored by ATC.

In the context of independent parallel approaches, a cor- ridor of airspace of defined dimensions located centrally between the two extended runway centre lines, where a penetration by an aircraft requires a controller intervention to manoeuvre any threatened aircraft on the adjacent approach.

59
Q

Density is _________________ proportional to temperature. Fill in the blank

A

Inversely

60
Q

Define prohibited area

A

An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited.

61
Q

How long is a TREND valid?

A

2 hours maximum

62
Q

What does PBN/S1 mean on a flight plan?

A

PBN = RNP/RNAV approach capability

S1 = RNP Approach

63
Q

What is density altitude?

A

Density Altitude is pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature.

64
Q

Convert C to F

A

C x 9/5 + 32

65
Q

What direction does air blow in the northern hemisphere in a low pressure?

A

Anticlockwise

66
Q

RVSM basic altimetry requirements

A

75’ of airfield elevation before takeoff and 50’ difference between primary altimeters

67
Q
A

Airline Assessment (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions