ATPL Technical Question

Question 1

Most eastern destination ?

Answer 1

Mattala or Almaty or Muscat

Question 2

Most northern destination?

Answer 2

Tromso (Norway)

Question 3

Wizzair creation date ?

Answer 3

September 2003

Question 4

Name of Wizzair CEO ?

Answer 4

Jozsef Varadi

Question 5

Sum of the prime numbers between 10 and 20 ?

Answer 5

11+13+17+19=60

Question 6

Sum of the prime numbers between 4 and 16 ?

Answer 6

5+7+11+13=36

Question 7

2522306/5233=?

Answer 7

482

Question 8

Aircraft (twin engines) fuel consumption: 2200kg/h. What would be the engine fuel
consumption if the aircraft is fitted with Sharklets that reduce by 5% the FC?

Answer 8

2200 - 5% (110) = 2090/2 = 1045 kg/h

Question 9

You are landing in low visibility and after touching down you only see red and white
centreline lights, how many meters are left?

Answer 9

Not more than 900m

Question 10

What are Vmo and Mmo?

Answer 10

Vmo = Maximum Operating Speed, Mmo= Maximum Operating Mach number

Question 11

What is FANS?

Answer 11

Future Air Navigation System, means to connect pilots and ATC to communicate via datalink

Question 12

ICAO Bird strike report

Answer 12

IBIS - is designed to collect and disseminate information on wildlife strikes to aircraft.

Question 13

Path definition error PDE

Answer 13

Difference between the defined path and the desired path at a given place and time

Question 14

How does the FMS ETA change with headwind?

Question 15

FMS calculated attitude

Question 16

Symmetrical aerofoil and its Lift coefficient

Answer 16

Angle of attack = 0, No lift produced

Question 17

Pan Pan Call

Answer 17

Urgency situation.

Question 18

What is Vs1g?

Answer 18

CL max. Lowest speed at which the airplane can maintain 1g in level flight.

Question 19

Engine type on A320ceo

Answer 19

IAE V2500

Question 20

Engine type on A320neo

Answer 20

P&W 1000G GTF

Question 21

(x-8)(x+4)=0

Answer 21

8

Question 22

An aircraft flies 23h on Mo, We, Fri, 19h on Tue, Thu and 22h on Sat, Sun. Maintenance
takes 1h per day. How many hours are spent on the ground by this aircraft?

Answer 22

17h

Question 23

What means CEO/NEO?

Answer 23

Current Engine Option / New Engine Option

Question 24

How many seats on A321ceo?

Answer 24

230

Question 25

How many seats on A320?

Answer 25

180/186 on A320ceo & 186 on A320neo

Question 26

What type of wing produces the less induced drag and during which phase of a flight?

Answer 26

Low wing ACFT during landing

Question 27

What is produced by the coalescence process in the mid-latitudes?

Answer 27

Drizzle or very light rain.

Question 28

Which of the following combinations provides the best visual landmarks for a VFR flight?

Answer 28

1- Large water reservoir, 3- Excessively high mast, 5- High tension power line

Question 29

What is the purpose of ATC clearance?

Answer 29

Authorization by ATC to prevent collision between ACFT and expedite trffic.

Question 30

What are ribs for in a wing?

Answer 30

Gives the wing its cambered shape and they transmit loads from the skin and stringers to the spars.

Question 31

What is the purpose of Baffle check valves?

Answer 31

Prevent movement of fuel towards the wing tip.

Question 32

Registration mark shall be letters, numbers and shall be that assigned by?

Answer 32

The state of registry or common mark registering authority.

Question 33

What type of engine gives less problem in case of critical engine failure?

Answer 33

Counter-clockwise rotating.

Question 34

How increase optimum altitude?

Answer 34

Less weight (Burning fuel)

Question 35

Which index colour of the AIP contains information about ATS facilities?

Answer 35

Yellow

Question 36

2456758/4523= ?

Answer 36

544

Question 37

50cmx50cmx50cm= ? m3

Answer 37

125.000cm3 = 0.125m3

Question 38

In case of SSR transponder failure occurring after departure for IFR flight, the pilot shall?

Answer 38

Inform ATC unit ASAP.

Question 39

7600 code meaning?

Answer 39

Radio failure.

Question 40

A plane has tires with d=3m (π=3.14). What distance (in m) has the tires covered after
turning 18 times?

Answer 40

3.14 x 3 = 9.42 x 18 = 169.56m

Question 41

Km/h conversion to M/min and NM/min

Answer 41

6 Km/h = 100 m/min, 1 Nm/min = 111 Km/h

Question 42

What is ASDA?

Answer 42

Length of TORA + Stopway if provided.

Question 43

What is TODA?

Answer 43

Length of TORA + Clearway if provided.

Question 44

Minimum time separation for a departing Light/Medium behind a Heavy aircraft?

Answer 44

2min minimum (Full length T/O), 3min (Intermediate T/O after a Full length T/O)

Question 45

At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help, how should the pilot
indicate that he has received these signals?

Answer 45

By flashing his landing lights twice or navigation lights if not equipped with landing lights.

Question 46

What is whiteout effect?

Answer 46

It’s a weather condition that causes disorientation and low visibility by snow, overcast cloud and fog. Pilots
cannot see the visible horizon because of the terrain covered with snow in the white sky.

Question 47

What is the correction factor for landing on a wet runway?

Answer 47

115%

Question 48

How should a station address a general call to all aircraft in its area?

Answer 48

Start with “All stations”

Question 49

In straight flight, as speed is increased, whilst trimming to keep the stick force zero:

Answer 49

The elevator is deflected further downwards and the trim tab further upwards.

Question 50

Last minute extra cargo is being loaded in the aircraft, FWD of the CG. How should the
trim setting adjustment be?

Answer 50

Aft, lowering the leading edge of the stabilizer

Question 51

What is the e effect on the stall speed when the weight is increased?

Answer 51

Stall speed increases.

Question 52

Regarding CG limits, which one the following statements is true?

Answer 52

CG limits from aircraft operator can be more restrictive than the manufacturer’s CG limits.

Question 53

What is TAT?

Answer 53

SAT + Ram rise temperature correction associated with high-speed flight.

Question 54

Why are high latitude flights in Polar regions subject to specific problems with the use of
a gyro magnetic compass?

Answer 54

Because of the magnetic field being stronger, magnetic variation changes rapidly.

Question 55

75% of X = 6054, X= ?

Answer 55

(6054*4)/3 = 8072

Question 56

What is the purpose of Hydraulic Thermal Relief Valves?

Answer 56

To relieve excess pressure cause by temperature rises.

Question 57

Minimum separation between a Light/Medium ACFT and a Heavy ACFT, and between a
Light ACFT and a Medium ACFT when the heavier ACFT is making a low or missed
approach and the lighter is using an opposite direction runway for T/O?

Answer 57

2 min

Question 58

Primary DC system:

Question 59

There are 20 A320 IAE, 10 A321 IAE and 5 A321neo, what percentage has the A321neo of
the whole fleet?

Answer 59

20+10+5 = 35, (5x100)/35 = 14%

Question 60

Which of the following is a prohibited combination in aircraft registration letters?

Answer 60

TTT
Also : PAN , SOS , XXX

Question 61

2x-(1+y)=2y
y is equal to?

Answer 61

1

Question 62

Main factor which contributes to the formation of very low clouds ahead of a warm front?

Answer 62

Saturation of the cold air by rain falling into it and evaporating

Question 63

An aeroplane is scheduled to depart from a high-altitude airport in the tropics at 1400LT.
Which of the following is most likely to be the limiting factor(s) in determining the TOM?

Answer 63

Altitude and temperature of the departure airfield.

Question 64

The Cost Index is determined by dividing the:

Answer 64

Aircraft operating cost / Fuel cost

Question 65

What is mean by the term “Fading”?

Answer 65

The interference of the ground and sky wave

Question 66

After flying for 16min at 100kts TAS with a 20kt tail wind, you have to return to the airfield.
You will arrive after:

Answer 66

24min

Question 67

A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 325° and 5min later on a relative
bearing of 280°. ACFT heading was 165°M, variation 25°W, Drift 10° Right and GS 360kts.
When the RB was 280°, the distance and true bearing of the ACFT from the feature was:

Answer 67

30NM and 240°

Question 68

RNP APP GNSS with APV can be?

Answer 68

RNAV

Question 69

How many seats on A321ceo?

Answer 69

230

Question 70

150cmx50cmx50cm= ? cm3

Answer 70

375 000 cm3

Question 71

Complete this sentence (i cant remember the exact wording but rougly was this ) : A plane
diclared distress message on the frequency that take priority over all message, it is a ?
MAYDAY/PANPAN, ATC instructs all stations to standby, it means they have to ?

Question 72

Runway EDGE lights colours

Answer 72

white

Question 73

1.1 x 1.1 = ?

Answer 73

1.21

Question 74

A question that I cant really remember but basically was the definition of AIRAC so AIRAC was
the answer.

Question 75

Definition of Wet Runway ?

Answer 75

a runway whose surface is covered by dampness or water up to and including 3 mm deep.

Question 76

Coefficient to apply in case of Wet Runway ?

Answer 76

115%

Question 77

Definition of NEO ?

Answer 77

New Engine Option

Question 78

Questions about gyros (can’t remember it) answers were Real wander, apparent wander, Earth
rotation, x.

Question 79

Crossing INTL date line from West to East, you : Loose 12/Add 12h/Loose 1 day/Add 1 day ?

Answer 79

Lose a Day

Question 79

Add here
Percentage diameter Questions and Fuel Policy from other document juliana sent

Question 80

How many seats on A321neo?

Answer 80

239

Question 81

Mountain effect affects? The phenomena is?

Answer 81

NDBs, Reflection

Question 82

1.What is the runway length remaining when the RWY centreline lights turns solid red?

A.1000 ft (305m)
B.900 ft (275m)
C.1200 ft(366m)
D.2000 ft(600m)

Answer 82

A.1000 ft (305m)

Question 83

2.What is a rate 1 turn?

A.Rate 1 isa 3 degree per second or 180 degree per minute turn
B.Rate 1 isa 6 degree per second or 360 degree per minute turn
C.Rate 1 isa 9 degree per second or 540 degree per minute turn
D.Rate 1 is a 25-degree angle of bank turn a commercial air transport category aircraft

Answer 83

A.Rate 1 is a 3 degree per second or 180 degree per minute turn

Question 84

3.A runway is considered contaminated above what percetage coverage?
A.50%
B.75%
C.25%
D.10%

Answer 84

C. 25%

Question 85

4.An aircraft is climbing at a constant Mach number. How will the TAS change?

A.The TAS will increase
B.The TAS will remain constant
C.The TAS will decrease
D.There is no direct relationship between TAS and Mach number

Answer 85

C.The TAS will decrease

Question 85

5.What is the effect of aft C.G.on range?

A.Change of the C.G.does’t have any effect on the range
B.An aft C.G.increases the range
C.An aft C.G.decreases the range
D.Moving the C.G.to the foremost point on the envelope will result in best range

Answer 85

B.An aft C.G.increases the range

Question 86

6. A trough of low pressure is generally associated with?

A. Subsidence causing decreased cloud and precipitation
B. Subsidence causing increased cloud and precipitation
C. Divergence causing increased cloud and precipitation
D. Convergence causing increased cloud and precipitation

Answer 86

D. Convergence causing increased cloud and precipitation

Question 87

9. What is the effect of flap extension on Vx and Vy?

A. Vx decreases and Vy increases.
B. Vx increases and Vy decreases.
C. Vx decreases and Vy decreases.
D. Vx increases and Vy increases.

Answer 87

C. Vx decreases and Vy decreases.

Question 87

8. What is the Mach number?

A. CAS divided by the local speed of sound
B. Local speed of sound on the wings compared to the local speed of still air at altitude
C. True Airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of sound
D. True Airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of sound at mean sea level

Answer 87

C. True Airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of sound

Question 88

7. What are the different ways of transferring heat energy into the atmosphere?

A. Adiabatically
B. Sun energy and Earth magma
C. Radiation, conduction and convection
D. Anabatic and katabatic ways

Answer 88

C. Radiation, conduction and convection

Question 89

12. In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an Easterly direction, the
    magnetic compass will indicate:

A. An apparent turn to the North
B. An apparent turn to the South
C. Stay on Easterly heading

Answer 89

A. An apparent turn to the North

Question 90

10. The absolute ceiling is defined as?

A. The altitude where a certain maximum rate of climb (e.g., 100 ft/min) is attained
B. The altitude at which the aircraft operates with a 0.7g buffet boundary
C. The altitude where the maximum rate of climb is 0 ft/min
D. The altitude where the rate of climb is maximum

Answer 90

C. The altitude where the maximum rate of climb is 0 ft/min

Question 91

11. What is the Aerodrome QNH?

A. Aerodrome pressure converted to main sea level assuming ISA conditions between the aerodrome
and the sea level
B. Atmospheric pressure at the aerodrome level
C. Lowest value of QNH forecast to occur in the region of the aerodrome during a period of one hour.
D. QFE converted to mean sea level assuming constant temperature conditions between the
aerodrome and sea level

Answer 91

A. Aerodrome pressure converted to main sea level assuming ISA conditions between the aerodrome
and the sea level

Question 92

13. What type of Autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single
    failure below alert height?

A. Fail Passive
B. Fail Operational or Fail Active
C. Fail Soft
D. Land 2 system

Answer 92

B. Fail Operational or Fail Active

Question 92

14. What does Vortex Generators do?

A. Makes airflow turbulent for more energy
B. If switched on, makes airflow more silent for NADP procedures
C. Transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer.
D. Delaying the airflow separation from the wing by giving more drag

Answer 92

C. Transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer.

Question 93

15. A public transport aircraft is intended to be operated at FL 390. The total number of oxygen
    masks (dispensing units and outlets) in the cabin must be at least the same as the total number of?

A. Seats
B. Passengers
C. Seats exceeded by 10%
D. Passengers exceeded by 10%.

Answer 93

C. Seats exceeded by 10%

Question 94

16. An aircraft flies 23 hours a day on Monday, Wednesday and Friday. 19 hours a day on
    Tuesday and Thursday and 22 hours a day on Saturday and Sunday. Maintenance takes 1
    hour per day. How many hours are spent on the ground by this aircraft over a four-week-
    period?

A. 36 hours
B. 60 hours
C. 68 hours
D. 76 hours

Answer 94

C. 68 hours

Question 95

17. A jet powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have:

A. Higher range, due to flying at higher altitude, where the engines are more efficient
B. Reduced range
C. Lower fuel flow, due to higher N1 and N2

Answer 95

B. Reduced range

Question 96

19. From which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type oxygen mask for the flight
    crew in a pressurized aircraft?

A. FL 100
B. FL 300
C. FL 250
D. FL290

Answer 96

C. FL 250

Question 96

20. Is there a critical engine on a jet engine powered aircraft?

A. Yes, the critical engine is the upwind engine
B. Yes, the critical engine is the downwind engine
C. No

Answer 96

A. Yes, the critical engine is the upwind engine

Question 96

18. The Bourdon tube is used to measure?

A. Vibrations
B. Fuel Flow
C. Pressure
D. Temperature

Answer 96

C. Pressure

Question 97

21. Seasons are due to the?

A. Earth’s rotation on its polar axis
B. Inclination of the polar axis with the ecliptic plane
C. Earth’s elliptical orbit around the Sun
D. Variable distance between Earth and Sun

Answer 97

B. Inclination of the polar axis with the ecliptic plane

Question 98

23. Which of the following combinations will most likely cause the greatest increase in the take-off
    distance?

A. Tailwind, Upslope, High temperature
B. Tailwind, Downslope, High temperature
C. Wet runway, Low temperature,
D. Headwind, Upslope, Low temperature

Answer 98

A. Tailwind, Upslope, High temperature

Question 98

22. A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The
    reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is?

A. Quick Reference Handbook (QRH)
B. Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
C. Operations Manual part A (OMA)
D. Aircraft Maintenance Manual (AMM)

Answer 98

B. Minimum Equipment List (MEL)

Question 99

24. The MMEL (Master Minimum Equipment List) is prepared by?

A. The operator’s maintenance provider
B. The manufacturer and approved by the certification authority
C. The operator’s competent authority
D. BY EASA

Answer 99

B. The manufacturer and approved by the certification authority+

Question 100

25. The MEL is drawn up by?

A. The operator
B. The CAA where the AOC is registered
C. The manufacturer
D. The maintenance provider

Answer 100

A. The operator

Question 101

27. LRBS 1212Z 09012KT 1200 BKN003 PROB40 SHRA BECMG 2122 14015KT 4800 BKN006 OVC020
    PROB40 1600 -RA BECMG 0203 2400 -RA OVC008 TEMPO 0312 0800

For landing at LRBS at 2130 UTC the wind and weather could be:

A. 140/15, light rain
B. 090/12, showers of rain, visibility 1200m
C. RVR 800 meters
D. Visibility 2400m, light rain

Answer 101

A. 140/15, light rain

Question 102

26. Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of?

A. Small super-cooled droplets striking the aircraft.
B. Water vapor turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface
C. Freezing rain striking the aircraft
D. Droplets forming on the aircraft and then freezing

Answer 102

B. Water vapor turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface

Question 103

28. Under icing conditions, if you exceeded the holdover time, the correct procedure is?

A. After receiving the line-up clearance for the take-off, the exceedance can be disregarded
B. With switching on the icing systems of the aircraft the flight can be continued
C. De-ice again the aircraft and apply anti-icing fluid
D. Repeat the anti-icing again

Answer 103

C. De-ice again the aircraft and apply anti-icing fluid

Question 104

29. The term CAVOK is used when the following conditions occur simultaneously: visibility equal to or
    greater than 10km, no clouds below 5000 feet and no significant weather phenomena is present and
    wind speed is less than 10 knots.

A. False
B. True

Answer 104

A. False

Wind <10Kts isn’t part of the conditions.

Question 105

30. Why do jet aircraft climb to their optimum altitude?

A. They climb to their optimum altitude because jet engines are most efficient when their
compressors are operating at high rpms, approximately 90 to 95 percent

B. Optimum altitudes result in high engine rpm speeds that result in the engine’s optimal gas flow
condition that achieves its best specific fuel consumption (SFC)

C. Minimum cruise airframe drag can only be achieved at high altitudes where EAS is decreased i.e.,
drag decreased

D. A, B and C are all correct

Answer 105

D. A, B and C are all correct

Question 106

32. What is the Decision Point Procedure?

A. After missed approach, reaching the point for the minimum fuel required, making the procedure
to the alternate airport

B. Reaching the Point in the Giulio’s Mental Model where the decisions must be made for starting a
new procedure

C. Reducing the contingency fuel to only that required from decision point to destination

D. To make a decision on the suitable alternate airport after a certain point on the route

Answer 106

C. Reducing the contingency fuel to only that required from decision point to destination

Question 106

31. What is engine pressure ratio (EPR)?

A. EPR is the pressure ratio between N1 and N2

B. EPR is the ratio of pressure measurements taken from two or three different engine probes and
displayed in the cockpit to use as a parameter for setting engine thrust. EPR is a secondary engine
thrust instrument.

C. EPR is the ratio of pressure measurements taken from two or three different engine probes and
displayed in the cockpit to use as a parameter for setting engine thrust. EPR is a primary engine
thrust instrument.

D. EPR is the pressure relationship between the engines on the airplane and is used to attain precise
symmetric thrust for optimum performance.

Answer 106

C. EPR is the ratio of pressure measurements taken from two or three different engine probes and
displayed in the cockpit to use as a parameter for setting engine thrust. EPR is a primary engine
thrust instrument.

Question 107

33. During a two-step de-icing/anti-icing procedure, the hold over time (HOT) starts at which step?

A. At the end of the de-icing/anti-icing procedure
B. At the end of the whole de-icing/anti-icing procedure
C. At the beginning of the second step procedure
D. At the end of the anti-icing procedure

Answer 107

C. At the beginning of the second step procedure

Question 108

34. The accumulation of ice on an aircraft in flight includes an increase in the?

A. Drag, weight and lift
B. Stalling speed
C. Speed to keep altitude with the same thrust

Answer 108

B. Stalling speed

Question 109

35. In a colder than standard atmosphere, the pressure altimeter will:

A. Underread
B. Altimeters are unaffected by temperature deviations therefore the altimeter reading will be
correct
C. Overread

Answer 109

C. Overread

Question 110

36. Which motions interact in a Dutch roll?

A. Only pitch and roll
B. Yawing is a parasite movement of the interact between the pitch and roll movements
C. Rolling and yawing
D. Pitch, roll and yaw

Answer 110

C. Rolling and yawing

Question 111

37. A series of red flashes for an aircraft on the ground means?

A. Return to starting point on the aerodrome
B. Stop
C. Taxi clear of the landing area in use
D. Aerodrome unsafe, do not land

Answer 111

C. Taxi clear of the landing area in use

Question 112

38. Linear acceleration, causing somatogravic illusion, can give a false impression of?

A. Turn
B. Spin
C. Climb
D. Descent

Answer 112

C. Climb

Question 113

39. Map Scale on Lamberts conformal chart is:
    A. Constant along a meridian of longitude
    B. Constant along a parallel of latitude
    C. Constant over the whole chart
    D. Varies with latitude and longitude

Answer 113

B. Constant along a parallel of latitude

Question 114

40. The most common specific cause of pilot induced accidents is?

A. Airspeed not maintained
B. Loss of directional control
C. Poor pre-flight planning
D. Not maintaining ground clearance

Answer 114

C. Poor pre-flight planning

Question 115

41. Up to what altitude will generally healthy people be able to stay without showing any signs of
    suffering hypoxia?

A. Up to 18000 ft
B. Up to 10-12000 ft
C. Up to 21000 ft
D. Up to 3000 ft

Answer 115

B. Up to 10-12000 ft

Question 116

42. Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of tropopause will?

A. decreases and its temperature decreases
B. decreases and its temperature increases
C. increases and its temperature increases
D. increases and its temperature decreases

Answer 116

B. decreases and its temperature increases

Question 116

43. The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are in the order of?

A. 10 km 5-20 minutes
B. 4 km 1-5 minutes
C. 4 nm 1-5 minutes
D. 400 m 10-15 minutes

Answer 116

4 km 1-5 minutes

Question 117

44. If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:

A. True track
B. Rhumb line track
C. Great circle track
D. Magnetic track

Answer 117

C. Great circle track

Question 118

45. If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following is
    correct?

A. The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take-off distance
B. The take-off is not permitted
C. The VMCG will be lowered to V1
D. The one engine out take-off distance will become greater than the ASDR

Answer 118

B. The take-off is not permitted

Question 119

49. As the CG moves, recovery from a stall:

A. is more difficult with the CG moving forward
B. is less difficult with the CG moving aft
C. is more difficult with the CG moving aft
D. is unaffected by CG position, only by all up weight (AUW)

Answer 119

C. is more difficult with the CG moving aft

Question 119

46. If a pitot source is blocked in an ASI, and the drain hole is blocked, but the static source is open,
    what will happen?

A. ASI will behave like an altimeter
B. ASI will overread
C. ASI will read zero
D. ASI will underread

Answer 119

A. ASI will behave like an altimeter

Question 120

47. The transponder code for unlawful interference is?

A. 7700
B. 7200
C. 7500
D. 7600

Answer 120

C. 7500

Question 120

48. Airplanes certified to CS-25 must not operate across areas where S&R would be especially
    difficult, without survival equipment if it flies to a distance corresponding to greater than:

A. 120 minutes at cruising speed from an area suitable for making an emergency landing
B. 30 minutes at cruising speed from an area suitable for making an emergency landing
C. 90 minutes at cruising speed from an area suitable for making an emergency landing
D. 60 minutes at cruising speed from an area suitable for making an emergency landing

Answer 120

D. 60 minutes at cruising speed from an area suitable for making an emergency landing

Question 121

50. The lowest visibility at EGGW will probably be:

EGGW 1212 10013KT 1000 -DZ VV004 TEMPO 2400 -RA OVC008
BECMG 1416 03012KT 3200 -RA
OVC010 TEMPO 1620 -RA OVC 005 PROB40 TEMPO 0800 TS VV002 BECMG 1820 4800 SCT008
OVC015 TEMPO 2024 3200 -RA OVC008 PROB40 TEMPO 1200 TS OVC005CB BECMG 0003 SCT025
TEMPO 03071600 BKN006 BECMG 0709 0800 FG VV003

A. Between 1600 and 1800
B. Between 1200 and 1400
C. Between 2000 and 2400
D. Between 07 and 09

Answer 121

D. Between 07 and 09

Question 122

51. The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heating device, upstream of the
    main fuel filter so as to:

A. maintain and improve fuel heating power
B. prevent, at low fuel temperature, the risk of ice formation from water contained in the fuel
C. ease low pressure pumps work by increasing fuel fluidity
D. prevent fuel from freezing in fuel pipes due to low temperatures at high altitude

Answer 122

B. prevent, at low fuel temperature, the risk of ice formation from water contained in the fuel.

Question 122

52. Which situation most frequently give freezing rain over Central and Eastern Europe?

A. Cold front
B. Warm occlusion
C. Warm front
D. Cold occlusion

Answer 122

C. Warm front

Question 123

54. What is a SPECI?

A. An aerodrome forecast issued every 9 hours
B. A warning of meteorological changes at an aerodrome, issued only when required
C. A routine aerodrome weather report issued every 3 hours
D. A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant change of the weather
conditions has been observed

Answer 123

D. A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant change of the weather
conditions has been observed.

Question 123

53. The fuel consumption of an A320 aircraft is 2400 kg/h. If it is fitted with sharklets, fuel
    consumption is reduced by 5%. What is the consumption of an engine (ac fitted with
    sharklets) in 180 minutes?

A. 2160 kg
B. 2280 kg
C. 3420 kg
D. 6840 kg

Answer 123

C. 3420 kg

Question 124

55. A flight crew license holder was admitted to hospital for a duration of two days. What must
    he/she do before flying as a crewmember?

A. Inform the Authority in writing
B. Only hospitalisations of 8 days or more are required to be notified to the AME
C. Seek advice of the Authority or Aeromedical Examiner (AME)
D. The pilot can resume to their normal duties once released by their doctor in charge at the hospital

Answer 124

C. Seek advice of the Authority or Aeromedical Examiner (AME)

Question 125

57. Concerning the three entries to the hold, the entry has to be flown on:

A. bearing
B. course
C. heading
D. track

Answer 125

C. heading

Question 126

56. An operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a non-precision approach procedure which is
    based upon the use of a VOR is not lower than:

A. 400ft
B. 200ft
C. 330ft
D. 300ft

Answer 126

D. 300ft

Question 127

58.4(x+3)=28 x=? and 1.1x1.1=?

A. x=4, 1.21
B. x=12, 2.2
C. x=16, 1.21
D. x=3, 2.01

Answer 127

A. x=4, 1.21

Question 128

59. Density varies:

A. inversely with pressure and directly with temperature
B. inversely with temperature and pressure
C. directly with temperature and pressure
D. directly with pressure and inversely with temperature.

Answer 128

D. directly with pressure and inversely with temperature.

Question 129

60. For turbo jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled
    destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor:

A. 0,7
B. 0.8
C. 0.5
D. 0.6

Answer 129

D. 0.6