ATPL Technical Question Flashcards
Memorise updated test
1
Q
Most eastern destination ?
A
Mattala or Almaty or Muscat
2
Q
Most northern destination?
A
Tromso (Norway)
3
Q
Wizzair creation date ?
A
September 2003
4
Q
Name of Wizzair CEO ?
A
Jozsef Varadi
5
Q
Sum of the prime numbers between 10 and 20 ?
A
11+13+17+19=60
6
Q
Sum of the prime numbers between 4 and 16 ?
A
5+7+11+13=36
7
Q
2522306/5233=?
A
482
8
Q
Aircraft (twin engines) fuel consumption: 2200kg/h. What would be the engine fuel
consumption if the aircraft is fitted with Sharklets that reduce by 5% the FC?
A
2200 - 5% (110) = 2090/2 = 1045 kg/h
9
Q
You are landing in low visibility and after touching down you only see red and white
centreline lights, how many meters are left?
A
Not more than 900m
10
Q
What are Vmo and Mmo?
A
Vmo = Maximum Operating Speed, Mmo= Maximum Operating Mach number
11
Q
What is FANS?
A
Future Air Navigation System, means to connect pilots and ATC to communicate via datalink
12
Q
ICAO Bird strike report
A
IBIS - is designed to collect and disseminate information on wildlife strikes to aircraft.
13
Q
Path definition error PDE
A
Difference between the defined path and the desired path at a given place and time
14
Q
How does the FMS ETA change with headwind?
A
15
Q
FMS calculated attitude
A
16
Q
Symmetrical aerofoil and its Lift coefficient
A
Angle of attack = 0, No lift produced
17
Q
Pan Pan Call
A
Urgency situation.
18
Q
What is Vs1g?
A
CL max. Lowest speed at which the airplane can maintain 1g in level flight.
19
Q
Engine type on A320ceo
A
IAE V2500
20
Q
Engine type on A320neo
A
P&W 1000G GTF
21
Q
(x-8)(x+4)=0
A
8
22
Q
An aircraft flies 23h on Mo, We, Fri, 19h on Tue, Thu and 22h on Sat, Sun. Maintenance
takes 1h per day. How many hours are spent on the ground by this aircraft?
A
17h
23
Q
What means CEO/NEO?
A
Current Engine Option / New Engine Option
24
Q
How many seats on A321ceo?
A
230
25
How many seats on A320?
180/186 on A320ceo & 186 on A320neo
26
What type of wing produces the less induced drag and during which phase of a flight?
Low wing ACFT during landing
27
What is produced by the coalescence process in the mid-latitudes?
Drizzle or very light rain.
28
Which of the following combinations provides the best visual landmarks for a VFR flight?
1- Large water reservoir, 3- Excessively high mast, 5- High tension power line
29
What is the purpose of ATC clearance?
Authorization by ATC to prevent collision between ACFT and expedite trffic.
30
What are ribs for in a wing?
Gives the wing its cambered shape and they transmit loads from the skin and stringers to the spars.
31
What is the purpose of Baffle check valves?
Prevent movement of fuel towards the wing tip.
32
Registration mark shall be letters, numbers and shall be that assigned by?
The state of registry or common mark registering authority.
33
What type of engine gives less problem in case of critical engine failure?
Counter-clockwise rotating.
34
How increase optimum altitude?
Less weight (Burning fuel)
35
Which index colour of the AIP contains information about ATS facilities?
Yellow
36
2456758/4523= ?
544
37
50cmx50cmx50cm= ? m3
125.000cm3 = 0.125m3
38
In case of SSR transponder failure occurring after departure for IFR flight, the pilot shall?
Inform ATC unit ASAP.
39
7600 code meaning?
Radio failure.
40
A plane has tires with d=3m (π=3.14). What distance (in m) has the tires covered after
turning 18 times?
3.14 x 3 = 9.42 x 18 = 169.56m
41
Km/h conversion to M/min and NM/min
6 Km/h = 100 m/min, 1 Nm/min = 111 Km/h
42
What is ASDA?
Length of TORA + Stopway if provided.
43
What is TODA?
Length of TORA + Clearway if provided.
44
Minimum time separation for a departing Light/Medium behind a Heavy aircraft?
2min minimum (Full length T/O), 3min (Intermediate T/O after a Full length T/O)
45
At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal requesting help, how should the pilot
indicate that he has received these signals?
By flashing his landing lights twice or navigation lights if not equipped with landing lights.
46
What is whiteout effect?
It’s a weather condition that causes disorientation and low visibility by snow, overcast cloud and fog. Pilots
cannot see the visible horizon because of the terrain covered with snow in the white sky.
47
What is the correction factor for landing on a wet runway?
115%
48
How should a station address a general call to all aircraft in its area?
Start with “All stations”
49
In straight flight, as speed is increased, whilst trimming to keep the stick force zero:
The elevator is deflected further downwards and the trim tab further upwards.
50
Last minute extra cargo is being loaded in the aircraft, FWD of the CG. How should the
trim setting adjustment be?
Aft, lowering the leading edge of the stabilizer
51
What is the e effect on the stall speed when the weight is increased?
Stall speed increases.
52
Regarding CG limits, which one the following statements is true?
CG limits from aircraft operator can be more restrictive than the manufacturer’s CG limits.
53
What is TAT?
SAT + Ram rise temperature correction associated with high-speed flight.
54
Why are high latitude flights in Polar regions subject to specific problems with the use of
a gyro magnetic compass?
Because of the magnetic field being stronger, magnetic variation changes rapidly.
55
75% of X = 6054, X= ?
(6054*4)/3 = 8072
56
What is the purpose of Hydraulic Thermal Relief Valves?
To relieve excess pressure cause by temperature rises.
57
Minimum separation between a Light/Medium ACFT and a Heavy ACFT, and between a
Light ACFT and a Medium ACFT when the heavier ACFT is making a low or missed
approach and the lighter is using an opposite direction runway for T/O?
2 min
58
Primary DC system:
59
There are 20 A320 IAE, 10 A321 IAE and 5 A321neo, what percentage has the A321neo of
the whole fleet?
20+10+5 = 35, (5x100)/35 = 14%
60
Which of the following is a prohibited combination in aircraft registration letters?
TTT
Also : PAN , SOS , XXX
61
2x-(1+y)=2y
y is equal to?
1
62
Main factor which contributes to the formation of very low clouds ahead of a warm front?
Saturation of the cold air by rain falling into it and evaporating
63
An aeroplane is scheduled to depart from a high-altitude airport in the tropics at 1400LT.
Which of the following is most likely to be the limiting factor(s) in determining the TOM?
Altitude and temperature of the departure airfield.
64
The Cost Index is determined by dividing the:
Aircraft operating cost / Fuel cost
65
What is mean by the term “Fading”?
The interference of the ground and sky wave
66
After flying for 16min at 100kts TAS with a 20kt tail wind, you have to return to the airfield.
You will arrive after:
24min
67
A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of 325° and 5min later on a relative
bearing of 280°. ACFT heading was 165°M, variation 25°W, Drift 10° Right and GS 360kts.
When the RB was 280°, the distance and true bearing of the ACFT from the feature was:
30NM and 240°
68
RNP APP GNSS with APV can be?
RNAV
69
How many seats on A321ceo?
230
70
150cmx50cmx50cm= ? cm3
375 000 cm3
71
Complete this sentence (i cant remember the exact wording but rougly was this ) : A plane
diclared distress message on the frequency that take priority over all message, it is a ?
MAYDAY/PANPAN, ATC instructs all stations to standby, it means they have to ?
72
Runway EDGE lights colours
white
73
1.1 x 1.1 = ?
1.21
74
A question that I cant really remember but basically was the definition of AIRAC so AIRAC was
the answer.
75
Definition of Wet Runway ?
a runway whose surface is covered by dampness or water up to and including 3 mm deep.
76
Coefficient to apply in case of Wet Runway ?
115%
77
Definition of NEO ?
New Engine Option
78
Questions about gyros (can’t remember it) answers were Real wander, apparent wander, Earth
rotation, x.
79
Crossing INTL date line from West to East, you : Loose 12/Add 12h/Loose 1 day/Add 1 day ?
Lose a Day
79
Add here
Percentage diameter Questions and Fuel Policy from other document juliana sent
80
How many seats on A321neo?
239
81
Mountain effect affects? The phenomena is?
NDBs, Reflection
82
1.What is the runway length remaining when the RWY centreline lights turns solid red?
A.1000 ft (305m)
B.900 ft (275m)
C.1200 ft(366m)
D.2000 ft(600m)
A.1000 ft (305m)
83
2.What is a rate 1 turn?
A.Rate 1 isa 3 degree per second or 180 degree per minute turn
B.Rate 1 isa 6 degree per second or 360 degree per minute turn
C.Rate 1 isa 9 degree per second or 540 degree per minute turn
D.Rate 1 is a 25-degree angle of bank turn a commercial air transport category aircraft
A.Rate 1 is a 3 degree per second or 180 degree per minute turn
84
3.A runway is considered contaminated above what percetage coverage?
A.50%
B.75%
C.25%
D.10%
C. 25%
85
4.An aircraft is climbing at a constant Mach number. How will the TAS change?
A.The TAS will increase
B.The TAS will remain constant
C.The TAS will decrease
D.There is no direct relationship between TAS and Mach number
C.The TAS will decrease
85
5.What is the effect of aft C.G.on range?
A.Change of the C.G.does't have any effect on the range
B.An aft C.G.increases the range
C.An aft C.G.decreases the range
D.Moving the C.G.to the foremost point on the envelope will result in best range
B.An aft C.G.increases the range
86
6. A trough of low pressure is generally associated with?
A. Subsidence causing decreased cloud and precipitation
B. Subsidence causing increased cloud and precipitation
C. Divergence causing increased cloud and precipitation
D. Convergence causing increased cloud and precipitation
D. Convergence causing increased cloud and precipitation
87
9. What is the effect of flap extension on Vx and Vy?
A. Vx decreases and Vy increases.
B. Vx increases and Vy decreases.
C. Vx decreases and Vy decreases.
D. Vx increases and Vy increases.
C. Vx decreases and Vy decreases.
87
8. What is the Mach number?
A. CAS divided by the local speed of sound
B. Local speed of sound on the wings compared to the local speed of still air at altitude
C. True Airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of sound
D. True Airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of sound at mean sea level
C. True Airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of sound
88
7. What are the different ways of transferring heat energy into the atmosphere?
A. Adiabatically
B. Sun energy and Earth magma
C. Radiation, conduction and convection
D. Anabatic and katabatic ways
C. Radiation, conduction and convection
89
12. In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an Easterly direction, the
magnetic compass will indicate:
A. An apparent turn to the North
B. An apparent turn to the South
C. Stay on Easterly heading
A. An apparent turn to the North
90
10. The absolute ceiling is defined as?
A. The altitude where a certain maximum rate of climb (e.g., 100 ft/min) is attained
B. The altitude at which the aircraft operates with a 0.7g buffet boundary
C. The altitude where the maximum rate of climb is 0 ft/min
D. The altitude where the rate of climb is maximum
C. The altitude where the maximum rate of climb is 0 ft/min
91
11. What is the Aerodrome QNH?
A. Aerodrome pressure converted to main sea level assuming ISA conditions between the aerodrome
and the sea level
B. Atmospheric pressure at the aerodrome level
C. Lowest value of QNH forecast to occur in the region of the aerodrome during a period of one hour.
D. QFE converted to mean sea level assuming constant temperature conditions between the
aerodrome and sea level
A. Aerodrome pressure converted to main sea level assuming ISA conditions between the aerodrome
and the sea level
92
13. What type of Autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single
failure below alert height?
A. Fail Passive
B. Fail Operational or Fail Active
C. Fail Soft
D. Land 2 system
B. Fail Operational or Fail Active
92
14. What does Vortex Generators do?
A. Makes airflow turbulent for more energy
B. If switched on, makes airflow more silent for NADP procedures
C. Transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer.
D. Delaying the airflow separation from the wing by giving more drag
C. Transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer.
93
15. A public transport aircraft is intended to be operated at FL 390. The total number of oxygen
masks (dispensing units and outlets) in the cabin must be at least the same as the total number of?
A. Seats
B. Passengers
C. Seats exceeded by 10%
D. Passengers exceeded by 10%.
C. Seats exceeded by 10%
94
16. An aircraft flies 23 hours a day on Monday, Wednesday and Friday. 19 hours a day on
Tuesday and Thursday and 22 hours a day on Saturday and Sunday. Maintenance takes 1
hour per day. How many hours are spent on the ground by this aircraft over a four-week-
period?
A. 36 hours
B. 60 hours
C. 68 hours
D. 76 hours
C. 68 hours
95
17. A jet powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have:
A. Higher range, due to flying at higher altitude, where the engines are more efficient
B. Reduced range
C. Lower fuel flow, due to higher N1 and N2
B. Reduced range
96
19. From which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type oxygen mask for the flight
crew in a pressurized aircraft?
A. FL 100
B. FL 300
C. FL 250
D. FL290
C. FL 250
96
20. Is there a critical engine on a jet engine powered aircraft?
A. Yes, the critical engine is the upwind engine
B. Yes, the critical engine is the downwind engine
C. No
A. Yes, the critical engine is the upwind engine
96
18. The Bourdon tube is used to measure?
A. Vibrations
B. Fuel Flow
C. Pressure
D. Temperature
C. Pressure
97
21. Seasons are due to the?
A. Earth's rotation on its polar axis
B. Inclination of the polar axis with the ecliptic plane
C. Earth's elliptical orbit around the Sun
D. Variable distance between Earth and Sun
B. Inclination of the polar axis with the ecliptic plane
98
23. Which of the following combinations will most likely cause the greatest increase in the take-off
distance?
A. Tailwind, Upslope, High temperature
B. Tailwind, Downslope, High temperature
C. Wet runway, Low temperature,
D. Headwind, Upslope, Low temperature
A. Tailwind, Upslope, High temperature
98
22. A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still parked. The
reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is?
A. Quick Reference Handbook (QRH)
B. Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
C. Operations Manual part A (OMA)
D. Aircraft Maintenance Manual (AMM)
B. Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
99
24. The MMEL (Master Minimum Equipment List) is prepared by?
A. The operator's maintenance provider
B. The manufacturer and approved by the certification authority
C. The operator's competent authority
D. BY EASA
B. The manufacturer and approved by the certification authority+
100
25. The MEL is drawn up by?
A. The operator
B. The CAA where the AOC is registered
C. The manufacturer
D. The maintenance provider
A. The operator
101
27. LRBS 1212Z 09012KT 1200 BKN003 PROB40 SHRA BECMG 2122 14015KT 4800 BKN006 OVC020
PROB40 1600 -RA BECMG 0203 2400 -RA OVC008 TEMPO 0312 0800
For landing at LRBS at 2130 UTC the wind and weather could be:
A. 140/15, light rain
B. 090/12, showers of rain, visibility 1200m
C. RVR 800 meters
D. Visibility 2400m, light rain
A. 140/15, light rain
102
26. Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of?
A. Small super-cooled droplets striking the aircraft.
B. Water vapor turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface
C. Freezing rain striking the aircraft
D. Droplets forming on the aircraft and then freezing
B. Water vapor turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface
103
28. Under icing conditions, if you exceeded the holdover time, the correct procedure is?
A. After receiving the line-up clearance for the take-off, the exceedance can be disregarded
B. With switching on the icing systems of the aircraft the flight can be continued
C. De-ice again the aircraft and apply anti-icing fluid
D. Repeat the anti-icing again
C. De-ice again the aircraft and apply anti-icing fluid
104
29. The term CAVOK is used when the following conditions occur simultaneously: visibility equal to or
greater than 10km, no clouds below 5000 feet and no significant weather phenomena is present and
wind speed is less than 10 knots.
A. False
B. True
A. False
Wind <10Kts isn't part of the conditions.
105
30. Why do jet aircraft climb to their optimum altitude?
A. They climb to their optimum altitude because jet engines are most efficient when their
compressors are operating at high rpms, approximately 90 to 95 percent
B. Optimum altitudes result in high engine rpm speeds that result in the engine's optimal gas flow
condition that achieves its best specific fuel consumption (SFC)
C. Minimum cruise airframe drag can only be achieved at high altitudes where EAS is decreased i.e.,
drag decreased
D. A, B and C are all correct
**D**. A, B and C are all correct
106
32. What is the Decision Point Procedure?
A. After missed approach, reaching the point for the minimum fuel required, making the procedure
to the alternate airport
B. Reaching the Point in the Giulio's Mental Model where the decisions must be made for starting a
new procedure
C. Reducing the contingency fuel to only that required from decision point to destination
D. To make a decision on the suitable alternate airport after a certain point on the route
C. Reducing the contingency fuel to only that required from decision point to destination
106
31. What is engine pressure ratio (EPR)?
A. EPR is the pressure ratio between N1 and N2
B. EPR is the ratio of pressure measurements taken from two or three different engine probes and
displayed in the cockpit to use as a parameter for setting engine thrust. EPR is a secondary engine
thrust instrument.
C. EPR is the ratio of pressure measurements taken from two or three different engine probes and
displayed in the cockpit to use as a parameter for setting engine thrust. EPR is a primary engine
thrust instrument.
D. EPR is the pressure relationship between the engines on the airplane and is used to attain precise
symmetric thrust for optimum performance.
C. EPR is the ratio of pressure measurements taken from two or three different engine probes and
displayed in the cockpit to use as a parameter for setting engine thrust. EPR is a primary engine
thrust instrument.
107
33. During a two-step de-icing/anti-icing procedure, the hold over time (HOT) starts at which step?
A. At the end of the de-icing/anti-icing procedure
B. At the end of the whole de-icing/anti-icing procedure
C. At the beginning of the second step procedure
D. At the end of the anti-icing procedure
C. At the beginning of the second step procedure
108
34. The accumulation of ice on an aircraft in flight includes an increase in the?
A. Drag, weight and lift
B. Stalling speed
C. Speed to keep altitude with the same thrust
B. Stalling speed
109
35. In a colder than standard atmosphere, the pressure altimeter will:
A. Underread
B. Altimeters are unaffected by temperature deviations therefore the altimeter reading will be
correct
C. Overread
C. Overread
110
36. Which motions interact in a Dutch roll?
A. Only pitch and roll
B. Yawing is a parasite movement of the interact between the pitch and roll movements
C. Rolling and yawing
D. Pitch, roll and yaw
C. Rolling and yawing
111
37. A series of red flashes for an aircraft on the ground means?
A. Return to starting point on the aerodrome
B. Stop
C. Taxi clear of the landing area in use
D. Aerodrome unsafe, do not land
C. Taxi clear of the landing area in use
112
38. Linear acceleration, causing somatogravic illusion, can give a false impression of?
A. Turn
B. Spin
C. Climb
D. Descent
C. Climb
113
39. Map Scale on Lamberts conformal chart is:
A. Constant along a meridian of longitude
B. Constant along a parallel of latitude
C. Constant over the whole chart
D. Varies with latitude and longitude
B. Constant along a parallel of latitude
114
40. The most common specific cause of pilot induced accidents is?
A. Airspeed not maintained
B. Loss of directional control
C. Poor pre-flight planning
D. Not maintaining ground clearance
C. Poor pre-flight planning
115
41. Up to what altitude will generally healthy people be able to stay without showing any signs of
suffering hypoxia?
A. Up to 18000 ft
B. Up to 10-12000 ft
C. Up to 21000 ft
D. Up to 3000 ft
B. Up to 10-12000 ft
116
42. Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of tropopause will?
A. decreases and its temperature decreases
B. decreases and its temperature increases
C. increases and its temperature increases
D. increases and its temperature decreases
B. decreases and its temperature increases
116
43. The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are in the order of?
A. 10 km 5-20 minutes
B. 4 km 1-5 minutes
C. 4 nm 1-5 minutes
D. 400 m 10-15 minutes
4 km 1-5 minutes
117
44. If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:
A. True track
B. Rhumb line track
C. Great circle track
D. Magnetic track
C. Great circle track
118
45. If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than VMCG, which of the following is
correct?
A. The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take-off distance
B. The take-off is not permitted
C. The VMCG will be lowered to V1
D. The one engine out take-off distance will become greater than the ASDR
B. The take-off is not permitted
119
49. As the CG moves, recovery from a stall:
A. is more difficult with the CG moving forward
B. is less difficult with the CG moving aft
C. is more difficult with the CG moving aft
D. is unaffected by CG position, only by all up weight (AUW)
C. is more difficult with the CG moving aft
119
46. If a pitot source is blocked in an ASI, and the drain hole is blocked, but the static source is open,
what will happen?
A. ASI will behave like an altimeter
B. ASI will overread
C. ASI will read zero
D. ASI will underread
A. ASI will behave like an altimeter
120
47. The transponder code for unlawful interference is?
A. 7700
B. 7200
C. 7500
D. 7600
C. 7500
120
48. Airplanes certified to CS-25 must not operate across areas where S&R would be especially
difficult, without survival equipment if it flies to a distance corresponding to greater than:
A. 120 minutes at cruising speed from an area suitable for making an emergency landing
B. 30 minutes at cruising speed from an area suitable for making an emergency landing
C. 90 minutes at cruising speed from an area suitable for making an emergency landing
D. 60 minutes at cruising speed from an area suitable for making an emergency landing
D. 60 minutes at cruising speed from an area suitable for making an emergency landing
121
50. The lowest visibility at EGGW will probably be:
EGGW 1212 10013KT 1000 -DZ VV004 TEMPO 2400 -RA OVC008
BECMG 1416 03012KT 3200 -RA
OVC010 TEMPO 1620 -RA OVC 005 PROB40 TEMPO 0800 TS VV002 BECMG 1820 4800 SCT008
OVC015 TEMPO 2024 3200 -RA OVC008 PROB40 TEMPO 1200 TS OVC005CB BECMG 0003 SCT025
TEMPO 03071600 BKN006 BECMG 0709 0800 FG VV003
A. Between 1600 and 1800
B. Between 1200 and 1400
C. Between 2000 and 2400
D. Between 07 and 09
D. Between 07 and 09
122
51. The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heating device, upstream of the
main fuel filter so as to:
A. maintain and improve fuel heating power
B. prevent, at low fuel temperature, the risk of ice formation from water contained in the fuel
C. ease low pressure pumps work by increasing fuel fluidity
D. prevent fuel from freezing in fuel pipes due to low temperatures at high altitude
B. prevent, at low fuel temperature, the risk of ice formation from water contained in the fuel.
122
52. Which situation most frequently give freezing rain over Central and Eastern Europe?
A. Cold front
B. Warm occlusion
C. Warm front
D. Cold occlusion
C. Warm front
123
54. What is a SPECI?
A. An aerodrome forecast issued every 9 hours
B. A warning of meteorological changes at an aerodrome, issued only when required
C. A routine aerodrome weather report issued every 3 hours
D. A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant change of the weather
conditions has been observed
D. A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant change of the weather
conditions has been observed.
123
53. The fuel consumption of an A320 aircraft is 2400 kg/h. If it is fitted with sharklets, fuel
consumption is reduced by 5%. What is the consumption of an engine (ac fitted with
sharklets) in 180 minutes?
A. 2160 kg
B. 2280 kg
C. 3420 kg
D. 6840 kg
C. 3420 kg
124
55. A flight crew license holder was admitted to hospital for a duration of two days. What must
he/she do before flying as a crewmember?
A. Inform the Authority in writing
B. Only hospitalisations of 8 days or more are required to be notified to the AME
C. Seek advice of the Authority or Aeromedical Examiner (AME)
D. The pilot can resume to their normal duties once released by their doctor in charge at the hospital
C. Seek advice of the Authority or Aeromedical Examiner (AME)
125
57. Concerning the three entries to the hold, the entry has to be flown on:
A. bearing
B. course
C. heading
D. track
C. heading
126
56. An operator must ensure that the lowest MDH for a non-precision approach procedure which is
based upon the use of a VOR is not lower than:
A. 400ft
B. 200ft
C. 330ft
D. 300ft
D. 300ft
127
58.**4(x+3)=28 x=? and 1.1x1.1=?**
A. x=4, 1.21
B. x=12, 2.2
C. x=16, 1.21
D. x=3, 2.01
A. x=4, 1.21
128
59. Density varies:
A. inversely with pressure and directly with temperature
B. inversely with temperature and pressure
C. directly with temperature and pressure
D. directly with pressure and inversely with temperature.
D. directly with pressure and inversely with temperature.
129
60. For turbo jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled
destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor:
A. 0,7
B. 0.8
C. 0.5
D. 0.6
D. 0.6
