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ATPL Systems and Aerodynamics Questions Flashcards

ATPL Systems and Aerodynamics study

1
Q
  1. What area in the engine does not normally need anti-ice proctection?
A
  1. First stage of the compressor.

Anti-icing is typically not needed for the compressor blades since the h

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2
Q
  1. Which part of the engine produces the most dominant noise?
A
  1. fan and Turbine

Anti-icing is typically not needed for the compressor blades since the h

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3
Q
  1. What is the best fuel to air ratio?
A
  1. 1:15
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4
Q
  1. In a free turbine type engine (turbo prop) the free power turbine?
A
  1. Not connected to any other turbine shaft.

The Free turbine has its own shaft / spool connected to a reduction gear

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5
Q
  1. In flight engine bleed air for anti-icing to the wing leading edges in known icing conditions is?
A
  1. Used continuously.
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6
Q
  1. An aircraft with a TAS of 300 kts has a fuel burn of 3000kg/hr. The specific AIR RANGE as a ratio of distance travelled per tonne of fuel would be most correctly expressed as a ratio of?
A
  1. 100nm/Tonne

SAR = TAS / FF = 300 / 3000 = 0.1nm/kg x 1000kg/1 ton = 100nm/1000kg

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7
Q
  1. Reverse thrust is most useful on large transport turnbine aircraft and at?
A
  1. At high forward speed in the landing roll.

Reverse thrust is always deployed at the beginning of the landing roll w

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8
Q
  1. Regarding the specific gravity of jet fuel..?
A
  1. Calorific value does not effect SG.

SG varies with temperature for AVTUR (Jet Fuel) but not with Calorific (

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9
Q
  1. An advantage of an axial compressor in a gas turbine engine is?
A
  1. Axial Thrust.

Axial compressors provide a bigger pressure ruse and consumes more air.

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10
Q
  1. Reverse Thrust during the landing roll on a transport jet is most effective at:
A
  1. High Speed, High RPM.

If thrust reverse is used at low speed, hot or turbulent air can enter t

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11
Q
  1. In order to avoid aeration of the fuel lines in a jet transport aircraft, the fuel system incorporates what?
A
  1. Boost Pumps.

Boost Pumps prevent bubble accumulation by providing positive pressure d

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12
Q
  1. The RPM of a GAS turbine APU in a large jet transport aircraft is controlled by?
A
  1. Fuel (Governor) FCU.

The fuel generator provides constant speed for the APU.

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13
Q
  1. The angle of attack of compressor blades in a gas turbine engine depends primarily on?
A
  1. TAS, RPM and Compressor outles pressure.
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14
Q
  1. The correct procedure to follow in the event of a hot start to prevent torching in a gas turbine engine is to?
A
  1. Motor the engine with the fuel supply cut OFF.

Motoring the engine allows the engine to continuously rotate the turbine

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15
Q
  1. The thrust output of a turbojet powered aircraft is greatest?
A
  1. On the brakes on the runway at full thrust.

As forward speed increases, thrust decreases until the RAM RECOVERY poin

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16
Q
  1. In a large transport category aircraft, fuel moving around in the tanks can cause uncommanded attitude changes after pitching or rolling maneuvres. This is prevented by?
A
  1. Baffles in the fuel tanks.

Baffles are dividing partitions that limit the movement of fuel in the t

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17
Q
  1. The main reason for the combustion of fuel in a gas turbine engine is?
A
  1. To raise gas velocity.

Thrust can only be increased by either increases the ,ass of the air or

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18
Q
  1. Regarding the function of the reverse thrust system on a high bypass turbo fan engine?
A
  1. Blocker doors are used to divert the cold stream.

On turbofan engines, the reverse thrust is on the cold by-pass air only. Cold stream reversers often use blocker doors in the by-pass ducts to redirect air out through cascade vanes in the engine cowling.

Hot stream thrust reversers often use the clamshell design or bucket targets in which two doors swing into position to deflect the hot exhaust stream in a forwards direction.

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19
Q
  1. The purpose of air shroud on an atomizer type (duplex) fuel spray nozzle in the combustion chamber of a gas turbine engine is?
A
  1. To reduce carbon deposits around the nozzle tip and the nozzle.

Shrouds are just openings around the nozzle.

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20
Q

The function of variable inlet guide vanes in a gas turbine engine is?

A
  1. To prevent compressor blade stall when the engine is operating at low RPM.

These are located after the rotating compressor blades and adjusts the airflow to the correct angle of attack,

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21
Q
  1. EPR (engine presure ratio) is the ratio of?
A
  1. Engine Compressor inlet pressure to jet pipe pressure.

EPR is the ratio of the air entering and leaving the engine. Simply the ratio of the inlet and exhaust jet pipe.

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22
Q
  1. In passing through the turbine section of a pure turbojet engine?
A
  1. Gas pressure reduces, velocity increases and temprature decreases

Bernoulli’s principle: In the turbine section we can treat it as a converging duct that causes pressure and temperature to decrease and velocity to increase.

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23
Q
  1. The failure of the bleed vlave to close in a gas turbine engine after start will result in?
A
  1. An EGT rise.

Bleed valves are opened during start to prevent too much air entering the engine which causes stalling or surge. If after start the bleed air is still open, there will be less bypass air being exhausted and only the air from the engine core, which is last, is exhausted

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24
Q
  1. The “Ram Ratio” in a gas turbine engine is defined as the ratio of?
A
  1. Total pressure to static pressure at the air intake.
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25
Q
  1. On a turbojet powered aircraft, the front engine EPR probes are blocked. As the pilot advances the thrust lever to take-off EPR, the EPR gauge will?
A
  1. Over read and the thrust will be less.

Based on EPR reading gauge will think you have a lot of exhaust pressure therefore will over read and indicate more thrust than the actual thrust that is set. Are they static???

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26
Q
  1. If an aircraft generator CSD is disconnected in flight, the correct method for re-connection is?
A
  1. Mechanically on the ground.

CSD completely detaches itself, therefore can only be connected again manually,

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27
Q
  1. The by-pass ratio of a gas turbine engine is?
A
  1. The ratio of By-pass air to core air.

High by-pass means more air passing through the by-pass duct compared to the engine core (turbofan)

Low by-pass means less air is passing through the by-pass duct than the core (turbojet)

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28
Q
  1. Regarding RAM effects influence on thrust output?
A
  1. It results in a total recovery of thrust as aircraft forward speed increases.

Initially thrust decreases as forward speed increases until the ram effect recovers all the thrust again.

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29
Q
  1. For a constant RPM in a gas turbine engine, a decrease in air density will?
A
  1. Decreased fuel flow and decreased thrust.

Air that is less dense means power available for the engine. As air density decreases there is less resistance to the compressor rotating meaning less force required to turn it.

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30
Q
  1. The inlet duct of a jet engine at subsonic speeds is designed to convert?
A
  1. Kinetic energy to pressure energy

Air moving towards the engine (Kinetic) is gradually compressed by the compressor and increases its pressure and velocity.

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31
Q
  1. The two most critical factors in determining the in-flight re-light or restart of a turbojet engine are?
A
  1. Altitude and Airspeed

In order to restart a turbo jet engine the air must be compressed, meaning more pressure, Air speed provides an increase in pressure through ram air. Altitude is inversely proportional to pressure, the higher the altitude, the lower the pressure.

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32
Q
  1. Factors affecting VMCA, An A/C without negative torque sensing, propeller should be?
A
  1. Feathered

By feathering the propeller you reduce drag and prevents the propeller from rotating faster than the gear box (negative torque)

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33
Q
  1. Regarding the diffuser in the engine and its affect on air??
A
  1. Divergent duct, converts kinetic to pressure.

Diffusers are located after that last the compressor and serves as a divergent duct, increasing pressure.

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34
Q
  1. What makes the Propeller Feathered when the engine fails?
A
  1. TSS (Thrust Sensitive Signal) or auto feather system

This is a safety feature that automatically feathers the propeller during engine failure on take-off.

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35
Q
  1. What is a hung start characterized by?
A
  1. Low RPM and High EGT

Hung start occurs when during engine start, RPM fails to teach the normal or self-sustaining RPM. This might lead to an EGT Rise as well as causing a Hot Start. (revise starting issues)

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36
Q
  1. Factors affecting thrust
A
  1. Temperature

Aircraft thrust and performance are affected by RPM, Density, Altitude and Temperature.

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37
Q
  1. Where is the highest pressure found in a turbojet engine?
A
  1. Impeller to diffuser

The highest pressure is found at the final stages of the compressor right before the combustion chamber.

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38
Q
  1. What is the advantage of annular combustion chamber
A
  1. Better and efficient pressure and flame Propagation. Compact but not structural.
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39
Q
  1. Where is the highest velocity found in a gas turbine engine?
A
  1. exhaust area. nozzle

Propeller nozzles are used in high speed aircraft to further increase the velocity of the air.

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40
Q
  1. What is the purpose of combustion?
A
  1. Increase velocity and temperature

Combustion in a Gas Turbine Engine occurs in constant pressure and increases temperature and velocity.

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41
Q
  1. What is the importance of constant fuel flow to the combustion chamber?
A
  1. To prevent flame out
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41
Q
  1. Compared to turbojets, turbo fans have
A
  1. Lower thrust for a given mass of air
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42
Q
  1. How does the starter motor disengage from the engine
A
  1. The starter motor is automatically disengaged via the clutch once the engine reaches a self-sustaining speed.
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43
Q
  1. Which of the following occurs when you are already in a self-sustaining state?
A
  1. When the engine could accelerate without the assistance of the starter motor

Self-sustaining state is when 35-50% of the engine is accelerated without the assistance of the starter motor.

At 55-60% idle RPM, engine is in stabilized idle.

Stater motor turns the turbine

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44
Q
  1. You are taking off from a short runway at max take-off weight, the position of the bleed valves should be?
A
  1. OFF, to increase mass air flow

Operation of bleed valves reduces the performance of the engine as it uses some of the air that should have been part of the thrust produced.

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45
Q
  1. What is the effect of temperature rise on SG?
A
  1. Decreases

A higher temperature yields a lower SG.

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46
Q
  1. What happens to jet engine thrust when humidity increases?
A
  1. Slightly decrease

As humidity increases, there are less oxygen molecules to burn as it is less dense than dry air. A/C engines are built for cold and dry air.

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47
Q
  1. What is the most common ice protection used on modern turboprops? (props?)
A
  1. Thermal Electric
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48
Q
  1. What leads airflow to the turbine?
A
  1. Nozzle guide vanes

They direct air coming from the combustion chamber, whilst at the same time converting pressure to kinetic energy and increasing the air’s velocity.

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49
Q
  1. In heavy rain during takeoff, the combustion in a gas turbine engine will be?
A
  1. Low energy, high output
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50
Q
  1. What does NTS do?
A
  1. Increase blade angle when there is a sign of plant negative torque

Negative Torque Sensing System sends a signal to increase the blade angle whenever negative torque is going out of limit. A separate coupling serves as a back-up to the NTS when it disengages from the gear box from the engine, when negative torque exceeds a preset value.

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51
Q
  1. Which part of the APU is bled to start the engine?
A
  1. Exhaust
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52
Q
  1. Why is AVTUR safer when there is a spillage?
A
  1. High Flashpoint
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53
Q
  1. Which will give you less thrust on take-off?
A
  1. High density altitude

High density altitude implies a high ISA DEV which assumes from a higher OAT than standard ISA TEMP.

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54
Q
  1. Maximum L/D is X. If you want to climb at max angle of climb, what speed should you fly at?
A

X

The minimum drag speed = Best L/D Ratio, Max glide range, minimum fuel flow per hour or best endurance, max excess thrust or max angle of climb.

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55
Q
  1. You are flying “straight and level” and you want to achieve maximum range. You should fly at the minimum
A
  1. Drag/TAS

At a constant altitude, max range is achieved by flying at an AOA that yields min fuel per mile or best TAS/Drag Ratio.

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56
Q
  1. A Yaw Damper prevents
A
  1. Lateral static stability

Static lateral stability is the tendency of the down going wing to return back to its level condition by rolling to the opposite direction.

Dutch roll is characterized by strong lateral stability which is prevented with the use of a yaw damper.

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57
Q
  1. Subsonic flow through a divergent duct will experience
A
  1. Constant density, increase in pressure and a decrease in velocity

In subsonic flow of air through a divergent duct, density is constant, pressure increases and velocity decreases.

In supersonic flow, density decreases, pressure decreases and velocity increases.

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58
Q
  1. If the angle of attack is increased on a swept wing compared to an un-swept wing of similar area and aspect ratio the swept wing will produce?
A
  1. Less lift and more drag

Due to induced drag from span wise flow (tip vortices)

With the same amount of AOA, the lift is lesser for the swept wing.

As AOA increases, drag increases (induced drag)

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59
Q
  1. In comparison to an un-swept wing, a swept wing will have?
A
  1. Lower max CL at subsonic and transonic speeds
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60
Q
  1. In supersonic airflow, static pressure behind an expansion wave will
A
  1. Decrease relative to the pressure ahead of the wave

Air behind the expansion wave increases in velocity, therefore causing a decrease in the pressure behind the wave.

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61
Q
  1. In steady asymmetric flight in a twin-engine jet transport category aircraft, the crew elect to level the wings. The position of the balance ball in this situation will be?
A
  1. centered

Wings level method in asymmetric flight rudder only

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62
Q
  1. An increase in gross weight will cause the position of the total drag to move
A
  1. Up and right

As weight increases, drag increases as more thrust is required. With this, speed increases as well. Thus drag moves up and to the right.

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63
Q
  1. The deployment of spoilers will cause the position of the total drag curve to move
A
  1. up and left

Spoilers are used to destroy lift causing more drag, which increases the weight therefore decreases the speed.

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64
Q
  1. The extension of the landing gear will cause the position of the total drag curve to move
A
  1. Up and left

The landing gear is a large source of drag and thus there is a speed reduction required, decreasing the drag speed but increases the total drag.

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65
Q
  1. A B767 is in cruise with the stabilizer trim set correctly for a relatively forward CoG, the position of the elevator would be?
A
  1. Faired

The stabilizer trim moves, while the elevator moves opposite to it. Thus a Forward CoG moves the trim to an upward position to compensate for the nose down motion, while the elevator will move opposite.

As it is set correctly, elevator is now here.

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66
Q
  1. Concerning the characteristics of the airflow behind a normal shockwave?
A
  1. Pressure and temperature increase

Airflow behind a shockwave becomes subsonic causing a decrease in velocity, therefore giving a rise in pressure and temperature. Just as in a converging duct.

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67
Q
  1. A variable incidence tail plane with stabilizer trim as an alternative to a conventional elevator with trim
A
  1. Can produce excessively high control forces if out of trim

The stabilizer itself is a larger control surface than the elevator so flight maneuvers will produced great control force when out of trim.

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68
Q
  1. Regarding forces acting on an aircraft in a steady climb
A
  1. Lift is less than weight and thrust is greater than drag
69
Q
  1. When the right engine fails, what happens to the balance ball if 5 to live is applied?
A
  1. Slightly left

5 to the live engine in asymmetric flight aims to bank the aircraft 5 degrees to the live engine with the ball about halfway to the left when the right engine fails

70
Q
  1. The ZFW limitation is to limit:
A
  1. Wing structure limits in the air???
  2. Wing structure limits on ground???

Which answer is it?

ZFW limitations are imposed to prevent over stressing of the wings and the wing struts on the ground during refueling and loading of the passengers.

71
Q
  1. Thrust on climb is:
A
  1. Total Drag + Weight Component

Thrust must be supplied to oppose both drag and the weight component

72
Q
  1. Yaw damper aids or improves
A
  1. Longitudinal instability
73
Q
  1. Slats are effective at
A
  1. High AOA.
74
Q
  1. From stall speed, you increase power, induced drag will?
A
  1. Decrease
75
Q
  1. What is the effect of leading edge slats in the landing approach
A
  1. Increase lift coefficient through chordwise flow

Slats create a slat in the leading edge of the wing, energizing the boundary layer and increasing lift. Its movement is leading edge to trailing edge, thus chordwise flow.

76
Q
  1. The left engine is the critical engine, the most adverse is?
A
  1. Right engine, thrust arm

If left engine is critical, the right engine produces the most adverse yaw as it has a longer arm of thrust line from the aircraft CoG.

77
Q
  1. The Aircraft is slightly above the stall speed, if the speed increases, what will happen to induced drag
A

Decrease

Induced drag decreases as speed increases.

78
Q
  1. In an expansion wave, what happens to the static pressure?
A

Decrease

In an expansion wave, air flow in front has a higher pressure because the velocity is lower. Behind the expansion wave, air velocity increases causing a decrease in static pressure.

79
Q
  1. What happens to the coefficient of drag as airspeed increases from below Mach 1.0?
A
  1. Increase then Decrease???????

As the Aircraft passes Mach 1.0, it eventually transitions from the transonic range to the supersonic range, Where there airflow is all supersonic and no shockwave interrupting the boundary layer.

Therefore increasing lift and decreasing drag.

80
Q
  1. What factors directly affect VMCG?
A
  1. Landing Gear contact with the runway

VMCG is affected by the landing gear contact with the runway as it helps resist the yawing movement of the aircraft towards the engine inop

81
Q
  1. MCDR and MCRIT, what happens with sweepback?
A
  1. Both increase
82
Q
  1. You are in a steady climb of 1000fpm, you increase the angle to 8000fpm, what happens to the lift component?
A
  1. Decrease

As you increase the angle of attack, speed decreases and as speed decreases, the lift decreases as well.

83
Q
  1. You are cruising at speed X, EAS for maximum range. What is the speed when you climb and target to fly maximum range?
A
  1. Faster than X

Flying at a constant EAS and trying to

84
Q
  1. CL of a swept wing with a comparable area and aspect ratio
A
  1. Less throughout subsonic and supersonic speeds

CL for a swept wing is less than that of a straight wing.

85
Q
  1. An aircraft is cruising higher than normal and at normal cruising speed and experiences buffeting, this buffeting could be?
A
  1. Either low speed or high speed buffet and difficult to identify
86
Q
  1. Left engine is the Critical engine, which statement is correct?
A
  1. Left engine fails, greater arm

The critical engine has a shorter arm of thrust line to the CoG than the other engine.

87
Q
  1. Flying at speed X, which is the Max L/D. What speed will you fly for max endurance?
A
  1. Same as X

Max L/D = Minimum drag and minimum drag produces the least fuel flow required to stay longer in the air, resulting in max endurance.

Thus you are already flying at max endurance.

88
Q
  1. Where are vortex generators placed, if any at all to minimize high speed drag separation?
A
  1. Above the wing

Vortex generators are there to produce turbulent airflow that energizes the boundary layer of the air on top of the wing to delay the separation point.

89
Q
  1. On a large jet transport aircraft, the leading edge devices cannot be deployed. The aircraft should approach at?
A
  1. Higher than normal speed and Lower AOA.

Leading edge devices such as slats causes an increase in lift, resulting in a higher AOA and also increase drag which lowers the speed.

If the slats are inoperative, the aircraft must approach at a lower AOA and a higher than normal speed to maintain safe lift generation.

90
Q
  1. If TCAS is inhibited when an RA Advisory Traffic is detected. The RA symbol is displayed as?
A

As TA

When TCAS is deactivated temporarily, traffic appears as a TA and TA still appears as a TA but also has an aural warning.

91
Q
  1. During autopilot operation of ALT HOLD you lose connection with the bus bar something. Where would the aircraft ger information from to maintain altitude?
A
  1. Autopilot Aneroid
92
Q
  1. During TCAS Operations in TA only mode, RA’s are?
A

Shown as TA’s

When in TA only mode, RA’s are displays as this in order to avoid too much RA’s, specifically when intentionally flying close to another aircraft like in parallel approaches.

93
Q
  1. When LNAV is used to program a route within Australia between two waypoints, the database track that the aircraft will follow is:
A

A great circle

LNAV results in the shortest distance possible. A Great Circle track is the shortest distance between two points on the earth.

94
Q
  1. A GPWS has different modes of operation to protect an aircraft from pre mature or unintentional ground contact. The aural message provided under various circumstances can often be either a soft warning or a hard warning, depending on the seriousness of the situation and the speed of the response required for corrective actions. An example of a soft warning and a hard warning respectively are?
A

“Terrain” and “whoop whoop, pull up”

A soft warning is an initial alert of an abnormal situation. A hard warning implies immediate maneuver or action to be taken by the pilot.

95
Q
  1. The autopilot depends on devices to measure the aircrafts attitude changes so that information may be used to achieve controlled flight, Accelerometers assist in a?
A

Set rate of climb and descent. ?????????????

96
Q
  1. An aircraft has 2 FMC, which the pilot accesses through 2 … CDUs should not be used by the pilots to?
A
  1. Simultaneously enter data into the FMCs

Because CDUs are most often connected in parallel, meaning what you are typing into the CDU will appear on the other CDU.

97
Q
  1. In a conventional flight instrument system in an aircraft, the autopilots altitude hold information comes from
A

The ADC

98
Q
  1. Methods for defining waypoints entered by the crew into the database of the FMC include:
A
  1. Lat and long, place with bearing/dist, place with bearing and place with bearing

Waypoints can be lat and long, distance and bearing from one way point A

99
Q
  1. The autobrake selector on your aircraft has 8 Positions, Disarm, OFF, 1, 2, 3, 4, Max and RTO. Regarding the retardation rates of various settings:
A
  1. RTO is greater than max
100
Q
  1. To provide LNAV guidance, the FMC needs a minimum input from initializing navigation data from:
A
  1. 1 IRS

Initialization of FMS which manages the VNAV and LNAV operations requires only the information from 1 IRS. VOR/DME are used to update information during flight.

101
Q

The GPWS fitted to a particular aircraft alerts the flight crew when one of the following mode thresholds are exceeded between 50ft and 240 ft ratio altitude.
1. Excessive descent rate
2. Excessive terrain closure rate
3. Altitude loss after TO or GA
4. Unsafe terrain clearance while in LDG config
5. Below GS deviation

A Whoop Whoop Pull Up aural warning can be given by:

A

Modes 1 and 2

Mode 1 = sink rate, pull up
Mode 2 = terrain, pull up
Mode 3 – don’t sink
Mode 4 = too low, gear/flap/terrain
Mode 5 = glideslope
Mode 6 = bank angle
Mode 7 = wind shear

102
Q
  1. In an aircraft equipped with an Autoland system incorporating 3 autopilots, the max number of autopilot failures which may be sustained without losing Autoland capability is:
A

1

In order to perform an Autoland, there must be at least more than 1 autopilot engaged for redundancy and checking.

103
Q
  1. You set autobrakes at 3 whilst landing, what happens to the aircraft as you apply reverse thrust?
A

Autobrake provides constant deceleration by varying braking force

Autobrakes 1 and 2 are normal, 3 is for wet runways and RTO is for a rejected take off. Max is rarely used as it causes PAX discomfort.

104
Q
  1. While on an approach to land, the auto throttle should be at
A

Speed

105
Q
  1. In TCAS, how does a TA look?
A

Circle

RAs = red square
TAs = Amber circle
Proximity = White filled diamond
Other = White outlined diamond

106
Q
  1. On an EHSI, information in white is?
A

Armed

Green = engaged
White = armed
Magenta = command
Cyan = background
Red = warning
Amber = Caution

107
Q
  1. When in the flight is the AFCS disengaged?
A
  1. When disengaged by the pilots

When disengaged by the pilots

108
Q
  1. White edge diamond on a TCAS represents
A

Other Trafic

109
Q
  1. Mode 1-7 on a GPWS listed, which modes give a “whoop whoop, pull up”
A
  1. Mode 1-7 on a GPWS listed, which modes give a “whoop whoop, pull up”
110
Q
  1. Solid Diamond on TCAS?
A

Proximate Traffic

111
Q
  1. How are conditional waypoints entered?
A
  1. How are conditional waypoints entered?

Conditional waypoints are part of a SID or a STAR and is automatically loaded once the SID or STAR is attempted.

112
Q
  1. Warnings and Cautions, what happens when you press the cancel button?
A
  1. Caution out and advisory out

A warning cannot be cancelled and remains displayed in the EICAS until the problem is fixed.

113
Q
  1. Autoland in modern aircraft, the electrical supply includes:
A
  1. 2 Independent AC and a DC supply

Normally the left and center FCC or autopilot computers are powered by the Left AC Bus but during multi-autopilot operations, such as Autoland, isolation occurs as they are powered independently.

114
Q
  1. Which one of these is not shown on EADI?
A

HDG

115
Q
  1. Master warning system, warnings and cautions:
A

Can be cancelled by pressing the master/warning caution??????????????????????????

116
Q
  1. No. of Autoland failures before the system becomes manually controlled.
A

2

117
Q
  1. Boxes and Data in CDU represents
A

Box = data entry required
Dashes = enter data if known
????????????????

Boxes = data entry requied for FMC operations
Other = where other data can be entered i.e. wind and temp.

118
Q
  1. When is AFCS disengaged on Autoland?
A

Remains on until dis engaged by pilots??????????????????

119
Q
  1. 2 What controls the air for cabin pressurization Ram air valve Flow control valve Check valve Outflow valves
A

Outflow valves

120
Q
  1. In a constant frequency AC generator, where does it drive its initial start RPM from?
A

Permanent magnet generator

PMG or DC Pilot exciter provides the initial start RPM for the alternator.

121
Q
  1. In a hydraulic system, failure of a nose wheel steering system:
A

Nose wheel is straightened up

122
Q
  1. Three independent hydraulic systems are present in an aircraft. Regarding flight controls.
A
  1. All 3 systems work simultaneously.
123
Q
  1. What device is used to prevent further hydraulic fluid loss, if any?
A

Hydraulic fuse

Hydraulic fuse restricts the hydraulic flow if exceeding a certain preset value.

124
Q
  1. Regarding hydroplaning and Trye pressure?
A
  1. Minimum hydroplaning speed is proportional to the square root of Tyre pressure

Speed x Square Root of Tyre Pressure

125
Q
  1. A benefit of split bus type aircraft electrical system is
A

There is reduced need for frequency matching/less demand…

If several generators are connected together on a parallel system, the generators must be carefully matched to the others before the bus tie is closed to synchronize the frequency and voltage.

126
Q
  1. In flight normal operation of an aircraft electrical system with a bus tie, the generators are operated
A

In parallel

Bus tie = parallel
No bus tie = split system

Bus tie ensures multiple generators are connected in parallel. Equal distribution of loads etc.

127
Q
  1. The coldest air of an air cycle machine of a jet aircraft air conditioning system is found in the
A

Expansion turbine

128
Q
  1. The function of a pressure relief valve in an aircraft’s pneumatic system is to:
A
  1. Prevent seals from bleeding
129
Q
  1. An advantage of NICAD compares to Lead Acid is
A
  1. A faster recharge cycle

NICAd batteries have a faster recharge cycle

130
Q
  1. In a hydraulic system with an operating pressure of 3000psi, the force entered by a piston actuator measuring 25cm x 25cm is?
A

300,000lbs

Pressure = force times surface area

Use some formula?? A

131
Q
  1. The system used in large aircraft to prevent over stressing of the trailing edge flaps is the
A

Flap load relief system

Flap load relief system is controlled by an actuator that when passes a certain threshold (i.e. speed and airloads) the flap is pushed down, and re-engages when loads drop below the threshold.

The flap lever inside the cockpit does not move.

132
Q
  1. Cockpit window heading systems on jet transport aircraft use laminated glass with a middle layer of:
A

Electrically conductive metal

133
Q
  1. The purpose of a bogie wheel landing gear configuration compared to a single wheel on a main gear leg is
A

Reduce tyre pressure & lower ACN number

134
Q
  1. Modern airline aircraft have tube less tyres fitted with fuseable alloy plugs to provide
A

Pressure relief during conditions of excessive Trye heat – Thermal Plugs

135
Q
  1. Thermal plugs in modern aircraft tubeless tyres are designed
A

For pressure relief during conditions of excessive tyre heat

136
Q
  1. In an ACM of an air-conditioning system, the effect of the turbine on pressure, temperature and velocity of bleed air supplied from the gas turbine engine is to:
A

Decrease pressure, temp and velocity

137
Q
  1. The ranges of typical pressurization system when operating in AUTO mode are:
A
  1. Isobaric and differential ranges
138
Q
  1. Some jet transport aircraft are equipped with a feature known as aileron lockout. If aileron lockout appeared as a caution message on the EICAS, you should expect to experience.
A
  1. Degraded roll controllability at low speeds
139
Q
  1. Two 12V, 36 Ampere batteries are connected together in parallel, the result will be an output of:
A

12V, 72 Amps

140
Q
  1. Regarding the operation of a hot battery bus in a jet aircraft electrical systems
A

A hot battery bus is powered whenever a charged battery is installed in A/C

141
Q
  1. An advantage of the use of AC in a large aircraft electrical system is high voltage transmission. This permits:
A

Low current levels

142
Q
  1. An aircraft landing gear tyre replacement should be considered essential when
A

A bulge in the tyre

143
Q
  1. On an aircraft with pull g powered controls, manual reversion is required
A

Unless triple redundancy is provided

Manual reversion is the ability to control flight controls mechanically if hydraulics fail. Manual reversion is not needed if triple redundancy is incorporated.

144
Q

Various chemical methods are used in large jet aircraft to improve forward visibility in rain. To ensure optimal performance of rain repellant fluid, it should be used

A

Periodically in heavy rain

145
Q

The purpose of having inboard and outboard ailerons is for

A

Preventing wing twist at high speeds

Inboard ailerons used at high speeds.

146
Q

What causes thermal runaway in a NICAD battery?

A

Excessive charge rate

147
Q

What component should a 3 phase alternator have to excite at a constant frequency?

A

Voltage Regulator

148
Q

A restrictor valve in the downline of a landing gear is used to

A

Prevent cavitation

149
Q

What is the control design being overcome by the powered flight controls?

A

Control force variation on wide speed range

150
Q

What is the purpose of ram air valve in the air conditioning and pressurization system?

A

To provide cabin air in the case of loss of pressurization

Answer or also to assist in ventilation and smoke removal in the cabin.

151
Q

The aircraft is significantly above flap extension speed and has a flap protection system with a hydraulic flap circuit.

A

When flap lever is moved down the flap will not move because it is hydraulically locked up in position

152
Q

What is the purpose of an outflow valve?

A

Maintain cabin altitude.

153
Q

Real power is measured in?

A

KW

KVA = KW + KVAR

154
Q

How are lead acid batteries (multiple) normally connected?

A

Parallel to increase capacity

155
Q

Where is the Landing Gear Safety Switch located?

A

The safety switch is on the gear oleo strut.

156
Q

How does a generator connect a synchronizing bus?

A

Bus tie

157
Q

When does a negative pressure relief valve open?

A

Cabin pressure is greater than ambient pressure

158
Q

What is a requirement to be installed in a powered flight control?

A

Artificial Feel

159
Q

What should never be exceeded?

A

Cabin Pressure differential gauge

160
Q

Purpose of a fuel vent in modern aircraft?

A

Equalizes the pressure from he outside.

161
Q

Aileron reversal is reduced by?

A

Reduced by use of in board ailerons

162
Q

Restrictor (Independent or dependent) in pneumatic system

A

Speed control

163
Q

Sonomechanism?

A

Limiter?

164
Q

Max cabin differential is achieved already and then you’re required to climb higher. What happens?

A

The cabin differential pressure will remain the same, the cabin altitude however will increase.

165
Q

Voltage Regulator?

A

Main exciter current

166
Q

Outflow Valve Operation

A

Automatic cabin pressure controller

167
Q

Battery NICAS overheating can occur when

A

Overcharging

168
Q

The coldest air in an Air Conditioning System is in?

A

The Expansion Turbine.

169
Q

When AC generators are paralleld, what component ensures same frequency?

A

CSD(constant speed drive)

170
Q

Up to OTHER QUESTIONs on document

A

ATPL Study (1 decks)

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