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WIZ unverified > ATPL QUESTIONS > Flashcards

ATPL QUESTIONS Flashcards

1
Q

Approach categories on aircrafts are based upon?

A

A grouping of aircraft based on a speed of 1.3 times the stall speed in the landing
configuration at maximum gross landing weight. An aircraft must fit in only one category.
If it is necessary to maneuver at speeds in excess of the upper limit of a speed range for
a category, the minimums for the category for that speed must be used. For example, an
aircraft which falls in Category A, but is circling to land at a speed in excess of 91 knots,
must use the approach Category B minimums when circling to land.
• Aircraft Category A <91 Max circling speed 90Kts
• Aircraft Category B 91 / 120 Max circling speed 120Kts
• Aircraft Category C 121 / 140 Max circling speed 140Kts
• Aircraft Category D 141 / 165 Max circling speed 165Kts
• Aircraft Category E >165

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2
Q

What is ETOPS?

A

Extended twin operations. An operator is granted permission to operate a twin engined
aircraft type on flight in which the aircraft is more than 60 minutes away from a suitable
alternative aerodrome in the event that the aircraft suffers an engine failure en route.

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3
Q

What are the various ETOPS categories?

A

Normal extended twin operations (ETOPS) categories, vary between 60 and 180 Minutes.

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4
Q

IFR and RVSM Flight levels?

A

MT 000­179 odd FL.
MT 180­359 even FL.
• NON ­ RVSM airspace vertical separation is only 1000 ft up to FL290 and 2000 ft
above FL290.
• RVSM airspace only 1000 ft for all levels.

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5
Q

Why are Flight Level intervals increased to 2000 ft in non RVSM airspace?

A

Because of altimeter errors (lower air density). Reduced vertical RVSM to 1000ft
separation above FL290 is granted to aircraft with advanced and more accurate
altimeters, usually crowded routes (Trans Atlantic Routes).

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6
Q

What are the lights on a taxiway?

A

Blue edge, green center

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7
Q

How long runway remaining when RWY centerline light turns solid red?

A

1,000ft (305m)

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8
Q

How long runway remaining when RWY centerline light turns alternating red and
white?

A

3000 ft (600m)

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9
Q

What happens if you move C.G from fwd to aft position?

A

It will be tail heavy, and the horizontal tail­plane will have a short memento arm that will
result in the aircraft is longitudinally unstable because it is too tail heavy for the horizontal
tail­plane. Light stick forces for pitch is required. A decreased wing angle of attack which
results in lower induced drag. It will also increase aircraft range.

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10
Q

What is Dutch Roll?

A 
Dutch roll is a type of aircraft motion, consisting of an out­of­phase combination of "tailwagging" and rocking from side to side. This yaw­roll coupling is one of the basic flight
dynamic modes (others include phugoid, short period, and spiral divergence).
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11
Q

How many % to be considered a contaminated runway?

A

25% of Rwy

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12
Q

Why are wings swept? Advantage / Disadvantage regarding Swept Wings?

A

They are swept to be able to fly at a higher speed. The advantages are: higher Mach rise
speeds and stability in turbulence. Disadvantages are: Poor lift qualities are experienced,
higher stall speeds, a wing tip stalling tendency is particular to a swept wing aircraft
mainly because of the high local Cl loading it experiences.

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13
Q

An Aircraft is climbing at constant Mach Number what will happen with TAS?

A

TAS will decrease

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14
Q

An aircraft climbs at constant TAS through an inversion, will the RAS and Mach
number increase, decrease or stay the same?

A

Mach Number will decrease, RAS will decrease

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15
Q

When descending at a constant CAS?

A

EAS Increases

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16
Q

What is Climb Gradient?

A

The rate, expressed as a percentage, of the change in geometric height divided by the
horizontal distance traveled in a given time

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17
Q

Definition of wet Runway?

A

A runway is considered “wet” when there is sufficient moisture on the surface to appear
reflective, but without significant areas of standing water. A runway surface that appears
darkened by residual moisture (damp runway) shall not be considered wet or
contaminated except as outlined below

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18
Q

Effect of Forward C.G.?

A

Longitudinal stability is increased because the aircraft is nose heavy. The aircraft’s pitch
control is reduced because it experiences high stick forces due to the aircraft’s long tailplane moment arm. Increased wing angle of attack, witch will reduce in higher induced
drag. Will reduce aircraft performance and range. The stalling speed will increase

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19
Q

Effect of fwd and aft C.G on performance stability and fuel?

A 
FWD: 
• Stalling speed increased.
• Longitudinal stability increased.
• Higher stick force required
• Range and endurance decreased due to drag caused by elevators to trim the
aircraft.
AFT: 
• Stalling speed decreased.
• Longitudinal stability decreased.
• Lower stick force required
• Range and endurance Increases.
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20
Q

The airplane outside air temperature “probe” measures the?

A

Total air temperature minus kinetic heating effect in order to obtain the static temperature

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21
Q

The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are?

A

VS1 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit

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22
Q

A trough of low pressure is generally associated with?

A

Convergence causing increased cloud and precipitation

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23
Q

The mach number is the?

A

True Airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of sound

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24
Q

What is the effect of flap extension on Vx and Vy?

A

Vx and Vy decreases

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25
Q

The absolute ceiling is defined as?

A

The altitude where the maximum rate of climb is 0 ft/minute

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26
Q

Aerodrome QNH is the?

A

Atmospheric pressure at the aerodrome level

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27
Q

Give definition of QNH?

A

QNH is the station pressure adjusted down to mean sea level (msl) using ISA values for
the temperature between the station and msl. Since the altimeter itself uses ISA values
for its internal calculations, an altimeter with QNH set should read station elevation on the
ground a the station.

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28
Q

Give definition of QFE?

A

QFE is a reading of station pressure taken on an accurate barometer and adjusted for
any difference in height between the barometer and the field elevation. If QFE is set,
altimeters should read zero on the ground at the airfield.

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29
Q

In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an Easterly
direction, the magnetic compass will indicate

A

An apparent turn to the North

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30
Q

What is a shuttle valve?

A

A shuttle valve is a type of valve which allows fluid to flow through it from one of two
sources. Generally a shuttle valve is used in pneumatic systems, although sometimes it
will be found in hydraulic systems.

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31
Q

What type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue
fallowing a single failure below alert height?

A

Fail operational or fail active

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32
Q

What does Vortex Generators do?

A

Transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer

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33
Q

GPWS mode 5 provides both visual and audible warnings to the pilot, if the aircraft:

A

Is below 1000ft RA and more than 1.3 dots below ILS Glideslope

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34
Q

A jet­powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude will have

A

Reduced Range

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35
Q

On a pressurized airplane, supplemental oxygen is used to

A

Provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin de­pressurization

36
Q

The Bourdon tube is used to measure?

A

Pressure

37
Q

From which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type oxygen
mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft?

A

FL250

38
Q

Seasons are due to the?

A

Inclination of the polar axis with the ecliptic plane

39
Q

A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane fails while you are still
parked. The reference document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:

A

MEL

40
Q

The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by

A

The manufacturer

41
Q

The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by

A

The operator

42
Q

Which of the fallowing combinations will most likely cause the greats increase in
the takeoff distance?

A

Tailwind, Upslope, High Temperature

43
Q

The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment on which
certain in­flight failures can be allowed and the conditions under which this
allowance can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by :

A

The manufacturer and approved by the certification authority and may be more restrictive
than the Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)

44
Q

The red LED indicator light on an emergency torch is flashing at 4 seconds
intervals. This indicates that:

A

The battery requires replacement

45
Q

Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of?

A

Water vapor turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft surface

46
Q

During an ILS approach to autoland, at 1500 feet:

A

Localizer is controlling the roll channel, off line channels are automatically engaged and
flare mode is armed.

47
Q

An aircraft having undergone an anti­icing procedure must be anti­icing fluid free
at the latest when :

A

Rotation (before takeoff)

48
Q

Station numbers (Stn) and water lines (WL) are:

A

A means of locating airframe structure and components

49
Q

Under icing conditions, if you exceeded the holdover time, the correct procedure
is:

A

De­ice again the airplane, then apply anti­icing fluid

50
Q

Variable inlet guide vans are fitted to gas turbine engines to:

A

Prevent a compressor stall at high engine speeds

51
Q

For turbo­jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the
scheduled destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance
multiplied by a factor of:

A

LD * 0.6

52
Q

What is Decision Point Procedure? It is a procedure to reduce the amount of fuel
carried on a flight by:

A

Reducing contingency fuel to only that required from Decision Point to Destination

53
Q

During a de­icing/anti­icing procedure carried out in two stages, the waiting time
starts:

A

At the beginning of the second stage (anti­icing stage)

54
Q

The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight induces an increase in the:

A

Stalling speed

55
Q

An Aircraft is descending at constant RAS, what will happen to MN and TAS?

A

TAS decrease and MN decrease

56
Q

Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll?

A

Rolling and yawing

57
Q

You observe the altimeter in a parked aircraft shortly after an active cold front has
passed. What does the altimeter indicate?

A

It decreases

58
Q

Linear acceleration, causing somatograviti illusion, can give a false impression of
a:

A

Climb

59
Q

Map Scale on Lambert’s conformal chart is:

A

Constant along a parallel of latitude

60
Q

The modern anti­skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input
data is?

A

idle wheel speed (measured),
• braked wheel speed (measured),
• desired idle wheel taring slipping rate.

61
Q

Up to what altitude will generally healthy people be able to stay without showing
any signs of suffering from hypoxia?

A

Up to 10000 – 12000 FT

62
Q

For FAIL ­ SAFE designed structural parts:

A

• The mounting principle is parallel mounting
• The principle is the redundancy of components
• The failure of a member cause the loads to be shared between the other system
components

63
Q

VLE is defined as the:

A

Maximum landing gear extended speed

64
Q

An aircraft is flying at constant indicated altitude, over a warm airmass, The
altimeter reading will be?

A

Less than the real altitude

65
Q

A flight carried out below optimum altitude would result in:

A

Less time more fuel

66
Q

What are the errors of Mach­meter?

A

Instrument and pressure error

67
Q

The speed range between high­ and low speed buffet:

A

Increases during a descent at a constant IAS

68
Q

Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently
long to allow a full stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry
runway) within:

A

60% of the landing distance available

69
Q

What is GPWS, which mode means what?

A

A ground proximity warning system (GPWS) is a system designed to alert pilots if their
aircraft is in immediate danger of flying into the ground or an obstacle.
The modes are:
1. Excessive descent rate (“SINK RATE” “PULL UP”)
2. Excessive terrain closure rate (“TERRAIN” “PULL UP”)
3. Altitude loss after take off or with a high power setting (“DON’T SINK”)
4. Unsafe terrain clearance (“TOO LOW – TERRAIN” “TOO LOW – GEAR” “TOO
LOW – FLAPS”)
5. Excessive deviation below glide­slope (“GLIDESLOPE”)
6. Excessively steep bank angle (“BANK ANGLE”)
7. Windshear protection (“WINDSHEAR”)

70
Q

With a gas turbine engine, the Engine Anti Ice system should be selected “ON”
whenever:

A

Whenever the IOAT is +10°C or below and the air contains visible moisture

71
Q

As the center of gravity moves, recovery from a stall:

A

Is more difficult with the center of gravity moving aft

72
Q

Airplanes certified to JAR­25 must not operate across areas where S&R would
be especially difficult without survival equipment if it flies to a distance
corresponding to greater than:

A

60 minutes at cruising speed from an area suitable for making an emergency landing

73
Q

Variable inlet guide vanes are fitted to gas turbine engines to:

A

Prevent a compressor stall at high engine speeds

74
Q

An electrical resonant circuit is constructed from:

A

Capacitor and inductor which may be in parallel or series

75
Q

If a fuel sample appears cloudy or hazy, the most probably cause is:

A

Water contamination

76
Q

What is a SPECI?

A

A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a significant change of the
weather conditions have been observed.

77
Q

Density varies:

A

Directly with pressure and inversely with temperature

78
Q

During the take­off run , the effect of increasing airspeed is to cause the EPR
indication to:

A

Remain constant

79
Q

When an aircraft is de­iced prior to departure, if the temperature is 0 Degrees in
precipitation, which type of fluid and application method will provide the longest
holdover time?

A

Type II fluid @ 100% cold spray

80
Q

When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking
the aircraft, it is necessary that: (Annex 6, Part I)

A

Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on
board.

81
Q

Tell us the difference of a jet engine and turbo prop?

A

A turboprop engine is a type of turbine engine which drives an aircraft propeller using a
reduction gear

82
Q

VHF RANGE?

A

D=1.23 √ H Distance in NM and height in FT

83
Q

RVSM?

A

Between FL290 and FL410 and 1000ft vertical separation

  1. Two independent altitude measurement systems;
  2. An altitude alerting system;
  3. An automatic altitude control system; and
  4. A secondary surveillance radar (SSR) transponder with altitude reporting system that can be connected to the altitude measurement system in use for altitude keeping.
84
Q

What drift would you experience when flying from a low- to a high-pressure system?

A

In the northern hemisphere you would experience a drift to the left (port) when flying from a low- to a high-pressure system. This is so because the wind circulates clockwise around a high in the northern hemisphere, and therefore, flying toward the center of a high-pressure system, you would have a wind from the right (starboard) causing you to drift to the left (port).
In the southern hemisphere when flying from a low- to a high-pressure system, the opposite is true; namely, you would experience a drift to the right (starboard). This is so because in the southern hemisphere the wind circulates clockwise around a low and counterclockwise around a high, and therefore, the airflow/wind experienced will be coming from the left, causing you to drift to the right (starboard

85
Q

Holding Speed Limitations?

A
  • Holding altitude 14000’ or below - 230 KIAS
  • Holding altitude above 14000’ to 20000’ - 240 KIAS
  • Holding altitude above 20000’ to 34000’ - 265 KIAS
  • Holding altitude above 34000’ - Mach .83
  • Holding patterns restricted to Category A and B aircraft only - 170 KIAS

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