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CASA ANAV > ATPL NAVIGATION > Flashcards

ATPL NAVIGATION Flashcards

1
Q

What is a wavelength?

A

The number of cycles passing a given point in one second. (Expressed as Hertz (Hz)

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2
Q

What is the amplitude of a radio wave?

A

The displacement of the peaks or troughs from a mid-point. (The greater the amplitude, the stronger the signal)

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3
Q

In which planes are radio waves transmitted?

A

Horizontally and vertically.

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4
Q

How must the antenna be polarised?

A

The receiving antenna must be polarised the same as the transmitting antenna. (i.e horizontal to horizontal etc.)

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5
Q

What does the term modulation mean?

A

To modulate a radio wave means to create variation in the amplitude, frequency or phase. This is done using another waveform such as speech or music.

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6
Q

What is one disadvantage of single sideband (SSB)?

A

The requirement for clarification or fine tuning due to the narrow bandwidth.

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7
Q

What is the frequency, wavelength and usage of the VHF band?

A

30 to 300 Mhz, 10 to 1m and FM, voice and VOR navaids

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8
Q

What is the frequency, wavelength and usage of the UHF band?

A

300 to 3000 Mhz, 100 to 10cm and voice and navigation

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9
Q

How do direct waves travel?

A

Directly between the transmitter and the receiver

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10
Q

How do surface waves travel?

A

Following the curvature of the earth (due to diffraction)

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11
Q

What is a sky wave?

A

It is a radio wave that has been refracted & reflected by the ionosphere back to earths surface.

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12
Q

What is the maximum theoretical range equation?

A

Theoretical VHF range in NM = √1.5*receiver altitude (ft)

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13
Q

What heavily attenuates a radio wave signal and what causes the greatest attenuation?

A

Sand and ice/snow

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14
Q

What is the skip distance?

A

The distance travelled by a radio wave from the transmitter to the point where it returns to the earth’s surface.

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15
Q

How does a VHF Omni-directional Range (VOR) navaid work?

A

The VOR produces a radial pattern consisting of a 30Hz reference signal and a 30Hz variable phase signal. The aircraft receiver compares the PHASE DIFFERENCE between the arriving signals. Equipment inside the aircraft displays this information to the pilot.

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16
Q

What are the errors associated with a VOR navaid?

A

“AVGAS” - Airborne equipment error, Vertical polarisation error, Ground station error, Aggregate error, Site/terrain effect

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17
Q

Does the VOR read magnetic deviation or true deviation?

A

The VOR is calibrated for magnetic variation

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18
Q

What error does a Doppler VOR eliminate?

A

Site/terrain effect (by use of FM not AM)

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19
Q

How does an Non-directional Beacon (NDB) navaid work?

A

It radiates a non-directional carrier wave in the MF band with audio, Identifiable by morse code.

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20
Q

What is a Locater?

A

A low-powered NDB often used in association with an ILS

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21
Q

The onboard equipment (ADF) has two antennae. What are they called and what do they do?

A

The Loop Antenna - locates the aural null. The Sense Antenna - resolves the 180° ambiguity.

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22
Q

What is the HATS formula?

A

Heading + ADF bearing = Track to station

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23
Q

What are the errors associated with a NDB navaid?

A

“MINTCHAT” - Mount effect, Interference (co-channel), Night effect, Terrain effect, Coastal refraction, Height effect, Aircraft (quadrantal) error, Thunderstorms

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24
Q

1 nautical mile equals how many feet?

A

6080ft

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25
Q

How does Secondary Surveillance Radar work?

A

A ground based interrogator transmits a repetitious signal requesting that aircraft transponders within range respond with a coded reply.

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26
Q

When is localiser interference possible?

A

When an aircraft takes off over the localiser antenna

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27
Q

When is glideslope interference possible?

A

When an aircraft lands on the same runway or flies across your glidepath on approach to an adjacent runway.

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28
Q

How do you calculate distance off track?

A

Track Error = Distance off / Distance along * 60

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29
Q

What is the definition of height?

A

The vertical distance of a level, point or object measured from a specified datum.

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30
Q

What is the definition of elevation?

A

The vertical distance of a point or level affixed to the surface of the earth.

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31
Q

What is the definition of Mean Sea Level (MSL)?

A

The average sea level for a particular geographical location.

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32
Q

What is the definition of altitude?

A

The vertical distance measured from mean sea level.

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33
Q

What is the definition of true altitude?

A

The actual height of an aircraft above mean sea level (Indicated altitude corrected for temperature error).

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34
Q

What is the definition of pressure altitude?

A

The height of an aircraft measured from the standard atmospheric pressure level of 1013HPA

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35
Q

What is the Pressure Altitude formula?

A

PA = Elevation + [(1013-QNH)*30]

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36
Q

What type of installation/instrument errors occur in the altimeter?

A

Instrument, Pressure, Time and Hysteresis

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37
Q

What type of non-standard atmospheric errors occur in the altimeter?

A

Temperature and barometric

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38
Q

What is the true altitude (temp. correction) formula?

A

True Altitude = 0.4% per degree of ISA deviation

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39
Q

What happens to the altimeter if the static system becomes blocked?

A

The pressure within the instrument remains constant and will read the height at which the blockage occurred.

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40
Q

What are four airspeed indicator errors?

A

Instrument, Pressure, Compressibility and Density error.

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41
Q

What does SAND stand for?

A

South accelerate, north decelerate

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42
Q

What does ONUS stand for?

A

Overshoot north, undershoot south (on east/west tracks)

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43
Q

When considering a directional gyro, what is apparent drift?

A

Drift due to movement over the earths surface (transportation) and the earths rotation. (MAX at poles ZERO at equator)

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44
Q

When considering a directional gyro, what is real drift?

A

Drift due to imperfections and bearing drag within the gyroscopic unit.

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45
Q

What are the advantages of a Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI)?

A

Can be slaved to other systems - AP/FD, Minimises turning and acceleration errors, Minimises magnetic deviation, stable reference.

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46
Q

What are the disadvantages of a Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI)?

A

Requires aircraft power, heavy, complex, expensive.

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47
Q

What is the main (remaining error) of a Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI)?

A

Magnetic deviation.

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48
Q

What does pulse length determine?

A

The MINIMUM range of the weather radar. (It also determines RANGE RESOLUTION - the ability to distinguish between targets at the same altitude but different distances).

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49
Q

What is azimuth resolution? (Wx radar)

A

Azimuth resolution is a function of beam-width and range to target.

The radar is unable to distinguish a gap between two targets at the same range, less than the beam width.

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50
Q

What does the pulse repetition frequency (PRF) determine?

A

This determines the MAXIMUM range of the wx radar

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51
Q

What type of radar dish provides the best azimuth resolution?

A

A large one. (Provides a narrow beam)

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52
Q

When viewing a Wx radar cockpit display, what does close contouring between colours mean?

A

The closer the contouring the more severe the turbulence.

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53
Q

What is the recommended radar tilt position?

A

Parked to a tilt that allows a “sprinkling of ground returns”

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54
Q

What does the GREEN contour colouring indicate on a Wx radar display screen?

A

A weak return, however LIGHT to MODERATE turbulence and lightning possible.

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55
Q

What does the MAGENTA contour colouring indicate on a Wx radar display screen?

A

This indicates MODERATE to SEVERE turbulence.

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56
Q

What formations on the Wx radar can you consider to be associated with severe turbulence and hail activity?

A

Fingers, hooks, scalloped edges, u-shapes (horseshoe).

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57
Q

Regarding the RMI, what does constant oscillation of the annunciator mean?

A

The system is working properly and the gyro is hunting about the mean position.

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58
Q

What/how many types of gyros exist?

A

Four - space, tied, earth and rate gyros.

59
Q

What types of instruments are the rate and earth gyro used in?

A

Turn co-ordinator and attitude indicator respectively.

60
Q

Summarise drift and topple with the HORIZONTAL axis of a gyro at the poles and equator.

A

At the poles = NO topple, no drift. At the equator = NO drift, NO topple (north-south) and MAX topple (east-west)

61
Q

Summarise drift and topple with the VERTICAL axis of a gyro at the poles and equator.

A

At the poles = NO drift, NO topple. At the equator = NO drift, MAX topple.

62
Q

What is meant by the term wander?

A

Deviation from a set position in an axis gyro.

63
Q

How many operational satellites make up the GPS constellation?

A

21 (3 spare).

64
Q

How many satellites are required for an accurate position fix?

A

4.

65
Q

GPS signals are so faint, they are weaker than the earths inherent background noise - true or false?

A

True.

66
Q

Which is better for accurate readings HIGH or LOW GDOP/PDOP?

A

Low (better spacing of the GPS satellites provides a more accurate result).

67
Q

With selective availability implemented, what is the worst case error?

A

100 metres (3x33m) - (33m with no GDOP allowance).

68
Q

What are the existing “sole means of navigation” systems in AUS?

A

NDB, VOR, DME and INS.

69
Q

What is required for approval of sole means of navigation?

A

ACARI - Accuracy, Coverage, Availability, Reliability, Integrity.

70
Q

What is RAIM?

A

The ability for receiver units to detect faulty satellites by comparing position and time information. (RAIM stands for - Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring)

71
Q

How many satellites are required for RAIM?

A

MINIMUM 5. 6 to continue working i.e detect and exclude a faulty satellite.

72
Q

What is Newton’s First Law?

A

A body at rest will stay at rest OR uniform (constant) motion unless acted upon by an external force.

73
Q

What is Newton’s Second Law?

A

Acceleration of a body is directly proportional to the sum of the forces acting on the body (f=ma).

74
Q

What is Newton’s Third Law?

A

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

75
Q

What is earth rate compensation?

A

A gyro’s platform is forced to tilt in proportion to the earth’s turning rate. (This varies with latitude & is 15.04° per hour at the equator).

76
Q

How must an INS system be aligned?

A

Accelerometers set to zero and orientated to true north. (Gyro-compassing).

77
Q

What is a disadvantage of a north pointing system?

A

It cannot be used while operating in polar regions.

78
Q

A feature of INS is to automatically update the navigation position using DME and/or VOR information. True or False?

A

True.

79
Q

What is the ideal DME update?

A

2 DME beacons at 90° (along and cross-track).

80
Q

What is the distance required for an update using a co-located VOR/DME?

A

25nm. (Or passing overhead a single VOR/DME).

81
Q

Advising ATC when using area navigation systems in CTA is?

A

3 hours (single unit). 5 hours (multiple units).

82
Q

How do you calculate radial error?

A

3 + 3t (t = hours of operation in NAV mode).

83
Q

Auto-updating is permissible within what distance using 2 DME beacons?

A

200nm.

84
Q

What are the ideal properties of a map?

A

CERTGGC - Conformality, Equal area, Rhumb lines = straight lines, True azimuth, Great circles = straight lines, Geographic positions easily located and Constant scale.

85
Q

What occurs between rhumb line and great circle tracks at the halfway position?

A

They always parallel each other.

86
Q

What is the convergence factor formula?

A

Convergence (n) = bearing change / longitude change

87
Q

What is the convergence factor formula?

A

Convergence (n) = bearing change / longitude change

88
Q

What mnemonic can be used of off track problems using a triangle with one 90° angle?

A

SOHCAHTOA - SINA = OPP/HYP COSB = ADJ/HYP TANC = OPP/ADJ

89
Q

360° of of longitude rotation occurs in 24 hours, how many degrees of longitude is this per hour?

A

15° of longitude.

90
Q

Each degree of longitude = 4 minutes of time. True or false?

A

True.

91
Q

In which direction and how fast would you need to fly to keep the sun stationary in the sky?

A

West at 900 knots. (15x60) (At the equator 1° of longitude = 60nm.

92
Q

What is the formula for ETI?

A

ETI = Distance/Groundspeed x 60

93
Q

When flying at a constant mach number, what is occurring to the speed of sound?

A

Remaining constant. Constant mach number = constant sos.

94
Q

What does speed of sound vary with?

A

Temperature. (The speed of sound is faster with a higher OAT and slower with a lower OAT).

95
Q

What is the on-track critical point formula?

A

Dist to CP (nm from depart.) = Total distance x GSh / GSh + GSo

96
Q

List the steps to calculating an off-track ETP (CP)

A

1 - Draw the base line. 2 - Bisect the base line at right 90°. 3 - Extend bisector to current track. 4 - Calculate W/V length (distance to divert to alt/TAS x 60). 5 - Draw vector to that length terminating at the nil-wind ETP. 6 - From the origin of W/V draw a line parallel to the bisector back to original track. 7 - Find adjusted ETP.

97
Q

How do you estimate the latest point of safe diversion (LSPD) based on NIL-WIND?

A

TAS x Safe endurance (mins) / 60 = MAX range distance (NIL WIND).

98
Q

How do you calculate the distance to an NDB/VOR?

A

Distance to NDB/VOR = Distance flown x 60 / bearing change angle.

99
Q

How do you calculate the TIME to PNR?

A

Safe endurance(mins) x GShome / GShome + GSon

100
Q

How do you calculate the DISTANCE to PNR?

A

Time to PNR x GSo / 60

101
Q

The purpose of the LOOP antenna in an ADF system is?

A

To locate the aural null.

102
Q

The purpose of the SENSE antenna in an ADF system is?

A

To resolve the 180° ambiguity.

103
Q

How does a horizontally polarised radio antenna transmit its electrical and magnetic elements?

A

Horizontal in electrical and vertical in magnetic.

104
Q

How does a GROUNDSPEED readout change when approaching and passing overhead a DME station?

A

Decreases at an increasing rate until overhead and then increases at a decreasing rate.

105
Q

How does a DISTANCE readout change when approaching and passing overhead a DME station?

A

Decreases at an decreasing rate until overhead and then increases at a increasing rate.

106
Q

What is the difference between primary surveillance radar (PSR) and secondary surveillance radar (SSR)?

A

PSR relies on the transmitted signal being sent out and reflected by an object (aircraft). This requires a strong initial transmission.

SSR requires a much less powerful transmission signal from the ground station. The receiver in the aircraft (transponder) re-amplifies and sends back a stronger signal than what was originally received.

107
Q

HF radio waves propagate by?

A

Single and multi-hop skywaves.

108
Q

What temperature conditions cause the altimeter to over-read?

A

ISA (-) conditions.

109
Q

What temperature conditions cause the altimeter to under-read?

A

ISA (+) conditions.

110
Q

Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) is?

A

Indicated airspeed corrected for instrument and pressure errors. IAS = CAS.

111
Q

Errors in the mach meter are?

A

Instrument and pressure errors.

112
Q

Where is the flux valve located?

A

Remotely. (Generally in the aircraft wingtips).

113
Q

Radar altimeters use what type of transmission and at what altitude?

A

Pulsed and high altitude.

114
Q

Radio altimeters use what type of transmission and at what altitude?

A

Continuous wave and low level (up to 2500ft AGL).

115
Q

What may be identified by irregularities in Wx radar returns?

A

Turbulence and hail activity.

116
Q

What occurs to CAS if Mach is held constant during a climb?

A

CAS continuously decreases up the the tropopause. (Chicken Tikka Masala).

117
Q

What are the known errors in the GPS system?

A

SITTERSG - Satellite clock error, Ionosphere, Tropopause, Total, Ephemeris error (satellite positioning), Selective availability, GDOP.

118
Q

The most significant GPS is caused by?

A

The Ionosphere. (approx. around 8 metres).

119
Q

What type of radio waves does the NDB primarily propagate?

A

Ground waves.

120
Q

What does tilt error in a magnetic compass cause?

A

The C of G to become offset from the pivot point resulting in turning and acceleration errors.

121
Q

What is the typical accuracy of a radar altimeter?

A

2-5%.

122
Q

When may an IRS/INS system not be manually updated?

A

Overhead an NDB.

123
Q

What is the formula for calculating the rough LPSD in minutes?

A

PP to Dest. (mins) x Safe endurance (mins) / PP to Dest (mins) + Dest. to alternate (mins).

124
Q

What does SIN30 equal?

A

0.5

125
Q

What does SIN45 equal?

A

0.7

126
Q

What does SIN60 equal?

A

0.87

127
Q

What does COS30 equal?

A

0.87

128
Q

What does COS45 equal?

A

0.7

129
Q

What does COS60 equal?

A

0.5

130
Q

Wander of a gyros axis in the horizontal plane is known as?

A

Drift.

131
Q

Wander of a gyros axis in the vertical plane is known as?

A

Topple.

132
Q

What flight levels are isothermal (constant temperature)?

A

FL360 to FL660 (-56°c)

133
Q

What happens to the PNR with wind increase/decrease?

A

Closer to departure/further from departure.

134
Q

What happens to the PNR with TAS increase/decrease?

A

Further from departure/closer to departure.

135
Q

What happens to the Critical Point with WIND increase/decrease?

A

CP moves upwind from the midpoint/moves closer to midpoint.

136
Q

What happens to the Critical Point with TAS increase/decrease?

A

CP moves closer to midpoint/moves upwind from the midpoint.

137
Q

SSR uplink frequency is?

A

1030Mhz (ground station to transponder).

138
Q

SSR downlink frequency is?

A

1090Mhz (transponder to ground station).

139
Q

What frequency is the outer marker modulated at?

A

400Hz

140
Q

What is the main advantage of a servo assisted altimeter?

A

Increased accuracy at all altitudes.

141
Q

When are manual updates of INS permitted?

A

Overhead a VOR or within 25nm of a co-located VOR/DME not above 5000ft.

142
Q

What are the errors in a magnetic compass?

A

ONUS and SAND. (Related to compass dip. MINIMUM at magnetic equator and INCREASES with LATITUDE).

143
Q

What does compass dip cause the with a compasses CoG?

A

To move away from the pivot point, inducing most errors.

144
Q

2 separate forms of pseudo random codes exist. What are they called and what are their frequencies?

A

C/A (civilian) = 1575 Mhz and the P-code (military) = 1227 Mhz

CASA ANAV (1 decks)

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