Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ATR-72 > ATPL General Knowledge > Flashcards

ATPL General Knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

What CAA rule deals with pilot licence and ratings

A

CAR Part 61

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is they definition of Flight Time

A

the total time from the moment an aircraft first moves for the purpose of flight until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight including any associated push back, taxiing and subsequent holding time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Privileges of an ATPL

A

(1) any of the privileges of a private and commercial pilot licence:
(2) act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft that is required to be operated with a co-pilot and is engaged on an air transport operation or an operation for hire or reward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Car Part 121 definition

A

Greater that 30 seats not including crew members

Payload greater than 3410

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Company policy regarding use of automation

A

Automation shall be used to reduce pilot workload and enhance situational awareness. Flight crew are to determine the optimal use of automation in any given situation. Crew must be proficient in operating the aircraft in all levels of automation, and must have the skills needed to move from one level of automation to another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the sterile flight deck procedures

A

1.3.4 Sterile Flight Deck

The sterile flight deck is a condition where crew refrain from non-essential activities during critical phases of flight. Sterile flight deck procedures define the activities and communications that can and cannot be accomplished during a critical phase of flight.

No crew member shall perform any duty during a critical phase of flight except those duties required for the safe operation of the aircraft. Paperwork, PAs, and non-operational conversation, should be kept to a minimum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When is a single alternate required,

When is two alternates required

A

If destination only has one non ground based approach need and alternate

One alternate: +/- 1 hour of ETA, Weather below MDA/Da +1000 vis below 5000m or below min vis+2000m

Two alternates: when weather at alternate is less than the requirements above, that meet the alternate aerodrome criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define prevailing visibility

A

When

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the purpose of final reserve fuel

A

Half an hour extra for exceptional circumstances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What declaration should crew make to ATC when fuel in tanks = final reserve fuel

A

Minimum Fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is MSA obstacle clearance in mountainous zones

A

+2000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Can ATC or pilots use VORSEC charts to hold at a unpublished fix

A

Yes, you can random tracking as long as you comply with the VORSEC heights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is TIBA and the Frequency

A

.1.1 TIBA are reports and information transmitted by pilots for the information of pilots of other aircraft in the vicinity following a significant disruption to air traffic or telecommunication services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What do you if under radar vectors and not cleared for approach and reach inbound track

A

Continue on heading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Emergency Transponder codes

A

7500 - hijack
7600 - radio failure
7700 - mayday situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When can you expect to be issued an expected approach time

A

When required to hold for more than 5 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Approaching AKL, HIALS fails - does this effect minima

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What colour are taxiway centreline lights

A

Green WLG

19
Q

What colour are taxiway edge lights

A

Blue

20
Q

Runway centreline lights are white, and transition to red at what distance from runway end

A

Don’t know

21
Q

Definition of MDA and DA

A

MDA - minimum descent altitude on a non precision approach

DA - altitude at which if not visual on a precision approach a missed approach must be commenced

22
Q

How is the highest elevation on a IFG chart depicted

A

Not sure

23
Q

What are the requirements that need to be met I conduct a visual approach

A

Ceiling below the prouder commencement altitude

24
Q

Unless otherwise stated what is the minimum climb gradient on a SID

A

3.3 percent

25
Q

Can a victuals approach be requested if the cloud base is below the aircrafts altitude

A

Not sure

26
Q

What lighting must a pilot have in sight before requesting a visual approach at night

A

Runway lights

27
Q

What triggers the use of reduced takeoff minima procedures

A

Cloud below 300’ and 1500m

28
Q

When should a pilot report established in a holding pattern

A

When crossing the fix after a joining procedure or when joining

29
Q

Timing for the outbound leg of a holding pattern

A

1 min not sure

30
Q

With regard to PBN, what is the max cross track error/deviation expected when not turning due to track change

A

Not sure

31
Q

With regulatory factors applied, how much runway should remain with a normal landing on a dry runway

A

60 not sure

32
Q

According to CAA rules, when should flight crew don oxy masks

A

When ….

33
Q

MEL time limitations for Cat A,B,C

A

24 hours not sure

34
Q

At airports without maintenance support, can the FO sign the release to service

A

Yes

35
Q

Where does the final approach segment commence

A

2nm prior to the final fix

36
Q

Cat C Speeds

A

115 - 160 final approach
160 - 240 initial approach
Max circling 180knots
Missed approach max 240

37
Q

Cat B Speeds

A 
Vat91 - 120
85 - 130 final approach
120 - 180 initial approach (140) for reversals
135 max circling
150 max missed approach
38
Q

When can an approach be commenced if the weather is below the landing minima

A

Not if ceiling is below the MDA/DA

Only if the vis is below.

39
Q

At AA, WN, CH, OH on first contact you pass on altitude passing and climbing to. What four items do you pass on at other ADs

A

Altitude passing
Altitude climbing to
ETA and first waypoint
Not sure

40
Q

What does the black shading on IAPchart NAV AID frequency box indicate?

A

No circling on that side of the aid

41
Q

What ATC separation is provided between IFR aircraft in Class G Airspace

A

Traffic Info only

42
Q

Wake turbulence separation, what is the weight range for medium aircraft

A

Not sure

43
Q

What does local standby mean

A

Airport fire rescue is ready, others on standby

ATR-72 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions