ATP Written Flashcards

1
Q

Which is true about energy

A

Kinetic energy can be traded for potential energy, and potential energy can be traded for kinetic energy

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2
Q

The objective in maneuvering the airplane is to manage energy so that:

A

kinetic and potential energy stays between limits, chemical energy stays above certain thresholds

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3
Q

What is the effect on total drag if airspeed slows below L/D max

A

Drag increases because of increased induced drag

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4
Q

A jet pilot flying at L/D Max will obtain best:

A

endurance

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5
Q

When a jet aircraft is flown at the appropriate airspeed for maximum range, which type of drag predominates?

A

parasite

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6
Q

While already at high speed, what happens if mach is allowed to increase

A

airflow over parts of the airplane begins to exceed the speed of sound
shockwaves can cause local airflow separation
characteristics such as pitch, up, pitch down, or buffeting may occur

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7
Q

SoS generally decreases with increasing altitude this occurs because

A

temperature decreased

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8
Q

critical mach number can be defined as

A

the speed of an aircraft in which airflow over any part of the aircraft or structure first reaches, but doesn’t exceed Mach 1

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9
Q

What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a swept wing aircraft

A

a severe moment or ‘mach tuck’

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10
Q

stability in the vertical axis tends to drive the sideslip angle toward zero. the most dynamic stability about the vertical axis on modern jet is from

A

an active stability augmentation system / yaw dampers

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11
Q

swept wings cause a significant (Flaps)

A

reduction in effectiveness of flaps

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12
Q

Why is convergence of stall AoA and Mmo hazardous?
Decrease in airspeed ___
increase in airspeed ____

A

Any decrease in airspeed will cause the aircraft to buffet and potentially stall
any increase in airspeed will cause the aircraft to buffet and potentially suffer mach tuck
airspeed changes may occur due to environmental factors, without pilot input

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13
Q

To maintain altitude in a banked turn, the lift produced by the airplane must be

A

greater than the airplane weight, and the amount is a function of bank angle

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14
Q

Excessive bank angles at high altitudes can be hazardous because

A

the extra drag produced by the turn can lead to an excursion below LD max
aircraft engines at higher altitudes produce less thrust to overcome drag
the aircraft will be operating closer to its buffet boundaries

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15
Q
A
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16
Q

When operating at a constant airspeed with constant thrust setting at high altitude in slow flight below LD max airspeed, any disturbance causing a decrease in airspeed will result in a further decrease in airspeed unless thrust is increased. High altitude recovery from slow flight while turning is best accomplished by

A

increasing thrust to maximum available thrust and reducing bank angle while accelerating to airspeed above LD max speed. In a thrust limited situation, exiting slow flight will require an immediate descent as an aerodynamic stall is imminent

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17
Q

Maximum Altitude is the highest altitude at which an airplane can be operated. Maximum Altitude for an airplane is:
Maximum Certified Altitude - The altitude determined during certification set by the pressurization structural load limits on the fuselage.
(B) Thrust Limited Altitude - The altitude at which sufficient thrust is available to provide a specific minimum rate of climb.
(C) Buffet or Maneuver Limited Altitude - the altitude at which a specific maneuver margin exists prior to buffet onset.

A

The lowest of listed

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18
Q

Operational control of a flight refers to:

A

Exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight

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19
Q

In scheduling Part 121 operations, preflight planning is the responsibility of the:

A

pilot in command and dispatcher

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20
Q

In scheduled Part 121 operations, the pilot-in-command and dispatcher certify that the appropriate planning is complete by signing the:

A

dispatch release

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21
Q

True or False: Recovery from approach to stall warning is the same as recovery from a stall

A

True

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22
Q

Exceed the critical angle of attack and the surface will stall, and lift will decrease instead of increasing. This is true:

A

Regardless of airplane speed or attitude

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23
Q

True or False: The airplane angle of attack is the angle between the wing chord and the oncoming air or relative wind

A

True

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24
Q

(True or False): Airplane stall speeds are published in the Approved Flight Manual for each airplane model. These speeds are presented as a function of aircraft weight. Therefore, if a pilot maintains airspeed above the appropriate speed listed for the aircraft weight, the aircraft will not stall.

A

False

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25
Q

The stall speed of an airplane is:

A

affected by weight and bank angle

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26
Q

Large downward aileron deflections:

A

Could induce air separation over that portion of the wing at very high angles of attack

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27
Q

What are the correct steps for stall recovery

A

-Disconnect autopilot and autothrottle /autopilot
-Apply nose down pitch control until impending stall indications are eliminated
-Adjust bank angle to wings level
-apply thrust as needed
-Retract speed brakes and spoilers
-Return to the desired flight path

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28
Q

What is the leading environmental cause of airplane upsets

A

wake turbulence

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29
Q

The predominant cause of airplane upsets are

A

environmental

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30
Q

During recovery from an airplane upset:

A

pilots must be prepared to use full control authority

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31
Q

When should an upset recovery be initiated?

A

whenever an unintentional excessive divergence from the intended flight path and/or airspeed occurs

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32
Q

During recovery from a nose low, high bank angle airplane upset:

A

it may be necessary to unload the airplane by decreasing back pressure

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33
Q

In a nose high, wings level airplane upset, after accomplishing the first two recommended techniques…

A

Apply up to full nose down elevator and consider trimming off some control force

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34
Q

Why do de-icing methods typically require the airplane to be sprayed twice?

A

The second application of fluid or more viscous so it will stick to the airplane until takeoff for continued protection

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35
Q

Why is clear-air turbulence difficult to avoid?

A

a. It is not associated with visible moisture, making it difficult to detect visually
b. It is not associated with precipitation, making it difficult to detect on radar
c. It often occurs only in small areas and for short periods of time, making it difficult to predict accurately

36
Q

Radar attenuation occurs when:

A

A precipitation cell near the airplane absorbs/reflects all the radio energy from a radar puls, thus masking another cell behind it

37
Q

To determine whether they may conduct a particular low-visibility operation, an airline pilot primarily must consult:

A

The employer’s OpSpecs

38
Q

Category I ILS approaches have decision heights as low as _____ feet
Category Il approaches have DHs as low as _____
Category Ill approaches have DHs as low as _____
feet.
feet.

A

200; 100; 0

39
Q

If an autoland system is designed such that it can continue to a safe landing even after the failure of one component, that system is:

A

Fail-operational

40
Q

You come off duty at 9 am after working an overnight flight, and are scheduled to report at 9 pm to work another flight. When you arrive at your hotel, you find the room is not available until 2 pm. Will you be legal to fly as scheduled tonight?

A

No

41
Q

Symptoms of fatigue include:

A

lowed reaction times
Difficulty maintaining situational awareness
Changes in mood
Lapses in attention

42
Q

FAR 91.17 states that pilots cannot fly with a BAC of 0.04 percent or greater, or within 8 hours after consuming alcohol. As long as these requirements are net, is an airline pilot guaranteed to be safe to fly?

A

No, because individual airlines may set their own policies requiring waiting periods longer than 8 hours.

No, because a pilot may still be impaired by the effects of alcohol even after sobering up

43
Q

Which type of hypoxia could result if your aircraft depressurizes at altitude?

A

Hypoxic

44
Q

You are a regional airline first officer, and your captain steps out of the cockpit to use the lavatory. Do you put on your oxygen mask?

A

Yes, but only at altitudes above FL410.

45
Q

Which of the following are considered violations of the sterile cockpit rule?

A

Using your laptop to check how your fantasy football team is doing while cruising at FL370

Announcing connecting gate information to your passengers while taxing to the gate after landing

Drinking coffee while waiting to intercept the glideslope on an approach

46
Q

At some airports, pilots can receive pre-departure clearance (PDC) via:

A

acars/datalink

47
Q

HF radio is useful for some flight operations because it:

A

Can propagate over the horizon

48
Q

When learning a flow, you should use the order or sequence that

A

Is provided in company training materials

49
Q

If interrupted while performing a checklist, which is the best course of action?

A

Keep the checklist in hand until the interruption ends, then restart the checklist from the beginning

50
Q

Most normal checklists are:

A

do-verify checklists

51
Q

Including the allowance for carry-on baggage and personal items, what is the standard average passenger weight currently recommended by the FAA? (Assume it is summer.)

A

190lbs

52
Q

A planes LEMAC is 500 inches aft of datum and it’s MAC is 100 inches. You calculate that it’s center of gravity is located 522 inches aft 0f datum. What is the CG expressed in %MAC?

A

22%

53
Q

To minimize the length of runway required (or equivalently, maximize the weight at which we can take off from a given runway), we select V1 so that:

A

The accelerate-stop distance is equal to the accelerate-go distance

54
Q

When following the one-engine inoperative climb profile, what is the only configuration change allowed below 400 feet?

A

Retracting landing gear

55
Q

v1 cannot be

A

less than Vmcg
greater than Vr

56
Q

To maximize efficiency, a transport jet should gradually do what throughout a flight?

A

Climb

57
Q

Cyclic abrupt rudder inputs can:

A

Cause structural damage above Va-
Cause structural damage below Va-

58
Q

A piece of equipment on your aircraft malfunctions while in flight. Which document should you consult to determine how to continue?

A

QRH

58
Q

An item on the MEL has a remark labeled (M). This indicates that:

A

A (M)aintenance procedure must be completed before the airplane can be flown

59
Q

While reviewing the maintenance log for your aircraft, you discover that a category B item was reported at 9:15 on March 17th. The aircraft becomes unairworthy at the stroke of midnight at the end of:

A

March 20

60
Q

A pilot accidentally taxies across a runway that ATC did not clear them to cross. However, that runway is not currently in use, and so no aircraft were attempting to takeoff or land on that runway. Has the pilot committed a runway incursion?

A

Yes

61
Q

You are in low visibility at an unfamiliar airport, and you and your captain realize you have become disoriented. Your immediate next step should be:

A

determine the color of the centerline

62
Q

The centerline is yellow, so fortunately you aren’t on a runway. How should you proceed?

A

Stop the aircraft and request progressive taxi instructions from ATC

63
Q

You are back on track now, and you see a runway hold-short sign coming up. You remember that ATC cleared you to cross this runway; that’s good, because it doesn’t look like your captain plans to stop. What should you do next?

A

Verbally announce the upcoming hold short line, then scan for traffic on the runway

64
Q

You reach your assigned takeoff runway, and ATC advises you to line up and wait. Which lights should you turn on? Select all that apply.

A

Logo lights
Taxi lights
Rotating beacon
Anti-collision lights
Position/Navigation lights
(no landing lights)

65
Q

ATC didn’t tell you why you are waiting on the runway. How long should you wait before reminding ATC you are still holding?

A

90 seconds

66
Q

Which of the following is NOT a stage in a high bypass turbofan engine?

A

afterburning

67
Q

Pilots of general aviation aircraft commonly make approaches and landings with throttle settings near idle. Why is this technique inappropriate for turbine powered aircraft?

A

Turbine engines are slow to respond to changes in power setting

68
Q

Technology in modern airplanes reduces the flight crew workload. Therefore, while initiating the recovery from an upset, the pilot should:

A

Reduce the level of automation by disengaging the autopilot and autothrottles

69
Q

Where should a pilot look to determine which automation modes are currently active?

A

the flight mode annunciator

70
Q

What is the difference between the flight director and the autopilot?

A

The flight director calculates what control movements are required, and the autopilot executes them

71
Q

It is impossible to stall an airplane with “hard” envelope protections

A

False

72
Q

ATC instructs you to climb immediately at the same time as a TCAS resolution advisory says “Descend. Descend.” You should:

A

descend

73
Q

While at 15,000 feet, ATC asks you to fly at 280 knots. They then clear you to descend to 8000 feet. You should:

A

Descend at 280 knots to 10,000 feet, level off and slow down to 250 knots, then continue the descent at 250 knots

74
Q

The distinguishing feature of RNAV is that it:

A

Allows navigation along a direct route between any two points.

75
Q

While flying a standard RNAV (GPS) approach (special approval not required), how accurate must the navigation system be during the final approach segment?

A

Within 0.3 NM of the desired track, 95 percent of the time

76
Q

Numerous NTSB investigations have revealed a trend that indicates many accidents are caused by:

A

a. Lapses in pilot professionalism
b. Failure to adhere to SOPs
c. Failure to maintain sterile cockpit

77
Q

In addition to other pilot(s) on the flightdeck, which of the following groups of people should be included in good CRM?

A

a. Mechanics
b. Flight dispatchers
c. Flight attendants
d. Air traffic controllers

78
Q

You are a first officer for a regional airline. You notice that your captain, the pilot flying on this leg, has not slowed to 250 knows before descending through 10,000 feet? Which is the most effective way to raise your concern?

A

Captain Smith, I’m concerned about our airspeed. We’re still doing 280 knots, even though we’re below 10,000 feet

79
Q

Human error is a contributing factor in what percent of air carrier incidents/ accidents?

A

60-80%

80
Q

Social conversation in the cockpit is appropriate:

A

At times of low workload only

81
Q

Which is more important to the conduct of a safe flight?

A

Technical proficiency and crew coordination are equally essential

82
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four pillars of a safety management system

A

safety stand down

83
Q

Which of the following voluntary safety programs involves the collection and analysis of routine operational data from flight data recorders or quick access recorders?

A

FOQA

84
Q
A