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BE300 Study Guide > ATP Study > Flashcards

ATP Study Flashcards

1
Q

What is the total oil tank capacity?

A

14 US Quarts

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2
Q

What kind of battery is used?

A

42 amp hour, sealed, lead-acid battery

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3
Q

What does ESIS stand for?

A

Electronic standby instrument system

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4
Q

What switch can provide emergency cockpit lighting?

A

Instrument emergency lights on overhead

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5
Q

Where are the instrument emergency lights fed from?

A

Dual fed bus

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6
Q

What is the capacity of the nacelle tank?

A

54 gals

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7
Q

What is the capacity of the two leading edge tanks

A

Interior 40, exterior 13

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8
Q

What is the capacity of the integral tank?

A

35 gals

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9
Q

What is the capacity of the two box section tanks?

A

Exterior 25, interior 23

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10
Q

What is the capacity of the aux tanks?

A

79.5

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11
Q

How many fuel pumps does the aircraft have?

A

3 - engine drive fuel pump (HP) / primary boost pump (LP) / Electric standby fuel pump (LP)

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12
Q

What items are included on the accessory section of the engine?

A 
Oil scavenge pumps
Engine drive fuel pump
Primary boost pump
Starter generator
AC Compressor
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13
Q

What is the wingspan?

A

57’11”

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14
Q

What is the length?

A

46’8”

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15
Q

What is the tail height?

A

14’4”

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16
Q

What are the generators used for?

A

Starting and DC power generation

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17
Q

How are the generator buses connected to the center bus?

A

With the left and right bus tie relays

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18
Q

When the generator bus tie is in the open position, what happens?

A

The left and right bus ties relays and isolate the generator buses from center bus

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19
Q

When the generator bus tie control switch is in the norm position, what happens?

A

Allows the automatic closure of the left and right bus tie relays when either generator or the external power comes on line

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20
Q

When the generator bus tie control switch is in the man close position, what happens?

A

During battery operation, both generator bus ties are closed and the generator buses are powered from the battery

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21
Q

How is the electrical system protected from harmful surges by sensing a magnetic field upstream

A

Hall effect device (HED) open the circuit immediately in the event of a surge

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22
Q

How many HEDs are there?

A

3

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23
Q

Where are the HEDs located?

A

Between the battery, R, L and center buses

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24
Q

How is the HED system tested

A

Through the bus sense test switch on the pilot subpanel

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25
Q

How can you tell which equipment will remain operational after a dual generator failure?

A

A white circle around the switch

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26
Q

What does the EXT PWR annunciator indicate?

A

External power is electrically connected and supplying power to the aircraft

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27
Q

If the L/R DC GEN annunciator is illuminated, what does that mean?

A

The line contactor is open and the generator is offline

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28
Q

What information does the ESIS provide?

A 
Altitude
Airspeed
Attitude
Heading
Baro pressure
Nav 1
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29
Q

How does fuel move from the auxiliary tanks into the nacelles?

A

Through motive flow provided by pressure from the engine driven boost pump

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30
Q

How will you know if fuel is not moving from the aux tank into the nacelle?

A

NO TRANSFER light on the fuel control panel

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31
Q

How can you manually transfer fuel from the aux in the event of a motive flow failure

A

AUX TRANSFER OVERRIDE switch on the fuel panel

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32
Q

What would happen if the engine driven fuel pump fails?

A

Immediate flameout

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33
Q

What is the purpose of the engine drive boost pump?

A

To supply sufficient fuel pressure to the high pressure pump

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34
Q

What are the functions of the electrically driven standby pump?

A
  • Backup in the event of a boost pump failure
  • When avgas is used
  • Crossfeed operations
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35
Q

What is the indicator of a primary boost pump failure?

A

FUEL PRES LO indicator

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36
Q

What are the pressure thresholds to cause the FUEL PRES LO indicator?

A

Pressure decreased below 10 +/- 1 psi

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37
Q

How long can an engine be operated with the fuel pressure annunciator on?

A

10 hours

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38
Q

What is N1?

A

Gas generator rpm in percent of speed

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39
Q

What is P3?

A

Air pressure at station 3; the highest point of pressure in the engine

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40
Q

What helps to prevent a compressor stall from occurring during engine start and at power settings lower than 90% N1

A

Compressor bleed valve

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41
Q

What would indicate a compressor bleed valve failure?

A

Slower than normal N1 speed during start

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42
Q

What provides automatic ignition to help prevent engine loss due to combustion failure

A

Auto ignition system

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43
Q

In the ARM position, when does the auto ignition system come on

A

When the engine torque falls below 17%

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44
Q

How many fuel nozzles are there

A

14

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45
Q

How many of the fuel nozzles are primary and secondary?

A

7 and 7

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46
Q

When is each fuel nozzle manifold used

A

a. Primary is used during engine start

b. When N1 is between 35-40%, there is enough fuel pressure for the secondary

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47
Q

What is the minimum N1 value for the condition lever to be moved to low idle during start

A

12%

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48
Q

When the condition lever is moved to low idle, what is the time range for ITT rise

A

10 seconds

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49
Q

What do the power levers on the pedestal control?

A

The amount of power the engines are supplying to the propellers, measured as a percentage of the maximum compressor section speed (N1)

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50
Q

What is the minimum N1 value in the beta range?

A

62%

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51
Q

What is the normal range of the propeller RPM?

A

1450-1700

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52
Q

At low idle, what is the minimum N1 value?

A

62%

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53
Q

At high idle, what is the minimum N1 value?

A

70%

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54
Q

Describe the propellers

A

a. Full feathering
b. Constant speed
c. Counter-weighted
d. Reversing
e. Variable pitch

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55
Q

How is propeller pitch controlled?

A

Through governors that use engine oil to adjust blade angle

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56
Q

What happens to the propellers when there is a loss in oil pressure?

A

A feathering spring will drive the blades to the feather position

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57
Q

What is used to regulate propeller RPM by varying the propeller blade angle?

A

The primary governor

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58
Q

In the event of a primary governor failure, what prevents propeller speeds in excess of 1768 rpm?

A

The overspeed governor

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59
Q

What is the fuel topping governor?

A

In the event of a primary governor failure, the propeller RPM is limited to 106%. The fuel topping governor reduces fuel flow to aid

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60
Q

How is the overspeed governor tested?

A

PROP GOV TEST switch on pilots subpanel

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61
Q

When the PROP GOV TEST switch is selected to the overspeed position, what is the new governor range?

A

1500 to 1610 rpm

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62
Q

When are the L/R PROP PITCH annunciators illuminated?

A

When the propeller pitch is more than 8 degrees below the flight idle pitch stop and the aircraft is on the ground

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63
Q

What system forces the propeller to feather when the engine torque drops below 10%?

A

Auto feather

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64
Q

How is the autofeather system tested during run up?

A

a. By using the spring loaded test position of the autofeather switch
b. When switch is moved to test, the 88% N1 switches are disabled and the system now arms at 22%
c. Simulate engine failure by retarding a power lever

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65
Q

When will the AUTOFTHER OFF annunciator be illuminated?

A

When the gear is down and autofeather is not armed

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66
Q

What must the pilot do before engaging the prop sync?

A

Manually set the propellers to with 20 rpm of each other

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67
Q

What is a hot start?

A

a. Indicated by a rapid rise in ITT or ITT exceeding 820

b. Limitation for start is 1000C not to exceed 5 secs

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68
Q

What is a hung start?

A

Indicated by the lack of engine acceleration following ignition and light off, ITT will not move

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69
Q

What are the components of the engine fire detection system?

A

a. Gas filled heat sensitive cable
b. Amplifier
c. Annunciator lights

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70
Q

In the event of an engine fire or overtemp conditions, what annunciator will illuminate?

A

L/R ENGINE FIRE

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71
Q

How is the engine fire system tested?

A

a. When the eng fire test switches on copilots side are moved to DET:
i. Master warning flashers
ii. ENG FIRE annunciator
iii. Red FIRE annunciation on specific engine display on MFD
b. When the eng fire test switches are moved to EXT position:
i. Corresponding EXTINGUISHER PUSH and DISCHARGED annunciators

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72
Q

Where is bleed air extracted from?

A

The third stage of the engine compressor

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73
Q

What is the pneumatic system controlled by in the cockpit?

A

Two bleed air valves on the copilots side subpanel

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74
Q

What systems use pneumatic air?

A

a. Flight hour meter
b. Window defog
c. Hydraulic reservoir pressure
d. Bleed air warning system
e. Cabin door seal inflation

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75
Q

Can a single engine power all bleed air requirements?

A

Yes

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76
Q

What systems use the vacuum source?

A

a. Deice boots

b. Pressurizations

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77
Q

How is the vacuum system created?

A

By running pneumatic system air through a venture

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78
Q

What do the L/R BLEED FAIL annunciators indicate?

A

The plastic tubing of the warning system melted and released it’s 18 psi of pressure

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79
Q

When the L/R BLEED FAIL annunciators turn on, what are the actions required?

A

Turn the corresponding bleed air valve switch to off

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80
Q

What is the normal operating range of the pneumatic pressure gauge?

A

12 to 20 psi

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81
Q

What is the normal operating range of the vacuum gauge?

A

a. Narrow arc (35k to 15k) 2.8-4.3

b. Wide arc (15k-SL) 4.3-5.9

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82
Q

How does ice protection for the engine work?

A

When the pilot selects ENG ANTI-ICE ON, movable vanes are repositioned in the inlet airstream to induce an abrupt turn in the airflow. Heavy moist air is directed out of the cowling

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83
Q

How is the lip of engine inlet heated?

A

By hot exhaust gases

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84
Q

What should the pilot see when they turn the ENG ANTI-ICE switches on?

A

L/R ENG ANTI-ICE annunciators within 30 seconds

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85
Q

What happens if the ice vane in the engine anti ice system does not reach it’s required position?

A

L/R ENG ICE FAIL annunciator illuminates after 30-40 seconds

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86
Q

How is ice prevented on the propeller?

A

Each propeller has an electrically heated deice boot

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87
Q

Describe operations when the propeller deice is operated in the automatic mode?

A

a. A timer is used to supply electricity to the right propellers for 90 seconds and then the left for 90 seconds
b. Cycle will continue until switched off

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88
Q

How does the pilot operate the manual propeller deice system?

A

Pilot must hold up the manual switch for 90 seconds – both propellers are receiving power at the same time

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89
Q

How does a pilot know if the manual propeller deice system is functional?

A

a. Normally, the prop deice ammeter would show in the auto mode, manual there is no indication
b. Instead, there should be a slight increase in the generator load meters for manual mode

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90
Q

How is ice removed from the leading edge of the wing and horizontal stabilizer?

A

a. Through rubber deicing boots
i. Pneumatic air inflates the boots
ii. Vacuum pressure is used to deflate and hold boots to the wing edge

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91
Q

What switch operates the leading edge deice boots?

A

The SURFACE DEICE switch

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92
Q

Describe the surface deice operations when held to the single switch?

A

Wing deicer boots inflate for 6 seconds and then tail deice boots inflate for 4 seconds

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93
Q

Describe the surface deice operations when held in the manual position?

A

All surface deicer boots will inflate and stay inflated until switch is released

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94
Q

How does the pilot know that the boots are inflated?

A

When the WING DEICE and TAIL DEICE annunciators are illuminated

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95
Q

What is the max ambient air temp to operate the brake deice?

A

15C

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96
Q

When can the brake deice be operated continuously?

A

When the gear is down

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97
Q

What are the time limits for brake deice when the gear is up?

A

10 mins

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98
Q

What prevents ice from collecting in the fuel control unit?

A

Oil to fuel heat exchanger

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99
Q

When is the engine anti ice turned on?

A

In ambient temperatures of 5C or below, or in weather

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100
Q

How does P3 air become environmental bleed air?

A

P3 air is routed through a flow control unit which modulates air temp and pressure

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101
Q

What are the system components that manage cabin pressure?

A

a. Cabin pressurization controller
b. Outflow valve
c. Safety valve

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102
Q

What determines what the pressure altitude in the cabin should be?

A

Pressurization controller

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103
Q

What maintains the commanded cabin altitude by varying the rate at which air escapes from the pressure vessel?

A

Outflow valve

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104
Q

What is installed to protect the pressure vessel and assist the outflow valve?

A

Safety valve

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105
Q

When will the L/R BL AIR OFF annunciators be illuminated?

A

If the left or right bleed air valve is in either ENVIR OFF or PNEU/ENVIR OFF

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106
Q

What controls the environmental bleed air flow volume?

A

ENVIR BLEED AIR switch

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107
Q

Describe what happens when the envir bleed air switch is in the low position?

A

Reduces the bleed air for environmental purposes to about half
b. May be used when ambient temp is greater than 10C to ensure t/o power available

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108
Q

When is the NORM position for the envir bleed air switch used?

A

a. For increased heating or if pressurization is required

b. Normally selected during the climb phase

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109
Q

What does the AUTO position of the envir bleed air switch do?

A

a. Automatically selects the flow setting based upon the heat demanded to maintain temp or pressure requirements

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110
Q

What is the maximum operating cabin pressure differential?

A

6.6 psi

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111
Q

What does ‘catching the cabin’ mean?

A

a. When the aircraft descends faster than the cabin
i. If the aircraft altitude equals the cabin altitude, the outflow valve will open and the cabin will descend at the same high rate that the aircraft is descending

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112
Q

When will the CABIN ALTITUDE annunciator be lit?

A

If the CABIN ALT gauge exceeds 10000 feet

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113
Q

When will the CABIN ALT HI annunciator be lit?

A

Over 12000 feet

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114
Q

If the cabin pressure switch is in the DUMP position, what will the maximum cabin alt be?

A

13500

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115
Q

When does the CABIN DIFF HI annunciator illuminate?

A

When the pressure differential is greater than 6.9 psi

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116
Q

What components make up the landing gear hydraulic system?

A

a. Hydraulic power pack in the left wing
b. Actuator in each wheel well
c. Manual hand pump
d. Landing gear control handle

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117
Q

When will the landing gear warning horn go off?

A

When the flaps are up or approach and either or both power levers are below 85% N1

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118
Q

What system senses torque differences in both engines and deflects the rudder to assist with directional control?

A

Rudder boost

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119
Q

What system sense changes in the aircraft’s heading and automatically compensates with the rudder?

A

Yaw damper

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120
Q

How are all flight controls besides the flaps operated?

A

Through cables

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121
Q

How are the flaps operated?

A

Electrically

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122
Q

What helps to prevent asymmetrical flap deployment?

A

Left and right split flap switches monitor for more than 3-6 degrees out of phase

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123
Q

If the split flap switch stops the flap motor due to asymmetry, can the pilot do anything?

A

No, the pilot will have no control over the flaps through the flap lever

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124
Q

What will happen when the trim disconnect switch is pressed to the first level?

A

The autopilot, yaw damper and rudder boost disconnect

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125
Q

What will happen when the trim disconnect switch is pressed to the second level?

A

The autopilot, yaw damper, rudder boost and electric trim are disconnected

126
Q

What is the maximum altitude for operations with an inoperative yaw damper?

A

5000 feet

127
Q

Do the pilot and copilot share pitot information?

A

No, there are independent pitot and static systems for both

128
Q

What avionics section uses pitot information?

A

The air data computer (ADC)

129
Q

What provides total air pressure to the ESIS?

A

Copilot’s mast

130
Q

What are each static ports connected to?

A

The top port on the left side is connected to the bottom port on the right side and the resulting average pressure is supplied to the pilots static air source valve

131
Q

What are the opposite static ports connected to?

A

Copilots ADC and ESIS

132
Q

What kind of oxygen system is used for the crew?

A

Diluter demand, quick donning masks

133
Q

What kind of oxygen system is used for passengers?

A

Constant flow type masks

134
Q

How many oxygen cylinders are used in the system?

A

One, located in the unpressurized area of the aft fuselage

135
Q

When will the OXY NOT ARMED annunciator be illuminated?

A

When the oxygen handle on left pedestal has not been pulled out

136
Q

What will cause the passenger masks to receive oxygen?

A

When cabin pressure is above 12500 or the handle on the right side pedestal has been pulled

137
Q

What aircraft certification category is limited to propeller driven, multiengine aircraft that have a seating configuration, excluding pilot seats, of 19 or less and a maximum certificated takeoff weight of 19000 lbs or less?

A

Commuter category

138
Q

What CFR applies to commuter category aircraft?

A

14 CFR Part 23

139
Q

What’s function is to increase the angle of attack during approach and landing at a slower airspeed?

A

Flaps

140
Q

What does a change in the angle of attack also change?

A

Lift, drag and airspeed

141
Q

The angle of attack at which a wing stall remains constant regardless of?

A

Weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle or pitch attitude

142
Q

What is stall speed affected by?

A

Weight, load factor and power setting

143
Q

What is the rotation of a spin based around of?

A

The CG

144
Q

How does pressure above and below a wing relate to lift?

A

Lift results from higher air pressure below the wing and lower air pressure above the wing surface

145
Q

How is lift and parasitic drag affected by airspeed?

A

As airspeed increases, lift and parasite drag increases as the square of the increase in airspeed.

146
Q

What happens to an aircraft leaving ground effect?

A

Experiences an increase in induced drag and requires more thrust

147
Q

What axis is longitudinal stability?

A

lateral axis

148
Q

What axis is lateral stability

A

Longitudinal axis

149
Q

What axis is directional stability?

A

Vertical axis

150
Q

What is the ratio between the total airload imposed on an airplane wing in flight and the gross weight of the airplane?

A

Load factor

151
Q

What is expressed in terms of true airspeed in knots to the speed of sound in knots?

A

Transonic and supersonic flight speeds, known as the mach number

152
Q

What is the highest flight speed possible without supersonic flow?

A

The critical mach number

153
Q

What is the difference between direction indicated by a magnetic compass not installed and one installed in an airplane?

A

Compass deviation

154
Q

What are the flight requirements for special VFR in class D?

A

Clear of clouds and 1 sm visibility

155
Q

What are the requirements for special VFR at night?

A

Instrument rated pilot and aircraft

156
Q

What airspace is class E?

A

Federal airways

157
Q

What are the limitations of federal airways?

A

1200 AGL up to but not including 18000 MSL

158
Q

What is an area of land or water used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft, and includes its buildings or facilities, if any?

A

Airport

159
Q

What are the aircraft class ratings in regards to the airmen?

A

Single engine land, multi engine land, ASES, AMES

160
Q

What is a pilot supposed to do if convicted with a DUI?

A

Provide a written report to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Divison no later than 60 days

161
Q

When may a pilot log second in command time?

A

All flight time when qualified and occupying as a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot

162
Q

What are the night restrictions on a commercial pilot if they do not reach recent experience requirements?

A

They may not carry passengers from 1 hr after to 1 hr before sunrise

163
Q

When must a written report be submitted to the FAA if a deviation occurs?

A

When requested

164
Q

When must an ELT be recharged or replaced

A

After 1 hour of cumulative use or 50%

165
Q

What category of airplane does not permit persons or property for compensation?

A

Restricted, limited, primary and experimental category

166
Q

If an engine is rebuilt, what must the new maintenance record include?

A

The status of the previous airworthiness directives

167
Q

What maintenance records must be kept for each airplane?

A

a. Current status of the life limited parts of airframe, engines, propeller, rotor and appliance
b. Current status of Ads
c. Preventative maintenance accomplished by a pilot

168
Q

What does the NTSB define as a serious injury?

A

Hospitalization for more than 48 hours within 7 days

169
Q
  1. What must be reported to the NTSB immediately?
A

a. Inability of flight crewmember to perform duties as a result of injury or illness
b. In flight fire
c. Flight control system malfunction or failure

170
Q

Is damage to the landing gear, wheels or tires considered substantial damage?

A

No

171
Q

What does air density vary inversely with?

A

Altitude, temperature, and humidity

172
Q

What does air density vary directly with?

A

Barometric pressure

173
Q

What is a result of insufficient oxygen to the body as a whole?

A

Hypoxic hypoxia

174
Q

What occurs when the blood can’t transport oxygen?

A

Hypemic hypoxia

175
Q

What occurs when oxygen rich blood in the lungs is not moving?

A

Stagnant hypoxia

176
Q

What is the inability of cells to effectively use oxygen?

A

Histotoxic hypoxia

177
Q

What is a systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances?

A

Aeronautical decision making

178
Q

What is the part of the ADM process that relies on situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgement to reduce risks associated with each flight?

A

Risk management

179
Q

What is a six step process that provides pilots with a logical way of approaching ADM?

A

The decide model

a. Detect – detecting the change
b. Estimate – estimation of the need to counter the change
c. Choose – chooses a desirable outcome
d. Identify – identifies actions that can successfully control the change
e. Do – takes the action
f. Evaluate – the effects

180
Q

How much time must supplemental oxygen provide above FL250 to passengers?

A

At least 10 minutes

181
Q

What happens if one pilot leaves the flight deck above FL350?

A

The pilot at the controls must wear and use an oxygen mask until the other returns

182
Q

What is the exception to the oxygen rule while above FL350 but below FL410?

A

Neither pilot has to wear a mask if both pilots are at the controls and has a quick donning type mask that can be placed on the face with one hand and operated in 5 seconds

183
Q

What forms are ABO available in?

A

Gas or liquid

184
Q

What is the advantage of ABO in the gas form?

A

Its more economical, it can be stored in low- or high-pressure containers

185
Q

What is the disadvantage of ABO in the gas form?

A

Storage tanks can be large and heavy

186
Q

What is the advantage of liquid ABO?

A

Has 900 to 1 expansion ratio so it can be stored in a lower weight container

187
Q

What is the disadvantage of liquid ABO?

A

Liquid is stored at 197 F below zero and can have volatile reactions with petroleum products

188
Q

What are the three different types of oxygen flows?

A

Continuous, diluter demand and pressure demand

189
Q

When is the pressure demand system used?

A

Designed to be used above 40000 feet where its not possible to obtain 100% oxygen without a pressurized system to deliver it

190
Q

How would the altimeter function if the pitot tube is blocked?

A

The altimeter would continue to function normally

191
Q

What will happen to the altimeter if the static port becomes blocked?

A

The altimeter will freeze on the altitude

192
Q

How does the airspeed indicator work?

A

Measures the difference between the ram air pressure and the static pressure

193
Q

How do gyroscopic instruments work?

A

a. Are based on the principle of rigidity in space.

b. A vacuum pump or electrical power spins a gyro in the instrument at a high rate of speed, keeping it rigid in space

194
Q

What happens to the airspeed indicator if the static port becomes blocked?

A

Indicate higher as the airplane descends and lower as the airplane ascends

195
Q

Can an airplane operate in a TFR?

A

Only with a waiver or advance permission from the FAA

196
Q

What is a warning area?

A

Located offshore and are established to alert pilots of activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft

197
Q

What is an alert area?

A

Established to notify pilots of unusual aerial activity but flight is always permitted in them

198
Q

What is a MOA?

A

MOAs are established to separate IFR and military traffic. VFR flight is permitted through them

199
Q

What is a restricted area?

A

Established to contain unusual, often invisible hazards to aircraft. Flight restricted when active

200
Q

What are the dimensions of a federal airway?

A

1200 up to but not including 18000 MSL

201
Q

What are the typical dimensions of Class D?

A

a. Surface to 2500

b. 5 SM radius

202
Q
  1. Are you authorized to enter Class D if the controller does not specifically use the word cleared?
A

Yes as soon as two way communications are established

203
Q

What are the dimensions of Class C?

A

a. Lower layer – surface to 4000 – for 5 NM

b. Shelf area – 10 NM radius and extends from 1200 to 4000 above airport elevation

204
Q

What class of airspace requires clearance prior to entry?

A

B

205
Q

What constitutes clearance into Class B?

A

When the controller specifically says cleared

206
Q

What is the base and ceiling of Class A?

A

18000 to 60000 MSL

207
Q

How far off coast does Class A extend?

A

12 NM

208
Q

What kind of fog forms almost exclusively at night or near daybreak under a clear sky, with little or no wind and with a small temperature dew point spread?

A

Radiation fog

209
Q

What kind of fog forms when moist air moves over colder ground or water?

A

Advection fog

210
Q

What forms as a result of moist, stable air being cooled adiabatically as it moves up sloping terrain?

A

Upslope fog

211
Q

What forms when relatively warm rain falls through cool air?

A

Precipitation fog

212
Q

What forms in winter when cold, dry air passes from land areas over comparatively warm ocean waters?

A

Steam fog

213
Q

What kinds of clouds are composed almost entirely of ice crystals?

A

High clouds, bases range 16500-45000

214
Q

What are some examples of high clouds?

A

Cirrostratus, cirrocumulus and cirrus

215
Q

What are composed primarily of water, which may be supercooled?

A

Middle clouds, bases 6500-23000

216
Q

What are some examples of middle clouds?

A

Altostratus, altocumulus

217
Q

What are composed of almost entirely of water?

A

Low clouds, surface to 6500

218
Q

What are some examples of low clouds?

A

Stratus, stratocumulus and nimbostratus

219
Q

What is necessary for a thunderstorm to build?

A

a. sufficient water vapor
b. an unstable lapse rate
c. a lifting action

220
Q

What are the three stages of a thunderstorm?

A

The cumulus stage, characterized by updrafts. The mature stage, characterized by precipitation beginning and the dissipating, characterized by downdrafts

221
Q

What type of thunderstorms most often result from surface heating and only last about 20-90 mins?

A

Air mass thunderstorm

222
Q

What type of thunderstorm is usually associated with weather systems and may last for several hours?

A

Steady state thunderstorms

223
Q

What are the three types of icing?

A

Clear, rime and mixed

224
Q

What forms clear icing?

A

Water droplets that flow across the surface before freezing

225
Q

What forms rime icing?

A

Small water droplets that freeze on impact without spreading

226
Q

What forms mixed icing?

A

A variable size of droplet that has both clear and rime characteristics

227
Q

When would the threat of LLWS increase around an airport?

A

Either with a low level temperature inversion or just before a warm front passes

228
Q

What causes the wind to flow from an area of high pressure to one of low pressure?

A

Pressure gradient force

229
Q

What would cause the adiabatic lapse rate to vary?

A

moisture content of the air

230
Q

What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate?

A

3 degrees per 1000 ft

231
Q

What is the average adiabatic lapse rate?

A

2 degrees per 1000 ft

232
Q

How can a pilot use the ambient lapse rate to determine the stability of air masses?

A

By viewing the lapse rate, or temperature change as altitude increases, a higher lapse rate with higher humidity can indicate instability

233
Q

Why is moist air less stable than dry air?

A

Moist air cools adiabatically at a slower rate, which means it must rise higher before the temperature cools.

234
Q

What is the difference between ambient and adiabatic lapse rates?

A

Ambient is the actual temperature change associated with increases in altitude. Adiabatic means no heat gain or loss, only a decrease in temperature because of expansion

235
Q

When does a temperature inversion usually develop?

A

near the ground on cool, clear nights when the wind is light

236
Q

What is the dew point?

A

The temperature at which the air will be saturated with moisture

237
Q

What instruments are fed by the pitot-static system?

A

Altimeter, VSI and Airspeed

238
Q

What does the pitot tube provide?

A

Airspeed

239
Q

Why is an alternate static source usually a lower pressure than normal static source?

A

The venturi effect of the flow around the cockpit. Since the air around the cockpit is accelerated, there is a lower pressure.

240
Q

What indications can be expected if an alternate static source is used?

A

a. Altimeter higher than actual
b. VSI will initially indicate a climb
c. Airspeed will indicate greater than actual

241
Q

What is the maximum permissible VOR bearing error over airborne checkpoints?

A

6 degrees

242
Q

What is the maximum different between two indicators of a dual VOR system?

A

4 degrees

243
Q

What is the maximum permissible VOR bearing error over ground checkpoints?

A

4 degrees

244
Q

If using a VOT to check VORs, what should a 0 or 180 bearing show?

A

0 From, 180 To

245
Q

What displays the slant range in nautical miles?

A

DME

246
Q

How many degrees is a full scale VOR deflection?

A

10

247
Q

How can you measure station deviation with VOR?

A

200 feet per dot per NM

248
Q

What are the conditions for a special VFR clearance?

A

Remain clear of clouds and vis 1 SM. Both pilot and aircraft IFR rated

249
Q

What are the IFR fuel requirements

A

Fly to intended airport, then alternate, then 45 mins after at normal cruising speed

250
Q

When must an alternate airport be listed

A

1 hour before and and after ETA, ceiling of at least 2000 ft and visibility of at least 3 SM

251
Q

To list an airport as an alternate with a nonprecision approach, what must the weather be?

A

800 ft ceiling and 2 SM

252
Q

To list an airport as an alternate with a precision approach, what must the weather be?

A

600 ft ceiling and 2 SM

253
Q

If no instrument approaches are prescribed, the minimums for listing an airport as an alternate must be?

A

Forecast weather must allow for descent from the MEA, approach and landing under basic VFR

254
Q

What are the minimum altitudes for IFR flight is none is prescribed?

A

2000 above highest obstacle within 4 NM of mountainous, 1000 feet for nonmountainous

255
Q

What are the requirements for use of supplemental oxygen?

A

Above 12,500 up to and including 14000 pilots can fly for 30 mins without. Above 14000, must use. Above 15000 all passengers provided.

256
Q

Under which circumstances must a transponder be used and operable?

A

a. within class B
b. within 30 NM of the primary class B airport
c. within and above class C
d. Above 10000 MSL except at and below 2500
e. in class A

257
Q

How often must the static pressure and altimeter instrument be tested?

A

24 months

258
Q

What NTSB part covers the notification and reporting of aircraft accidents or incidents?

A

NTSB part 830

259
Q

When may an aircraft operate below the DA or MDA?

A
  1. The aircraft is descending in a position to land at a normal rate of descent
  2. Flight visibility is not less than the chart
  3. Visual reference with one of:
    Approach lights, runway threshold, threshold markings, threshold lights, REILs, VASI, TDZ markings, TDZL, runway markings or runway lights
260
Q

What are the takeoff minimums for flights operating under parts 121, 125, 129 or 135?

A
  1. 1 SM vis for aircraft with 2 engines or less
  2. 1/2 SM for aircraft with more than 2 engines
  3. Or the visibility prescribed under part 97
261
Q

What is the required equipment for VFR day?

A
  • Altimeter
  • Tachometer
  • Oil Pressure
  • Magnetic direction indicator
  • Airspeed
  • Temperature gauge for engine
  • Oil temp
  • Fuel gauge
  • Landing gear indicator
  • Anticollision lights
  • Manifold pressure gauge
  • ELT
  • Shoulder harness / safety belt
  • Pyrotechnic signaling device
  • Flotation gear
262
Q

What is the required equipment for VFR night?

A
  • Same as VFR day
  • Nav lights
  • Landing lights
  • Source of electricity
  • Spare fuses
263
Q

What is the required equipment for IFR?

A
  • Generator or Alternator.
  • Radio/Navigation Appropriate For Flight.
  • Attitude Indicator.
  • Ball (Inclinometer)
  • Clock.
  • Altimeter (Pressure Sensitive)
  • Rate of Turn Indicator.
  • Directional Gyro
264
Q

How often must an ELT be inspected?

A

12 months

265
Q

What NOTAMS include airport or runway closures, changes in nav aids and other information essentail to planned en route or terminal operations?

A

NOTAM Ds

266
Q

What NOTAMS are issued by the flight data center and contain regulatory information such as amendments to published instrument approach charts?

A

FDC NOTAMS

267
Q

What NOTAMS reduce total NOTAM volume by pointing to others?

A

Pointer NOTAMS

268
Q

What are issued with Special Activity Airspace (SAA) will be active outside of the published schedule times?

A

SAA NOTAMS

269
Q

What NOTAMS reference military airports?

A

Military NOTAMs

270
Q

What states in part that the internal pressure of a fluid (liquid or gas) decreases at points where the speed of the fluid increases?

A

Bernoullis principle

271
Q

How does Bernoullis principle apply to an airplane wing?

A

A wing is designed with curve or camber. When air flows along the upper wing surface, it travels a greater distance in the same period of time (faster) than the lower wing surface. Thus the pressure is less above than below and lift is generated.

272
Q

What imaginary point is the sum of all lift forces?

A

Center of lift, or the center of pressure

273
Q

What is the imaginary point of balance?

A

Center of gravity

274
Q

What is the rearward force resulting from the forward movement of the airplane?

A

Drag

275
Q

What is the undesirable but avoidable by-product of lift?

A

Induced drag

276
Q

What happens to induced drag as the angle of attack is increased?

A

Induced drag increases as well as the negative pressure on top of the wing increases.

277
Q

How is induced drag varied with speed?

A

Induced drag varies inversely as the square of the airspeed. Reducing airspeed by half, (120 to 60) increases the induced drag by four times

278
Q

What is the resistance of the air as the airplane passes through it?

A

Parasite drag

279
Q

How is parasitic drag affected by speed

A

As the speed increases, the amount of parasite drag increases as the square of the velocity. Speed doubles, parasite drag is four times greater.

280
Q

What the three types of parasitic drag?

A

Form, skin friction and interference drag

281
Q

What does the battery bus switch control?

A

A remote control circuit breaker (RCCB) which functions as the battery bus contactor

282
Q

What must the minimum battery charge amps be for takeoff?

A

10 amps

283
Q

What are the functions of the generation control unit (GCU)?

A
  • Line contactor relay control
  • Voltage regulation
  • Generator paralleling/load sharing
  • Overexcitation protection
  • Reverse current sensing and control
  • Overvoltage protection
284
Q

What level does the GCU control generator output at?

A

28.25 volts +/- .25

285
Q

What is similar to a fuse and links the center bus and triple fed bus with the generator bus?

A

Current limiters

286
Q

Can a current limiter be reset?

A

No

287
Q

When will the L/R NO FUEL XFR light illuminate?

A

When the 6 +/- 1 psi pressure switch is activated (less than 6 psi pressure) and there is fuel sensed in the Aux tank

288
Q

What does it mean when the FW fuel valve in flashing?

A

the valve is not in the selected position

289
Q

Where do the FW valves received power from

A

The triple fed bus

290
Q

What fuels can be used?

A

Jet A, Jet A1, JP-5 and JP-8

291
Q

Briefly describe the engine of the BE300

A

The PT6A-60A is a reverse flow, free turbine type that uses two independent turbine sections

292
Q

What is included in the compressor section of the engine?

A
  • Three stage axial flow compressor

- One centrifugal compressor driven by a single turbine wheel

293
Q

What is included in the power section of the engine?

A
  • The reduction gearbox which drives the propeller

- Reduction gear box is powered by two turbine wheels

294
Q

What is the total amount of turbine wheels in the PT6A-60?

A

Three

295
Q

Describe the operational flow of the engine

A

-As air enters the engine, it is compressed and heated
in the compressor section
-then it is mixed with fuel and
ignited in the combustion chamber
-The exhaust from
the combustion chamber, now at a high velocity and
temperature, passes over the turbine wheels which
extract energy from the exhaust, which is used to turn
the compressors and the propeller
-After passing the
last turbine wheel, the exhaust is collected, routed
into the exhaust duct assembly and directed to the
atmosphere by twin opposed exhaust stacks

296
Q

What does free turbine mean?

A

There is no direct connection between the compressor and power section

297
Q

What engine accessories are not mounted on the accessory gearbox?

A
  • Prop governor
  • overspeed governor
  • tachometer generator
298
Q

Why can compressor stalls occur?

A

The axial flow compressors can provide more airflow than the centrifugal compressor can absorb

299
Q

How is oil pushed through the engine?

A
  • Oil is picked up from the tank and pressurized from the internal pressure pump
  • Pressurized oil sent to lubricate bushing, bearings / also sent to prop governor and the accessory section for oil temp and pressure sensors
  • Returned to the tank by two scavenge pumps
300
Q

What does moving the power levers into Beta change?

A

Only the blade angle, does not change N1

301
Q

What happens when the power levers are moved past beta into the reverse range?

A
  • propeller blades change to reverse pitch angles

- control linkage from the cambox to the fuel control unit increases N1 the farther back the levers are pulled

302
Q

What happens when the prop levers are pulled into the feather position?

A
  • the pilot valve is pulled up
  • oil drains from the propeller hub into the case
  • propeller feathering spring and counter weights feather the propeller
303
Q

What is mounted on top of the gear reduction housing and is used to regulate prop RPM by varying blade angle?

A

Primary governor

304
Q

How does the engine fire detection system work?

A

When the temperature around the cable rises to a factory preset point, the gases expand and the contacts close, and the printed circuit board sends a signal to alert the pilot

305
Q

What modulates bleed air for pressure and temperature?

A

Flow control unit

306
Q

What is bleed air called after it passes through the flow control unit?

A

Environmental bleed air

307
Q

Where is the hydraulic power pack located?

A

In the left inboard wing bay, 28 VDC

308
Q

What acts as a cushion against hydraulic pressure surges in the system?

A

Accumulator. Also helps with keeping the pressure in gear up position

309
Q

How do the flaps operate?

A

An electric motor drives a gearbox which is connected to four flexible driveshafts. A clutch and potentiometer help to prevent over-travel and indications.

310
Q

How many avionics buses does the avionics master switch control?

A

3

311
Q

If the avionics buses become disconnected as a result of a control circuit fault, what can the pilot do?

A

Pull the avionics master circuit breaker to restore power

312
Q

What are the three sizes of oxygen tanks?

A

50, 77 or 115 cubic foot cylinders

BE300 Study Guide (3 decks)

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