ATP Requirements Flashcards

1
Q

What is a commander’s evaluation for, and what does it consist of?

A

TC 1-696, para 2-8; Commander’s Evaluation determines the initial RL level, it consists of a records review and possible a Proficiency Flight Evaluation.

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2
Q

How long does each crewmember have to present his or her individual flight records (IFRF and IATF) to the new unit to which assigned or attached for ATP purposes after reporting for duty?

A

14 calendar days (AR 95-23 2-7)

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3
Q

The ________ determines the initial RL of newly assigned crewmembers. (1-696 pg 2-2)

A

Commanders Evaluation

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4
Q

If the initial RL cannot be determined by a records review or if the commander desires, the crewmember will undergo a proficiency flight evaluation (PFE). What tasks should the PFE include?

A

The PFE should include tasks from each flight mode in which the crewmember can expect to perform duties. TC 1-696 2-10

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5
Q

The ATP training year is divided into semiannual training periods. When does the first training period begin for Active Army and USAR crewmembers?

A

First day following their birth month

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6
Q

What are the semiannual flying hour requirements for FAC 3 personnel?

A

No flight authorized for FAC3

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7
Q

What are the semiannual flying hour requirements for FAC 2 personnel? ______ hours, of which ______ hours must be flown in each crew station. TC 1-696 C-1 pg 8-1

A

12 and 4

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8
Q

What are the semiannual flying hour requirements for FAC 1 personnel? _______ hours, of which _____ hours must be flown in each crew station. TC 1-696 C-1 pg 8-1

A

24 and 8

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9
Q

FAC 1 UAC’s may apply a maximum of ___ simulation hours flown in a semiannual period toward that period’s semiannual flying-hour requirements

A

12

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10
Q

FAC 2 UAC’s may apply a maximum of ___simulation hours flown in a semiannual period toward that period’s semiannual flying-hour requirements.
(TC 1-696 C-2)

A

6

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11
Q

According to ATM, the commander may direct a Proficiency Flight Evaluation to be conducted for 3 reasons. What are 2 of them?

A

Initial RL determination, when proficiency is in question, when currency has lapsed.

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12
Q

After conducting a PFE the examiner will debrief the individual and record the event on DA form

A

7122-R

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13
Q

According to AR 95-23, there are 4 hands-on evaluations that could be given to an UAC. Name two. 95-23 4-9

A

a) Standardization flight eval
b) Proficiency flight eval
c) Post Mishap eval
d) Medical eval

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14
Q

What are the currency requirements for UACs?

A

Perform every 60 consecutive days a take-off and recovery and 1 hour of flight operations of the UAS or a compatible simulator.
Perform every 120 consecutive days a takeoff and recovery and 1 hour of flight operations of the UAS. TC 696 C-3 pg. 8-2

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15
Q

According to 95-23, ground observers will be evaluated:

A

Semi- annually, according to the unit SOP and training program {para. 4-27}

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16
Q

According to 95-23, ground crewmembers will be evaluated:

A

Semi-annually {para. 4-26 (5) c.}

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17
Q

When does flying time start for a fixed-wing UAS?

A

When the UAS begins to move forward on the takeoff roll (AR 95-23 2-6)

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18
Q

Units deployed for contingency operations, the first ____ commander may waive launch and recovery currency requirements. Prior to resuming launch and recovery duties, personnel must demonstrate proficiency to an IO. (TC 1-696 para C-4)

A

O-6

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19
Q

TRUE or FALSE. Commanders (LTC/O-5) and above may grant unit waivers and/or extensions, up to 180 days, to ATP requirements for units under their command during operational deployments.

A

FALSE

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20
Q

Commanders _____ and above and the state Army aviation officer (SAAO) may grant unit waivers and/or extensions to ATP requirements (for up to 180 days) for units under their command, or state and/or territory affected by operational deployments.

A

O-6

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21
Q

Individual waivers to primary UAS ATP requirements may be granted by the first commander, _______ and above, in the individual’s chain of command.

A

O-6

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22
Q

When UACs have not flown with the past ____ days, they will receive refresher training prescribed in the appropriate UAS ATM.

A

180 days

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23
Q

Active Army UACs have 90 consecutive days to progress from one RL to the next. Readiness level progression will exclude days lost because of 5 reasons. List 3 of the 5 reasons.

A
Leave approved by the Commander
TDY
Grounding of UAS
Lack of equipment due to deployment / redeployment.
Medical or non-medical suspension
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24
Q

How many days does an Active Army crew member have to progress for one RL level to the next?

A

90 days

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25
Q

If a crewmember is removed from RL 1 to RL 2 or 3 for a training deficiency does he/she still have to satisfy their APART requirements?

A

Yes

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26
Q

If a crewmember is removed from RL 1 or FAC 3 for other than a training deficiency before the end of the training period (example: PCS), do their ATP requirements still apply?

A

No, TC 1-696 para 2-23

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27
Q

When could an individual deviate from regulatory guidance outlined in AR 95-23?

A

During emergencies, to the extent necessary to meet that emergency

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28
Q

Individuals who deviate from the provisions of AR 95-23, FAA regulations, or host-country regulations must report details of the incident directly to their _________. The incident must be reported within _______ after it occurs.

A

unit commander, 24 hours

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29
Q

When conducting an evaluation, what are the 4 evaluation steps as outline in TC 1-696.

A
  1. Introduction
  2. Academic Topics
  3. Flight
  4. De-Brief
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30
Q

List 2 of the 3 reasons Commanders prorate flying-hour/simulator minimums.

A

Is newly designated RL 1
Has the primary UAS re-designated
Changes duty position, which involves a change in the FAC level (TC 1-696 2-21)

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31
Q

Commanders in the grade of____and above will develop and publish policies and procedures for the mission approval process for those UAS units under their command. (AR 95-23 2-12)

A

O-5

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32
Q

Briefing officers and/or NCOs will be designated in writing by commanders in the grade of ___ or above to identify, assess, and mitigate risk. (AR 95-23 2-12)

A

0-5

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33
Q

Self briefing is not authorized unless approved by the first officer in the grade of ____or above in the chain of command. (AR 95-23 para 2-12)

A

O-5

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34
Q

At a minimum, who is the final mission approval authority for a High Risk mission?

A

High Risk Missions (AR 95-23 2-12)

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35
Q

At a minimum, who is the final mission approval authority for a Moderate Risk mission?

A

Moderate Risk Missions (AR 95-23 2-12)

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36
Q

Commanders will implement the mishap prevention program set up by _________.

A

DA Pam 385-90 (AR 95-23 3-5)

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37
Q

Procedures for reporting and investigating UAS mishaps are prescribed in ___________.

A

DA Pam 385-40 (AR 95-23 3-6a)

38
Q

What form will be used to notify commanders and safety councils of anything affecting the safety of Army UA or related personnel and equipment?

A

DA Form 2696 (AR 95-23 3-9)

39
Q

The commander will investigate when ATP requirements are not met. The commander will complete the investigation within ___ days of notification of the failure. (AR 95-23 4-10)

40
Q

For UAC’s who fail to meet ATP requirements: the commander will investigate, and complete the investigation within 30 days of notification of failure. After investigating, the commander will initiate any of the following except

A

Grant the waiver

41
Q

Can an APART standardization flight evaluation be conducted on the simulator?

A

yes, if approved by the first 0-5 or above in the chain of command on a case by case basis

42
Q

DA form 5484 (mission brief sheet) will be retained in unit files with the corresponding risk assessment worksheet for at least

43
Q

No notice evaluations may be what kind of evaluations?

A

a) Written
b) Oral
c) Flight
d) Simulator

44
Q

Can briefing officers brief missions regardless of level of mitigated risk?

45
Q

Operators shall ovoid overflying sensitive areas and wildlife conservation areas below _________.

A

2000 ft AGL

46
Q

According to AR-95-23 para (5-26), before takeoff operators will obtain what information?

A

Departure, enroute, destination, and alternate (if used) weather information

47
Q

Warrant Officers who hold the MOS 150U and/or Officers holding a US Army aeronautical rating that _________ completed UAS qualification course _________ perform payload operator duties on a limited basis.

A

Have not/may

48
Q

The purpose of AR 95-23is to establish procedures rules and responsibilities for?

A

a) Command, control, operations, and use of DA UAS
b) The DA UAS standardization program
c) The UAS weight and Balance

49
Q

The ultimate responsibility for obtaining a complete weather briefing is the ______________________.

A

Operator (AR 95-23 para 5-2c)

50
Q

What does the acronym APART stand for?

A

Annual Proficiency And Readiness Test (AR 95-23 para 4-7)

51
Q

During RL progression if the exclusion period exceeds 45 consecutive days, what must happen when an operator has not RL progressed within the required period?

A

UAC must re start their current RL progression

52
Q

If the exclusion period exceeds _______consecutive days, operators must restart their current RL progression.

53
Q

TRUE OR FALSE. Concurrent days (example simultaneous medical suspension and TDY) may be added together. (TC-696 para 2-22)

54
Q

USAR crewmembers have _____to progress from one RL to the next.

55
Q
  1. According to TC 1-696 the evaluation sequence consists of _____ phases?
56
Q

When must a birth month closeout of the DA form 759 in the IFRF be completed?

A

Within 10 working days following the end of the birth month (FM 3.04.300 pg 6-7)

57
Q

Annual chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRNE) training is mandatory for all___ and those ___positions selected by the commander. (1-696 pg 2-7)

A

FAC1, FAC 2

58
Q
  1. The UAS ____ is the commander’s technical advisor and helps develop, implement, and manage the ATP.
59
Q
  1. Commanders use the DA Form ______ series to inform crewmembers of ATP flying hour, task, and evaluation requirements.
60
Q

Semiannual simulation device flying hour requirements:

A

FAC 1-__________hours, of which ________hours must be flown in each crew station
FAC 2-__________hours of which_________ hours must be flown in each crew station
FAC 3-__________hours, which may be flown in either crew station.

61
Q

TRUE OR FALSE. Unit Trainers are authorized to evaluate.

62
Q

A UAC progresses from RL 3 to RL 2 by demonstrating proficiency in what series tasks?

A

Base Tasks (1000 series)

63
Q

A UAC progresses from RL 2 to RL 1 by demonstrating proficiency in what series tasks?

A

Mission (2000) and Additional (3000) series tasks

64
Q

TRUE OR FALSE. When ATP requirements are not met, the commander will investigate. The commander has up to 45 days to complete the investigation.

65
Q

According to AR 95-23, when waiver authority is not specified in specific paragraphs, waivers to provisions in Chapters 2 through 5 may only be granted by ______.

66
Q

The UAS Operators Written Exam is an open book exam prepared at the unit level and consists of ___ objective questions that cover the entire UAS operator’s manual. (1-696 para 3-8)

67
Q

The UAS Operators Written Exam is an open book exam prepared at the unit level and consists of ____ objective questions that cover the entire UAS operator’s manual. Operators must pass this exam with a passing score of _______

68
Q

A FAC 3 demonstrated proficiency in Base tasks to an IO/SO initially within 90 days of being designated FAC 3, how often must he now demonstrate his proficiency in Base Tasks to an IO/SO?

69
Q

TRUE OR FALSE. A commander can change a UAC’s FAC level to reduce flying hour requirements.

70
Q

The _____ is the primary training manager and trainer for his/her unit.

71
Q

IAW TC 1-696, can a Local Area Orientation be conducted in a simulator?

A

No, (IAW TC 1-696 para 2-30) LAO must be flight

72
Q

Is currency waiverable by the ACOM/MACOM commander?

A

No, the use of the simulator can be authorized to maintain currency for up to 180 days with ACOM/MACOM commanders approval (AR 95-23 para 4-15)

73
Q

TRUE OR FALSE. An uncurrent UAC can perform MC duties. (AR 95-23 para 4-21)

74
Q

TRUE OR FALSE. A medically grounded UAC can perform MC duties. (AR 95-23 para 4-21)

75
Q

TRUE OR FALSE. Graduates of the UAS qualification course who are on their first utilization tour can be designated RL 2 or RL 1 based on a records review.

76
Q

TRUE OR FALSE. Aerial demonstrations in support of civil or military official functions are considered Special Use Missions. (AR 95-23 para 3-3)

77
Q

TRUE OR FALSE. Static demonstrations on a military installation are considered Special Use Missions. (AR 95-23 para 3-3)

78
Q

What (re) training requirements apply when a crewmember returns to an operational flying position after not having flown within the previous 180 days?

A

must be designated RL3 and receive refresher training (TC 1-696 para 2-15)

79
Q

If more than ____ months remain in the crewmembers training year, they must complete at least one iteration of each task in each mode indicated on their list.

80
Q

If less than ____months remain in the crewmembers training year, the crewmember will not have task and iteration requirements unless specified by the commander.

81
Q

TRUE OR FALSE. During a training deficiency, ATP requirements met while RL2/3 will be applied to RL 1 requirements.

82
Q

Is simulator use authorized to conduct a Post accident flight evaluation?

A

Yes, it is recommended in order to more accurately duplicate the conditions related to the accident. Ref (1-696 para 3-13)

83
Q

TRUE OR FALSE. A UAC must complete a local area orientation before progressing to RL 2? (RL1)

84
Q

TRUE OR FALSE. Simulator requirements for a FAC 3 UAC cannot be waived. (should not be waived)

85
Q

What must a UAC do once his currency has lapsed to reestablish currency?

A

complete a PFE according to the ATM

86
Q

TRUE OR FALSE. Unit trainers are not authorized to credit those hours they fly while performing their duties toward their semiannual flying hour minimums.

87
Q

TRUE OR FALSE. FAC Levels and RL levels do not apply to UAS ground crewmembers.

88
Q

TRUE OR FALSE. Tasks evaluated in a more demanding mode may be credited toward completion of each task required by the ATM during RL progression. “N” is considered the most demanding mode, followed by “D”, and “SM”. (TC 1-696 2-14)

89
Q

“Appropriate normal and emergency procedures training for UAS ground crewmembers is conducted by a ______.” (TC 1- 696 para 2-34)

90
Q

Commanders reduce minimums by one month for each _____ days the crewmember was unable to fly for the following reasons: TDY, Medical Suspension, Non Medical Suspension, Grounding of the UAS, Systems are unavailable or in transit due to unit deployment.

91
Q

On the DA Form 7120-1-R, what does the “E” in the task and iteration section indicate?

A

Mandatory for Annual Evaluation (TC 1-696, pg 5-8)

92
Q

Is an IATF required for a UAS ground crewmember?