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Aircraft > Atlas 747-400F Limits 02 Nov 15 > Flashcards

Atlas 747-400F Limits 02 Nov 15 Flashcards

1
Q

Max altitude for takeoff and landing

A

10,000 ft PA

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2
Q

Max op altitude

A

45,100ft PA

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3
Q

Max field elevation

A

9,500’ MSL

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4
Q

Max runway slope

A

±2%

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5
Q

Turbulent air penetration speed

A

290 to 310 KIAS / .82 to .85M whichever is slower

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6
Q

Max tire speed

A

235mph (204 kts)

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7
Q

Max tailwind for takeoff and landing

A

15 kts

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8
Q

Ground wind limits for all doors

A

40 kts while opening or closing

65 kts while open

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9
Q

When is rolling takeoff advised?

A

When crosswind exceeds 20 kts or tailwind exceeds 5 kts

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10
Q

✈️takeoff and landing crosswind guidance

Reported Good and Dry?

A

Takeoff 40kts

Landing 36kts

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11
Q

✈️takeoff and landing crosswind guidance

Reported Good on Wet

A

Takeoff 25kts

Landing 32kts

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12
Q 
✈️takeoff and landing crosswind guidance
Reported Medium (Dry Snow)
A

Takeoff 15kts

Landing 25kts

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13
Q

✈️takeoff and landing crosswind guidance

Reported Medium to Poor (standing water/slush)

A

Takeoff 15kts

Landing 20kts

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14
Q 
✈️takeoff and landing crosswind guidance
Reported Poor (ice-not melting)
A

Takeoff 15kts

Landing 15kts

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15
Q

✈️takeoff and landing crosswind guidance

Reported Nil

A

Operations prohibited

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16
Q

At what bank angle might the engine nacelle contact the ground? How many knots crosswind is that?

A

Bank to exceed 5°. Approx 20kts.

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17
Q

400F MTW (ramp and taxi)

A

397,800 Kg

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18
Q

400F MTOW

A

396,893 Kg

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19
Q

400F MZFW

A

276,691 to 288,031 kg

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20
Q

Max cabin press Δ

A

9.4 psi

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21
Q

Max cabin press Δ for takeoff and landing

A

.11 psi

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22
Q

APU may be used to run which pack on takeoff?

A

Pack #2

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23
Q

What is the highest altitude allowable for APU bleed air use?

A

15,000 ft PA

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24
Q

What is the highest altitude for APU running?

A

20,000’ PA

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25
Q

Use of which trim is prohibited with the autopilot engaged?

A

Aileron trims

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26
Q

Lowest altitude engage the AP?

A

250’ after takeoff

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27
Q

When, and under what conditions must the AP be disengaged?

A

AP must not be engaged below 100’ RA unless LAND2 or LAND3 annunciated

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28
Q

Do not use FLCH on XXXX below 1,000’ of XXXX

A

Final approach, airport field elevation

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29
Q

What is the distance between the wing gear struts in meters and feet?

A

11m(36’1”)

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30
Q

List emergency equipment on the “main cargo deck”

A 
Crash axe
2 escape ropes (L1 and L5)
Large halon fire extinguisher
Water fire extinguisher
Fire extinguisher wand
PBE
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31
Q

List emergency equipment in the “upper deck”

A 
2 Winslow 9 man life rafts
Emergency escape slide
Halon & Water fire extinguisher
2 PBEs
FAK
4 life vests under seats
Frigid Area survival kit
3 walk-around O2 bottles
ELT
6 escape harness (1 extra in the demo kit)
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32
Q

If autoland is used, what must be done to the advisory landing distance in the Performance Inflight (PI) or the TLR distance?

A

Add 1,000’

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33
Q

Automatic landing flap limitations

A

Flaps 25 or 30 only

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34
Q

Autoland Max and Min GS

A

3.25°≧GS≧2.5°

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35
Q

How many operating hydraulic systems are required for autoland?

A

4

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36
Q

Max headwind for autoland

A

25kts

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37
Q

Max tailwind for autoland

A

15kts

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38
Q

Max crosswind for autoland

A

25kts

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39
Q

Max crosswind autoland CAT II/III

A

15kts

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40
Q

Minimum TCH

A

44’

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41
Q

Which radio on what freq range is not to be used for comm?

A

Center VHF, 120.000 to 120.005 MHZ range

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42
Q

What is the limitation on the use of HF radio

A

Do not operate HF radio during refueling

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43
Q

Flight crew must use O2 when?

A

Cabin Alt above 10,000’

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44
Q

The upper deck escape slide must be in what, under what conditions?

A

Forward locked position, for taxi, takeoff and landing whenever upper deck cabin occupied

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45
Q

How many supernumeraries are allowed access to main cargo deck in-flight?

A

3

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46
Q

Target O2 psi for crew?

A

Land 950 psi

Ocean 1,200 psi

47
Q

Engines on the -400F are?

A

GE CF6-80C2
B1F 56,500 lbs
B5F 62,100 lbs

48
Q

List engine rpm limit for N1 and N2

A

N1 - 117.5%

N2 - 112.5%

49
Q

Engine ignitions must be on when? When do they come on automatically?

A

Must be on for

  1. Mod to Hvy rain
  2. Mod to Severe turb
  3. Icing conditions
  4. Hail or sleet
  5. Volcanic Ashe
  6. Standing water/slush on rwy
50
Q

Reverse Thrust when is it prohibited, what maneuver is prohibited?

A

In-flight use, as well as backing up on the ground is prohibited

51
Q

What must be avoided with the flight controls and for what reasons?

A

Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, might cause structural failure

52
Q

Max flap ops alt

A

20,000’

53
Q

Speed brake use not recommended when?

A

Flaps past 20°

54
Q

Max speed in RVSM airspace

A

0.9 M

55
Q

Max allowable discrepancy between captain’s and FO’s altimeters in RVSM airspace?

A

200’

56
Q

What limitations apply WRT use of VNAV and QNE/QNH transition?

A

If within 2,000’ of transition (QNE to QNH, vice versa) do not level off using VNAV, IF QNH is less than 29.70” (1006 hPa)

57
Q

What flap limitations apply to fuel jettison operations?

A

Do not extend or retract flaps between position 1 and 5

58
Q

What’s is the minimum and maximum allowable fuel temperature?

A

Minimum: No less than 3° above the fuel freezing temp

Maximum: +54°c

59
Q

Two jet fuel types prohibited

A

Jet B and JP4 fuel are prohibited

60
Q

Main tanks 1 and 4 capacity each

A

13.3 x 1,000 kg

61
Q

Main tanks 2 and 3 capacity

A

38.1 x 1,000kg

62
Q

Center tank capacity

A

52.1 x 1,000 kg

63
Q

Reserve tank capacity (rsv 2 and 3 individually)

A

4.0 x 1,000 kg

64
Q

How many fuel tanks are located in the wing?

A

9 (1-4, center, two rsv and two surge tanks)

65
Q

Total fuel capacity?

A

163.0 x 1000 kg

66
Q

At what fuel quantity in tanks 2 and 3 does the fuel transfers occur from CWT?

A

27.2 in 2, 3

67
Q

At what fuel quantity in tanks 2 and 3 does the transfer occurs from reserve tanks?

A

Xfr occurs at 18.2 in 2 and 3

68
Q

At what fuel quantity in tanks 2 and 3 does the “Main 1-4 xfr” valve open? Why?

A

Gravity feed at 9.1 (9,072), in the fuel jettison process

69
Q

Before start, climb, and cruise, fuel quantity that will cause “FUEL LOW CTR L, R”

A

7.7 Befor start
3.2 Climb
1.3 Cruise
If the CWT Override/Jettison pumps on

70
Q

Standpipe levels on all mains?

A

3.2

71
Q

“FUEL IMBAL” between tanks 2-3

A

Diff of 2,720

72
Q

“FUEL IMBAL” 1 and 4

A

Diff of 1,360

73
Q

VLO
Extend
Retract

A

Extend/Retract 270 KIAS (.82M)

74
Q

At what speed does the IAS/Mach window change from IAS to Mach?

A

.84

75
Q

At what speed does the IAS/Mach window change to IAS?

A

310 KIAS

76
Q

At what altitude are ROLLOUT and FLARE armed?

A

1,500’ RA

77
Q

At what altitude on ILS does the AP start runway alignment?

A

500’ RA

78
Q

At about what altitude does the FLARE engage? How can you tell?

A

50’ RA, FMA flare mode indicates

79
Q

What does the AP control in the ROLLOUT mode?

A

Rudder and nose wheel

80
Q

How can you terminate approach mode?

A

Disengage AP and both FD or

Hit TOGA mode

81
Q

When is TOGA armed? What is the indication?

A

Armed when

  1. GS captured or
  2. Flaps out of up

No indication is given on FMA

82
Q

On TOGA, the auto throttle provides enough thrust (up to max thrust) for how much performance?

A

2,000 fpm climb

83
Q

Hitting TOGA with AP and AT will…

A

AT…advances thrust levers
AP pitch…maintains selected speed
AP roll…maintains ground track

84
Q

When does Auto Throttle “Hold” mode activate?

A
  1. Airspeed above 65 KIAS or
  2. Thrust levers are manually repositioned in FLCH
  3. Thrust levers reach Idle in FLCH or VNAV
85
Q

At what PSI does the duct pressure turn amber?

A

11 psi or less

86
Q

“Flight deck” emergency equipments

A 
Crash axe
Halon extinguisher 
4 life vests (one at each crew sta)
4 O2 mask with goggles (one at each crew sta)
Fire fighting gloves
PBE
8 escape reels 
Escape hatch
87
Q

VLE

A

320 KIAS (.82M)

88
Q

When does each individual engine get igniter on?

A
  1. Related Start switch is out
  2. NAI On for that engine
  3. A Flame out is detected
89
Q

When does EEC use approach idle?

A
  1. NAI on
  2. Flaps in landing position (for faster spool up, and maintained till 5 sec after TD)
  3. Thrust reverser operation
  4. Cont ign switch on
90
Q

List items on Main Hot Batt Bus

A
  1. Fire switches unlock
  2. Engine fire extinguishers
  3. Spar fuel valves
  4. APU fire extinguishers
  5. APU fuel valve
  6. Lower Cargo fire extinguishers
91
Q

List items on APU Hot Batt Bus

A
  1. IRU’s (L, C, R, power 30 min except C for 5)
  2. Outflow valves L, R
    - –
  3. APU door
  4. APU controller primary
92
Q

List items Main Batt Bus

A
  1. APU controller (alternate)
    - –
  2. Engine fuel valves (all engine)
  3. Fuel XFeed valves
  4. IDG disconnect
    - –
  5. Man. Press control
  6. Trail edge flap control
  7. Cp’s interphone
  8. L VHF radio and tuning panel
  9. Dome, storm and selected lights
93
Q

List items on APU Batt bus

A
  1. APU DC fuel pump
  2. Engine start air control
    - –
  3. APU fire warning and horn
  4. APU/Eng Fire/OVHT det A, B
    - –
  5. Cargo, FO & svc interphone
  6. PA system
94
Q

Items on Main Standby Bus

A
  1. Primary EICAS
  2. L EIU
  3. L EFIS control panel
  4. L CDU
    - –
  5. L ADC
  6. L XPDR
    - –
  7. L ILS, VOR
  8. STDBY instrument lights
    - –
  9. STDBY IGN (all engines)
95
Q

List items on APU STANDBY BUS

A
  1. L PFD, L ND

2. L FMC

96
Q

List items found on the Ground “SERVICE” Bus (AC)

A
  1. Chargers Main & APU Bats
  2. Aft fuel boost pump from tanks 2 & 3
  3. Flight deck flood, nav and svc lights
  4. Misc svc outlets and equipment
97
Q

List items on the Ground “Handling” Bus (AC)

A
  1. Fueling sys
  2. Aux hydraulic pump 4
  3. Lower cargo equipment power
  4. Flight deck access lights
98
Q

List items on center bleed system

A
  1. Pack 2
  2. Trim Air (master switch)
  3. Lower aft cargo heat
  4. Lower cargo (fore and aft) AC trim air
  5. Potable water pressurization
  6. Cargo smoke detection
99
Q

List items on L or R bleed air system

A
  1. A pack
  2. LE flaps
  3. WAI
  4. Demand pumps
  5. Hyd reservoir head pressure
100
Q

What’s on the captain’s transfer bus?

A
  1. Center EIU
  2. L HF
  3. APU standby bus
101
Q

What’s on the FO’s transfer bus?

A
  1. Secondary EICAS
  2. A/T servo
    - —-
  3. R PFD
  4. R ND
  5. R EIU
  6. R ADC
  7. R EFIS control
  8. R HF
  9. R CDU
  10. R FMC
102
Q

Sequence of event from descent to landing, continuous ignition, approach idle, hydraulic demand pumps

A

Draw it out on a piece of paper

103
Q

At what cabin altitude does the Cabin Altitude Limiter close the outflow valves?

A

11,000 ft cabin altitude

104
Q

At what cabin altitude does the supernumerary oxygen masks deploy?

A

14,000 ft cabin altitude

105
Q

What’s the length, nose to tail?

A

70.7 meters

106
Q

Minimum width pavement for a 180° turn (Body gear steering AVAILABLE)?

A

46.6 meters

107
Q

According to DDG 32-53-01, what is the minimum width pavement for a 180° turn (Body gear steering INOP)?

A

51.2 meters (170 feet )

108
Q

Time to conflict RA

A

20-30 sec

109
Q

Time to conflict TA

A

25-45 sec

110
Q

Time to impact (unless corrected) CAUTION TERRAIN

A

40-60 sec

111
Q

Time to impact (unless corrected) TERRAIN TERRAIN PULL UP

A

20-30 sec

112
Q

When do the inhibits for Warning and Caution end and why is there a time difference?

A

Both ends at 400’ AGL. Time from V1 to 400’ would be longer (25sec, Warn) than Rotation to 400’ (20 sec,Caution) (@2,000 fpm 400’ AGL would be reached at 12 sec or there about)

113
Q

Wingspan

A

64.9m

Aircraft (1 decks)

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